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Medicine & Health Science
Q:
Heavy drinking increases the likelihood of ____.
a. having multiple sex partners
b. drinking caffeinated beverages
c. smoking from hookah pipes
d. salt cravings
Q:
Which action would be an example of primary prevention?
a. wearing a knee brace after an injury
b. having coronary bypass surgery
c. attending smoking cessation classes
d. abstaining from sex
Q:
Which statement best describes the unhealthy habits of Americans aged 20-34?
a. Over 50% report drinking five or more drinks within a single sitting each week.
b. About 75% met the minimum physical activity requirements.
c. Only 25% of those who engaged in vaginal intercourse used a condom.
d. Approximately 13% reported smoking tobacco in the past month.
Q:
The average life expectancy for a man living in the United States is ____.
a. 69.7 years
b. 73 years
c. 75.2 years
d. 80 years
Q:
A teenager decides to wait until he is married to have sex because he believes it's the right thing to do. This is an example of which type of influencing factor?
a. behavioral
b. reinforcing
c. predisposing
d. enabling
Q:
Which of the following would be considered a predisposing factor to changing behavior?
a. attitudes, values, and perceptions
b. previous exposure to illness
c. encouragement for meeting a goal
d. physical and mental capacity
Q:
Which of the following is a type of influence that shapes our behaviors?
a. enabling factors
b. circumstantial factors
c. preventive factors
d. external factors
Q:
Which of the following is considered a reinforcing factor for changing behavior?
a. resources
b. recognition
c. knowledge
d. beliefs
Q:
Which of the following is an example of a reinforcing factor?
a. A parent offers you money to earn good grades.
b. Your friends offer to purchase cigarettes.
c. Your sister insists on sharing a dessert.
d. Your family yells at you when you drink alcohol.
Q:
Having a membership to a health club is an example of which type of influencing factor?
a. predisposing
b. enabling
c. reinforcing
d. behavioral
Q:
Individuals are more likely to change a health behavior with which of the following beliefs?
a. Their moral commitment dictates their level of willpower.
b. There is a high price to pay if they don't change.
c. Their friends will disapprove of them if they don"t change.
d. A higher power is in control their behavior.
Q:
Spending as much time as possible in non-smoking areas is an example of ____.
a. self-reevaluation
b. social liberation
c. commitment
d. countering
Q:
Tarah is working with a personal trainer. What concept does this best illustrate?
a. environmental control
b. emotional arousal
c. countering
d. helping relationships
Q:
What change process might include getting rid of your stash of cigarettes?
a. self-reevaluation
b. rewards
c. environmental control
d. commitment
Q:
Chewing gum rather than smoking is an example of ____.
a. environmental control
b. emotional arousal
c. countering
d. rationalizing
Q:
Joining Alcoholics Anonymous for help with a drinking problem is an example of ____.
a. commitment
b. social liberation
c. emotional arousal
d. rewards
Q:
Jay is now practicing his new behavioral change. What stage of change is he in?
a. contemplation
b. preparation
c. maintenance
d. action
Q:
Jay is planning to make a change within the next 30 days. What stage of change is he engaged in?
a. contemplation
b. preparation
c. maintenance
d. action
Q:
What is a key component of the transtheoretical model of change?
a. beliefs
b. reinforcements
c. attitudes
d. self-efficacy
Q:
Being healthy ____.
a. is only a concern for those who are 40 and older
b. means that you are not sick
c. is a personal choice that you make every day
d. means that you are not in pain
Q:
In the _________ model, the focus is primarily on the individual's attitudes.
a. health belief
b. moral
c. medical
d. behavioral
Q:
What would be the most essential component of spiritual health?
a. attending a religious service on a weekly basis
b. helping others achieve their full potential
c. devoting more time to personal needs
d. participating in daily prayer
Q:
Health promotion is most likely to include which of the following?
a. marketing billboards for discouraging pre-marital sex
b. limiting tobacco sales to adults
c. giving out brochures about the benefits of yoga
d. eliminating all protein from your diet
Q:
The ability to develop satisfying interpersonal relationships is an example of which component of health?
a. behavioral
b. social
c. sexual
d. intellectual
Q:
Intellectual health is most associated with your ____.
a. willingness to fulfill social roles
b. ability to learn from life's experiences
c. mental stability
d. ability to function independently
Q:
What term best describes the impact the world has on your well-being?
a. air pollution
b. environmental health
c. physical health
d. social health
Q:
Psychological health gives individuals the ability to do which of the following?
a. Express emotions.
b. Function dependently.
c. Diagnose emotional problems.
d. Ignore daily stressors.
Q:
Psychological health refers to ____.
a. your intelligence quotient (I.Q.)
b. the absence of problems or illness
c. critical thinking
d. emotional and mental states
Q:
What is considered to be the most essential step towards maintaining optimal physical health?
a. Taking an aspirin every day
b. Venting negative feelings
c. Having meaningful relationships
d. Watching out for early signs of sickness
Q:
What is the most common health problem reported by college students in America?
a. allergies
b. sinus infection
c. migraine
d. back pain
Q:
The self-determination model focuses on the individual's ____.
a. genetic history
b. support network
c. attitude and beliefs
d. motivation
Q:
According to the enlightenment model of behavioral change, ____.
a. failure is seen as a character weakness
b. use strict discipline in order to correct the problem
c. success should be rewarded
d. only health experts should provide recommendations
Q:
People are more likely to change their behavior if they believe in the idea of ____.
a. motivation
b. susceptibility
c. tradeoffs
d. invulnerability
Q:
According to a British study, which habit will increase longevity by 14 years?
a. drinking water
b. taking vitamins
c. regular exercise
d. meditation
Q:
A decision to change a health behavior should primarily stem from a ____.
a. personal goal
b. desire to please others
c. significant illness
d. doctor's recommendation
Q:
In the ____ model, failure is a sign of character weakness.
a. enlightenment
b. moral
c. medical
d. compensatory
Q:
Which of the following is a goal for Healthy People 2020?a. Promote healthy development during adolescence.b. Achieve health equity.c. Reduce premature death.d. Create universal health care.
Q:
How much does the United States spend on health care?
a. $50 billion
b. $175 billion
c. $1.2 trillion
d. $2.6 trillion
Q:
When American men and women, men ____.
a. are more likely to have an eating disorder
b. have lower rates of cancer
c. are less likely to have attention deficit disorder
d. have higher rates of heart attack
Q:
What is the most significant health barrier for minorities?
a. poverty
b. lack of sanitation
c. poor water quality
d. bacterial infections
Q:
Looking at health and the individual as a whole, rather than part by part, describes ____.
a. physical health
b. emotional health
c. holistic health
d. developmental health
Q:
Which of the following best describes "wellness"?
a. A positive, optimistic outlook
b. A personally satisfying job
c. A decision to move towards optimal health
d. A life free of pain
Q:
Which of the following is considered a dimension of health?
a. A sense of control over stress
b. Achieving your highest potential
c. A sense of purpose in the world
d. Social networking with friends
Q:
Research on social norms among college students
a. is only accurate if students identify themselves with an ID
b. indicates that most undergraduates smoke cigarettes
c. should never be used in educational campaigns
d. shows that most students misjudge what their peers are actually doing
Q:
Giving encouragement for meeting a goal would best be characterized as a(n) ____.
a. reinforcing factor
b. enabling factor
c. behavioral factor
d. predisposing factor
Q:
The nurse is assessing the abilities of an older adult. Which activities are considered IADLs? Select all that apply.
a. Feeding oneself
b. Preparing a meal
c. Balancing a checkbook
d. Walking
e. Toileting
f. Grocery shopping
Q:
The nurse is preparing to assess an older adult and discovers that the older adult is in severe pain. Which statement about pain and the older adult is true?
a. Pain is inevitable with aging.
b. Older adults with cognitive impairments feel less pain.
c. Alleviating pain should be a priority over other aspects of the assessment.
d. The assessment should take priority so that care decisions can be made.
Q:
When beginning to assess a person's spirituality, which question by the nurse would be most appropriate?
a. "Do you believe in God?"
b. "How does your spirituality relate to your health care decisions?"
c. "What religious faith do you follow?"
d. "Do you believe in the power of prayer?"
Q:
During a functional assessment of an older person's home environment, which statement or question by the nurse is most appropriate regarding common environmental hazards?
a. "These low toilet seats are safe because they are nearer to the ground in case of falls."
b. "Do you have a relative or friend who can help to install grab bars in your shower?"
c. "These small rugs are ideal for preventing you from slipping on the hard floor."
d. "It would be safer to keep the lighting low in this room to avoid glare in your eyes."
Q:
An older patient has been admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) after falling at home. Within 8 hours, his condition has stabilized and he is transferred to a medical unit. The family is wondering whether he will be able to go back home. Which assessment instrument is most appropriate for the nurse to choose at this time?
a. Lawton IADL instrument
b. Hospital Admission Risk Profile (HARP)
c. Mini-Cog
d. NEECHAM Confusion Scale
Q:
During a morning assessment, the nurse notices that an older patient is less attentive and is unable to recall yesterday's events. Which test is appropriate for assessing the patient's mental status?
a. Geriatric Depression Scale, short form
b. Rapid Disability Rating Scale-2
c. Mini-Cog
d. Get Up and Go Test
Q:
An 85-year-old man has been hospitalized after a fall at home, and his 86-year-old wife is at his bedside. She tells the nurse that she is his primary caregiver. The nurse should assess the caregiver for signs of possible caregiver burnout, such as:
a. Depression.
b. Weight gain.
c. Hypertension.
d. Social phobias.
Q:
The nurse is assessing the forms of support an older patient has before she is discharged. Which of these examples is an informal source of support?
a. Local senior center
b. Patient's Medicare check
c. Meals on Wheels meal delivery service
d. Patient's neighbor, who visits with her daily
Q:
A patient will be ready to be discharged from the hospital soon, and the patient's family members are concerned about whether the patient is able to walk safely outside alone. The nurse will perform which test to assess this?
a. Get Up and Go Test
b. Performance ADLs
c. Physical Performance Test
d. Tinetti Gait and Balance Evaluation
Q:
When using the various instruments to assess an older person's ADLs, the nurse needs to remember that a disadvantage of these instruments includes:
a. Reliability of the tools.
b. Self or proxy reporting of functional activities.
c. Lack of confidentiality during the assessment.
d. Insufficient details concerning the deficiencies identified.
Q:
The nurse is assessing an older adult's advanced activities of daily living (AADLs), which would include:
a. Recreational activities.
b. Meal preparation.
c. Balancing the checkbook.
d. Self-grooming activities.
Q:
The nurse is preparing to use the Lawton IADL instrument as part of an assessment. Which statement about the Lawton IADL instrument is true?
a. The nurse uses direct observation to implement this tool.
b. The Lawton IADL instrument is designed as a self-report measure of performance rather than ability.
c. This instrument is not useful in the acute hospital setting.
d. This tool is best used for those residing in an institutional setting.
Q:
The nurse needs to assess a patient's ability to perform activities of daily living (ADLs) and should choose which tool for this assessment?
a. Direct Assessment of Functional Abilities (DAFA)
b. Lawton Instrumental Activities of Daily Living (IADL) scale
c. Barthel Index
d. Older Americans Resources and Services Multidimensional Functional Assessment Questionnaire"IADL (OMFAQ-IADL)
Q:
The nurse is preparing to perform a functional assessment of an older patient and knows that a good approach would be to:
a. Observe the patient's ability to perform the tasks.
b. Ask the patient's wife how he does when performing tasks.
c. Review the medical record for information on the patient's abilities.
d. Ask the patient's physician for information on the patient's abilities.
Q:
The nurse is assessing an older adult's functional ability. Which definition correctly describes one's functional ability? Functional ability:
a. Is the measure of the expected changes of aging that one is experiencing.
b. Refers to the individual's motivation to live independently.
c. Refers to the level of cognition present in an older person.
d. Refers to one's ability to perform activities necessary to live in modern society.
Q:
During a group prenatal teaching session, the nurse teaches Kegel exercises. Which statements would be appropriate for this teaching session? Select all that apply.
a. "Kegel exercises help keep your uterus strong during the pregnancy."
b. "Kegel exercises should be performed twice a day."
c. "Kegel exercises should be performed 50 to 100 times a day."
d. "To perform Kegel exercises, slowly squeeze to a peak at the count of eight, and then slowly release to a count of eight."
e. "To perform Kegel exercises, rapidly perform alternating squeeze-release exercises up to the count of eight."
Q:
During a woman's 34th week of pregnancy, she is told that she has preeclampsia. The nurse knows which statement concerning preeclampsia is true?
a. Preeclampsia has little effect on the fetus.
b. Edema is one of the main indications of preeclampsia.
c. Eclampsia only occurs before delivery of the baby.
d. Untreated preeclampsia may contribute to restriction of fetal growth.
Q:
During auscultation of fetal heart tones (FHTs), the nurse determines that the heart rate is 136 beats per minute. The nurse's next action should be to:
a. Document the results, which are within normal range.
b. Take the maternal pulse to verify these findings as the uterine souffle.
c. Have the patient change positions and count the FHTs again.
d. Immediately notify the physician for possible fetal distress.
Q:
A woman at 25 weeks' gestation comes to the clinic for her prenatal visit. The nurse notices that her face and lower extremities are swollen, and her blood pressure is 154/94 mm Hg. The woman states that she has had headaches and blurry vision but thought she was just tired. What should the nurse suspect?
a. Eclampsia
b. Preeclampsia
c. Diabetes type 1
d. Preterm labor
Q:
A 25-year-old woman is in the clinic for her first prenatal visit. The nurse will prepare to obtain which laboratory screening test at this time?
a. Urine toxicology
b. Complete blood cell count
c. Alpha-fetoprotein
d. Carrier screening for cystic fibrosis
Q:
During a health history interview, a 38-year-old woman shares that she is thinking about having another baby. The nurse knows which statement to be true regarding pregnancy after 35 years of age?
a. Fertility does not start to decline until age 40 years.
b. Occurrence of Down syndrome is significantly more frequent after the age of 35 years.
c. Genetic counseling and prenatal screening are not routine until after age 40 years.
d. Women older than 35 years who are pregnant have the same rate of pregnancy-related complications as those who are younger than 35 years.
Q:
A patient who is 24 weeks' pregnant asks about wearing a seat belt while driving. Which response by the nurse is correct?
a. "Seat belts should not be worn during pregnancy."
b. "Place the lap belt below the uterus and use the shoulder strap at the same time."
c. "Place the lap belt below the uterus but omit the shoulder strap during pregnancy."
d. "Place the lap belt at your waist above the uterus and use the shoulder strap at the same time."
Q:
During the assessment of a woman in her 22ndweek of pregnancy, the nurse is unable to hear fetal heart tones with the fetoscope. The nurse should:
a. Immediately notify the physician, then wait 10 minutes and try again.
b. Ask the woman if she has felt the baby move today.
c. Wait 10 minutes, and try again.
d. Use ultrasound to verify cardiac activity.
Q:
A patient's pregnancy test is positive, and she wants to know when the baby is due. The first day of her last menstrual period was June 14, and that period ended June 20. Using the Ngele rule, what is her expected date of delivery?
a. March 7
b. March 14
c. March 21
d. March 27
Q:
Which of these correctly describes the average length of pregnancy?
a. 38 weeks
b. 9 lunar months
c. 280 days from the last day of the last menstrual period
d. 280 days from the first day of the last menstrual period
Q:
The nurse is palpating the uterus of a woman who is 8 weeks' pregnant. Which finding would be considered to be most consistent with this stage of pregnancy?
a. The uterus seems slightly enlarged and softened.
b. It reaches the pelvic brim and is approximately the size of a grapefruit.
c. The uterus rises above the pelvic brim and is approximately the size of a cantaloupe.
d. It is about the size of an avocado, approximately 8 cm across the fundus.
Q:
The nurse is palpating the abdomen of a woman who is 35 weeks' pregnant and notices that the fetal head is facing downward toward the pelvis. The nurse would document this as fetal:
a. Lie.
b. Variety.
c. Attitude.
d. Presentation.
Q:
The nurse is palpating the fundus of a pregnant woman. Which statement about palpation of the fundus is true?
a. The fundus should be hard and slightly tender to palpation during the first trimester.
b. Fetal movement may not be felt by the examiner until the end of the second trimester.
c. After 20 weeks' gestation, the number of centimeters should approximate the number of weeks' gestation.
d. Fundal height is usually less than the number of weeks' gestation, unless an abnormal condition such as excessive amniotic fluid is present.
Q:
When performing an examination of a woman who is 34 weeks' pregnant, the nurse notices a midline linear protrusion in the abdomen over the area of the rectus abdominis muscles as the woman raises her head and shoulders off of the bed. Which response by the nurse is correct?
a. The presence of diastasis recti should be documented.
b. This condition should be discussed with the physician because it will most likely need to be surgically repaired.
c. The possibility that the woman has a hernia attributable to the increased pressure within the abdomen from the pregnancy should be suspected.
d. The woman should be told that she may have a difficult time with delivery because of the weakness in her abdominal muscles.
Q:
When the nurse is assessing the deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) on a woman who is 32 weeks' pregnant, which of these would be considered a normal finding on a 0 to 4+ scale?
a. Absent DTRs
b. 2+
c. 4+
d. Brisk reflexes and the presence of clonus
Q:
When auscultating the anterior thorax of a pregnant woman, the nurse notices the presence of a murmur over the second, third, and fourth intercostal spaces. The murmur is continuous but can be obliterated by pressure with the stethoscope or finger on the thorax just lateral to the murmur. The nurse interprets this finding to be:
a. Murmur of aortic stenosis.
b. Most likely a mammary souffle.
c. Associated with aortic insufficiency.
d. Indication of a patent ductus arteriosus.
Q:
Which finding is considered normal and expected when the nurse is performing a physical examination on a pregnant woman?
a. Palpable, full thyroid
b. Edema in one lower leg
c. Significant diffuse enlargement of the thyroid
d. Pale mucous membranes of the mouth
Q:
When examining the face of a woman who is 28 weeks' pregnant, the nurse notices the presence of a butterfly-shaped increase in pigmentation on the face. The proper term for this finding in the documentation is:
a. Striae.
b. Chloasma.
c. Linea nigra.
d. Mask of pregnancy.
Q:
The nurse knows that the best time to assess a woman's blood pressure during an initial prenatal visit is:
a. At the end of the examination when she will be the most relaxed.
b. At the beginning of the interview as a nonthreatening method of gaining rapport.
c. During the middle of the physical examination when she is the most comfortable.
d. Before beginning the pelvic examination because her blood pressure will be higher after the pelvic examination.
Q:
When assessing a woman who is in her third trimester of pregnancy, the nurse looks for the classic symptoms associated with preeclampsia, which include:
a. Edema, headaches, and seizures.
b. Elevated blood pressure and proteinuria.
c. Elevated liver enzymes and high platelet counts.
d. Decreased blood pressure and edema.