Q&A Hero

Q: Which of the following is part of the minimum data set developed by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) for purposes of data collection in conducting research? A) Patient's insurance coverage B) Amount charged for ambulance services C) Patient's name D) Time of arrival at the patient's location

Q: Two EMTs are on-scene of a behavioral call at a psychiatric facility. The medical personnel state that the patient had a psychotic episode and slashed his wrists. During the call, the patient claims to hear the voice of God and says that the voice is hurting his ears. The patient refuses to be transported to the emergency department, becomes combative, and bites one of the EMTs. Which of the following should NOT be documented on the EMS report? A) The fact that the patient was violent and bit the EMT B) The fact that the EMT had an exposure incident C) The fact that the patient hears voices D) The fact that the patient slashed his wrists

Q: You are on a call of a minor vehicle accident. Your patient is a 22-year-old male who was the driver of a moderate T-Bone collision. The patient was not wearing a seat belt and there was spidering of the windshield. The patient complains of neck pain and has a scalp laceration. After performing the primary assessment, you take vital signs and bandage the patient's scalp. When you tell him you need to backboard him, he refuses care and ambulance transport. Because the person is alert and oriented to time, place, and person, you have the patient sign the separate patient refusal form provided by your service. How should you document this incident in your EMS report? A) No report is needed because the patient refused transport and signed the refusal. B) You should only document what treatment you performed before the patient refused treatment. C) You should document everything including all patient care, all of your attempts to persuade the patient to go by ambulance, and who witnessed the patient refusal. D) You should document your patient care and then simply document that the patient was informed of the risks prior to his refusal. Anything extra is unnecessary and wastes time.

Q: You suspect that a 6-year-old female patient with multiple bruises and a broken wrist was abused. The stepmother states the patient fell down the stairs. The patient is crying and sheepishly nods in agreement with the stepmother's statements. How should you document this situation in the patient report? A) Document who you suspect caused the injuries in the narrative so law enforcement has a record of the incident. B) Document what was said as well as your opinion that the child was too afraid to tell the truth. C) Document only the actual exam findings. Do not document anything that was said. D) Document any pertinent information that was said by the stepmother and child exactly in quotations.

Q: Patient data includes all of the following except the: A) nature of the dispatch. B) patient's medications. C) patient's chief complaint. D) mechanism of injury.

Q: Which of the following is NOT an appropriate statement for the EMT to make on a patient care report? A) The patient complains of difficulty breathing. B) The patient had wheezes that were audible without using a stethoscope. C) The patient has a history of asthma. D) The patient was having an asthma attack.

Q: Which of the following is NOT an objective element of documented patient information? A) Position in which the patient was found B) Patient's complaint of nausea C) Patient's blood pressure D) Patient's age

Q: Which of the following should be documented as subjective patient information? A) Medications B) Signs C) Description of the surroundings D) Symptoms

Q: Which of the following is NOT appropriate to document on your patient care report? A) Patient's attitude B) Patient's mental status C) Patient's race D) All should be documented

Q: Which of the following should NOT be included in a patient care report? A) Patient's subjective statements B) Radio codes C) Pertinent negative findings D) Chief complaint

Q: You are on the scene of an unresponsive adult female patient. You find an empty pill bottle lying next to her bed. You look up the medication in your field guide and discover the medication is a powerful sedative. The prescription on the bottle is for the patient's husband, who is not present to answer questions about the medication. What should you do? A) Document the empty pill bottle. It may provide important clues to the patient's condition. B) Do not document the empty pill bottle. It does not belong to the patient. C) Document the empty pill bottle. It is obvious that she took the pills. D) Do not document the empty pill bottle. You cannot prove that she took the pills and could lead the doctor to make a false diagnosis.

Q: Which of the following should be placed in quotes in the patient care report? A) Patient's expressed consent B) Chief complaint C) List of patient's medications D) Mechanism of injury

Q: The portion of the patient care report in which the EMT writes his description of the patient's presentation, assessment findings, treatment, and transport information is called the: A) text. B) data set. C) deposition. D) narrative.

Q: An objective statement made in a prehospital patient care report meets all of the following criteria except which one? A) Verifiable B) Observable C) Measurable D) Biased

Q: Which of the following information on a patient care report is NOT considered run data? A) Chief complaint B) Other EMS units on the scene C) Location of the call D) Time of arrival at the receiving facility

Q: Which of the following can be correctly noted as a chief complaint? A) The patient had a respiratory rate of 44. B) The patient was confused. C) The patient stated that she felt sick. D) The patient was found sitting in the driver's seat of a full-size sedan.

Q: Which of the following statements regarding eye contact with a patient is NOT true? A) It shows you are confident. B) It shows you are attentive. C) It shows you are interested in the patient. D) Eye contact is always appropriate.

Q: Your elderly male patient tells you his name is Joe Smith. Which of the following is the BEST way to address him? A) Joe B) Smitty C) Mr. Smith D) Sir

Q: Which of the following is NOT an appropriate way of dealing with a patient who does not speak the same language as you do? A) Avoid communicating with the patient so there is no misunderstanding of your intentions. B) Use an interpreter. C) Contact dispatch for assistance in finding a translator. D) Use a manual that provides translation.

Q: You are responding to a nursing home for an 85-year-old patient complaining of difficulty breathing. How would you initiate contact with this patient? A) Stand near the head of the bed and shout to make sure the patient can hear you. B) Place yourself at eye-level, identify yourself, and ask the patient what she would like to be called. C) Sit on the foot of the bed and ask the patient what's up. D) Pick up the patient's wrist and begin taking her pulse.

Q: What is the best way to communicate with a young pediatric patient? A) Only talk with the parents. The child is too young to know his or her medical history. B) Sit at the level of the child, if possible, and always be honest. C) Do not tell the child that a procedure will hurt beforehand because the child will become terrified. D) Tell the child the procedure will hurt much more than it actually will so he or she will be pleasantly surprised when the procedure is over.

Q: While on the scene with an elderly chest pain call, you notice that your partner gets on one knee when talking to the seated patient. What is the best reason for an EMT to kneel down beside the patient? A) The younger EMT is acknowledging that the older patient is his elder. B) The EMT is kneeling to protect himself. C) The EMT can examine the patient's chest better. D) The EMT does not want to appear threatening or intimidating to the patient.

Q: You are treating a 32-year-old man who is deaf. You need to find out why he called for an ambulance. What is the BEST way to communicate with this patient? A) Use hand gestures to act out what you are trying to say. B) Make sure the patient can see your lips when you speak. C) Call for an interpreter to meet you at the hospital. D) Speak very loudly in case he has a little hearing.

Q: You are attempting to place a nonrebreather mask on a patient who is experiencing difficulty breathing. The patient is anxious and does not want the mask on his face. Which of the following is the BEST course of action? A) Tell the patient the mask is for his benefit and you will restrain him if necessary to place it on him. B) Explain the importance of oxygen and ask the patient to at least try to leave the mask on, but that if he can't tolerate it you can try another method. C) Tell the patient he will soon become unconscious without the mask and then you will be able to place it on him. D) Document that the patient was uncooperative and refused oxygen.

Q: You are treating a patient with a possible fractured ankle. The patient appears to be in a lot of pain and is uneasy. As you are getting ready to splint the patient's leg, he asks you if it is going to hurt. Which of the following is the BEST response? A) "If you're stressed out like this, it's going to hurt a lot more." B) "Relax, this is not a painful procedure." C) "I will do my best, but it may hurt while we put the splint on." D) "It doesn't matter, we have to do it anyway."

Q: Which of the following BEST describes the position you should take when dealing with a cooperative patient who is sitting in a chair? A) Sit or kneel at the same level as the patient. B) Stand behind the patient's chair. C) Stand next to the chair. D) Sit on the floor at the patient's feet.

Q: When you arrive at the receiving facility, the nurse asks your partner for a verbal report of the patient's condition. This is in addition to the radio report your partner gave to the hospital en route. Afterwards, you ask your partner why you must give a second verbal report and a written report to the receiving nurse. What is the best reason to provide both reports? A) The nurse may not have heard the first radio report. B) The nurse may have to perform critical interventions on the patient before you complete your written report. C) The patient's condition may have changed since the first radio report. D) The nurse may be too busy to read the written report.

Q: Which of the following describes the importance of effective communication of patient information in the verbal report? A) Patient treatment can be based on this information. B) Additional information that was not given in the radio report can be provided. C) Changes in the patient's condition can be communicated. D) All of the above

Q: Medical direction has requested that you administer 70 grams of activated charcoal to an overdose patient. Which of the following should you do next? A) Document the order in writing before carrying it out. B) Repeat the order back to the physician to make sure you understood correctly. C) Administer the medication without delay. D) Prepare the medication and then call the hospital back to re-confirm the order.

Q: You have received an order from medical direction that you feel would be detrimental to your patient. Which of the following should you do? A) Politely question the physician. B) Carry out the order but document that you disagreed with it. C) Contact your supervisor for advice. D) Call a different hospital for orders.

Q: When giving a radio report to the hospital, which of the following would be the first patient-specific information provided? A) The patient is complaining of chest pain. B) The patient has taken nitroglycerin. C) The patient is a 55-year-old male. D) The patient is having a heart attack.

Q: You are transporting a city councilman to the hospital after he injured his shoulder playing basketball at his gym. His left shoulder is swollen, deformed, and bruised. There is pain and tingling when the patient attempts to use his hand. He has a pulse of 92 per minute, a respiratory rate of 20 per minute, and a blood pressure of 132/88 mmHg. Which of the following should NOT be included in the radio report? A) The appearance of the shoulder B) Notification that extra security is needed for a VIP C) How the injury occurred D) Vital signs

Q: Why is it important to notify medical control as soon as practical about your patient's condition? A) It provides legal protection as patient care now becomes their responsibility. B) It allows the receiving facility more time to prepare for your arrival. C) It is common courtesy. D) It minimizes the chance that you will forget to contact medical control.

Q: How many parts does a standard medical radio report have as described in your textbook? A) 12 B) 8 C) 5 D) 10

Q: Why is it important that your radio report to the receiving facility be concise? A) The emergency department needs to know quickly and accurately the patient's condition. B) You do not want to bore the nurse receiving your report. C) You want to make sure the doctor approves your medical order request. D) You want to appear professional.

Q: Which of the following is NOT appropriate for inclusion in the radio report to the receiving hospital? A) Physical exam findings B) The patient's mental status C) Name of the patient's health insurance provider D) Pertinent past illnesses

Q: You have received the following order from medical control: "Administer one tablet of nitroglycerin under the patient's tongue." Which of the following is the BEST response? A) "Roger, order received." B) "Order received. One nitroglycerin tablet under the patient's tongue." C) "Clear. Will advise of any changes in patient's condition." D) "Copy. Administering medication now."

Q: Which of the following is NOT part of a medical radio report? A) Estimated time of arrival B) Address at which the patient was located C) Unit identification D) Patient's response to medical care provided

Q: You have an urgent transmission you need to make to the dispatch center. Which of the following is the appropriate way to communicate this? A) Interrupt less urgent radio traffic to get your message across. B) Speak loudly to convey the urgency of the message. C) Listen to the frequency first to avoid stepping on another transmission. D) Use the phrase, "Attention, attention, I have priority traffic."

Q: Why is it important to NOT give the name or Social Security number of your patient over the ambulance radio when contacting medical control? A) It is illegal. B) Someone may steal the patient's identity. C) Someone may know the patient and tell the patient's friends. D) It is unnecessary.

Q: Which of the following information does NOT need to be provided to the dispatcher? A) Estimated time of arrival at the hospital B) Which hospital you are transporting to C) When you depart from the hospital D) When you arrive at the hospital

Q: During your radio report to the hospital, which of the following pieces of information should NOT be relayed? A) Patient's age B) Baseline vital signs C) Patient's name D) Patient's status

Q: Which of the following is NOT considered a principle of proper radio usage in EMS? A) Speak with your lips 2 to 3 inches from the microphone. B) Speak as quickly as possible. C) Use plain English. D) Make sure the radio is on before speaking.

Q: Which of the following agencies assigns and licenses radio frequencies? A) United States Department of Transportation B) Transportation Security Administration C) Federal Trade Commission D) Federal Communications Commission

Q: You are en route to the hospital with a 22-year-old male patient who has suffered a very embarrassing injury to his genitalia. Which method of contacting the receiving facility will afford the patient the most privacy? A) Using the handheld radio B) Using the ambulance radio but not using the patient's name C) Using the ambulance radio but not providing details of the injury D) Providing the receiving hospital with all information via a cell phone

Q: A major tornado has hit the neighboring town, knocking down power lines and injuring several people. What will provide the best chance to give your patient report to the receiving facility? A) Cell phone at the scene B) Landline at the patient's house C) Ambulance mobile radio D) Portable radio at the residence

Q: Which of the following BEST describes a repeater? A) A two-way radio that is mounted in a vehicle B) A two-way radio that can be carried on a belt clip C) A device that receives and amplifies a signal that must be carried over long distances D) A two-way radio at a fixed site

Q: Which of the following BEST describes a portable radio? A) A device that receives and amplifies signals that must be sent over long distances B) A two-way radio that is mounted in a vehicle C) A two-way radio at a fixed site D) A two-way radio that can be carried on a belt clip

Q: Which of the following BEST describes a mobile radio? A) A two-way radio that can be carried on a belt clip B) A two-way radio that is mounted in a vehicle C) A two-way radio at a fixed site D) A device that receives and amplifies signals that must be sent over a long distance

Q: Which of the following BEST describes a base station? A) A two-way radio at a fixed site B) A device used to receive and then amplify transmissions that must be carried over long distances C) A two-way radio mounted in a vehicle D) A two-way radio that can be carried on a belt clip

Q: A list of potential diagnoses compiled early in the patient's assessment is known as which of the following? A) Emergency medical diagnosis B) Assessment-based diagnosis C) Differential diagnosis D) Traditional diagnosis

Q: Of the following, which would most likely give the best information regarding your patient's mental status? A) Pulse and respiratory rate B) List of allergies C) List of medications D) Last oral intake

Q: Your elderly patient reports having stomach cramps for several hours. He denies any trauma and he hasn't eaten for several hours. Which of the following is more important to your assessment of this patient? A) Asking if he has been having regular bowel movements B) Determining if he has been taking his medications as prescribed C) Finding out if he has any chest pain D) Asking him if he is able to walk

Q: Which of the following situations is most likely to result in hidden or unsuspected injury? A) Deformity of the interior compartment of the vehicle B) A vehicle without air bags C) Seat belt use by the vehicle occupants D) Collisions that occur at night

Q: A description of a patient's condition that assists a clinician in further evaluation and treatment is known as which of the following? A) Red flag B) Critical thinking C) Diagnosis D) Clinical decision

Q: Expert clinicians may use different approaches of thinking through problems, but which of the following will they have in common? A) Knowledge that one strategy works for everyone B) Strong foundation of knowledge C) Dislike of ambiguity D) Organization of data in their head

Q: Which of the following describes skepticism about one thing causing another? A) Availability B) Illusory correlation C) Representativeness D) Confirmation bias

Q: "If it looks like a duck and quacks like a duck, it must be a duckexcept when it isn't" is a way to summarize which of the following? A) Representativeness B) Illusory correlation C) Overconfidence D) Confirmation bias

Q: Which of the following is one advantage of using heuristics? A) It provides a more accurate diagnosis. B) It speeds up the process of diagnosis. C) It allows you to treat the patient during diagnosis. D) It slows the process of diagnosis.

Q: ________ are signs or symptoms that suggest the possibility of a particular problem that is very serious. A) Pertinent negatives B) Differentials C) Red flags D) All of the above

Q: While an EMT forms a field diagnosis on the scene of an emergency, how do the steps differ from the traditional approach to diagnosis? A) The EMT forms a field diagnosis within the first few minutes of the call to formulate treatment as quickly as possible. B) Due to the limited time spent with the patient, the EMT must rely on a differential diagnosis. C) The EMT must rule in or out the most serious conditions associated with the patient's presentation. D) The EMT does not have time to form a differential diagnosis and must rely on prior experience when treating a patient.

Q: The process by which an EMT forms a field diagnosis is known as: A) critical thinking. B) differential thinking. C) clinical thinking. D) diagnostic thinking.

Q: An EMT's assessment differs from an assessment made in the emergency department in which way? A) An EMT's focus is on life threats first. B) Time is available in the emergency department to make a diagnosis. C) The emergency physician is concerned with scene safety. D) The EMT is working with limited resources.

Q: You respond to a motor vehicle collision and find a patient with an altered mental status and angulated left femur; the other driver is deceased. Your closest trauma center is 45 minutes away. Which of the following would you do next? A) Apply a traction splint. B) Request ALS personnel. C) Transport the patient to a local medical clinic for evaluation by a physician. D) Perform a detailed physical exam.

Q: You are on the scene of a 16-year-old patient in respiratory distress. The patient has a history of asthma. After placing the patient on oxygen and performing the primary and secondary assessments, you are confident that the patient is indeed having an asthma attack. How can you be sure your field diagnosis is accurate? A) Keep your EMT textbook with you on the ambulance and review it to confirm your diagnosis. B) Ask your partner her opinion; if she also agrees that it is asthma, the diagnosis is correct. C) Constantly reassess the patient to make sure you are correct. D) Think of all possible causes of respiratory distress and rule them in or out as potential diagnoses based on your clinical findings.

Q: You are on the scene in the bad part of town for an unresponsive 18-year-old type 1 diabetic patient. His mother states that he is very noncompliant with his diabetes management and goes unresponsive often due to low blood sugar. After performing the primary assessment, you believe that this is the most likely cause of his unresponsiveness. However, after taking a capillary glucose reading you are surprised to see that the patient's sugar level is normal. How will you now determine the field impression? A) Recognize that the mother was lying to you. The patient is not diabetic and you now must assume that everything she told you is wrong. B) You cannot make a correct diagnosis in the field because you cannot perform all the necessary tests with your limited scope of practice. C) Recognize that the mother is probably trying to protect her son from jail. Tell her that it is critical that she tell you what drugs he actually took. D) Continue patient care by getting a complete SAMPLE history and perform a complete secondary assessment.

Q: You and another EMT are discussing a call he previously ran. The EMT said the patient had classic chest pain symptoms and he treated it as a possible heart attack, but he later found out the patient just had indigestion and was discharged 2 hours later. The EMT was concerned that his patient assessment skills were not as good as they should be, and that the ED physician will no longer trust his judgment. How should you respond to his concerns? A) Tell him that his misdiagnosis is a common EMT mistake caused by illusionary correlation. B) Tell him that his misdiagnosis is a result of anchoring. C) Tell him that his misdiagnosis is a result of confirmation bias. D) Tell him that his misdiagnosis is a result of limited information.

Q: You are transporting a patient whom you are treating for chest pain. You have completed all of your assessments and are writing down some of his personal information such as his address and phone number. As the patient is speaking, you notice that he is having increasing difficulty breathing. You should: A) get a quick set of vital signs. B) call the hospital and report the difficulty. C) immediately repeat your primary assessment. D) call for ALS backup.

Q: Your patient is an 18-year-old female whom you believe may have had a miscarriage and is bleeding heavily. You have completed your primary and secondary assessments and now you need to reassess her to see if the bleeding has stopped. You should: A) ask her to check herself to see if she is still bleeding. B) in a reassuring tone, explain what you need to do. C) wait and let the hospital staff reassess the bleeding. D) take another set of vital signs to see if her blood pressure has dropped.

Q: While transporting a patient to the hospital, the EMT repeats his reassessment including vital signs every 15 minutes until he arrives at the emergency department. According to this information, which of the following BEST describes your patient's current status? A) Poor B) Stable C) Unstable D) Not enough information was given to answer this question.

Q: You are transporting a patient who has had her neck slashed from side to side. You and your partner are caring for the patient while a police officer drives you to the hospital, which is minutes away. You are focusing all of your efforts to maintain her airway and your partner is controlling her bleeding. Which of the following will you be unlikely to obtain? A) Primary assessment B) Patient's gender C) Reassessment results D) Pulse and respiratory rates

Q: You are caring for a woman who sustained a head injury as a result of a domestic dispute. You suspect she has a closed head injury since she cannot remember what happened and one of her pupils is slightly larger than the other. You have been monitoring her vital signs every 5 minutes and you see that her blood pressure is rising and her pulse is dropping. This part of the assessment is called: A) trending. B) modified secondary assessment. C) crisis management. D) intervention check.

Q: Under what circumstance should a reassessment NOT be performed? A) The patient is being transported to a hospital close to his home. B) Ongoing lifesaving interventions are required. C) The patient has life-threatening injuries. D) The patient does not receive a secondary assessment.

Q: Your patient is a 23-year-old male with a stab wound to the abdomen. You have bandaged the wound and are transporting the patient to a trauma center. During your reassessment, you note that the bandage has become soaked with blood. What should your priority be with this patient? A) Notify the receiving facility that the patient has developed arterial bleeding. B) Control the bleeding. C) Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position. D) Check the patient's blood pressure.

Q: On which of the following patients should a reassessment be performed? A) All patients should be reassessed B) Patient with chest pain C) Patient with a gunshot wound D) Patient having difficulty breathing

Q: You have a long transport of a patient who may have sustained a spinal injury. The patient has been stable throughout your transport. During one of your reassessments, your patient tells you that he is losing the feeling in his feet and toes and his fingers are tingling. At this point you should: A) spinal immobilize him. B) call medical direction for orders. C) reassess him every 5 minutes. D) remove him from the long spine board.

Q: You are alone in the back of the ambulance, where you are ventilating an apneic patient. Which of the following is the BEST way to manage the reassessment? A) Have your partner stop the ambulance every 5 minutes to help you perform a reassessment. B) Stay on the scene and request additional help so you will have someone to help you perform a reassessment. C) Continue ventilating the patient during transport and skip the reassessment. D) Stop ventilating the patient every 5 minutes so you can perform a reassessment.

Q: You are transporting a victim of domestic violence, a 25-year-old female, who was struck on the head several times with a baseball bat. On the scene, she was responsive to verbal stimuli and was bleeding profusely from an open head wound. During transport the patient becomes unresponsive. Which of the following should you do next? A) Primary assessment B) Secondary assessment C) Detailed physical exam D) Vital signs and SAMPLE history

Q: You are transporting a 30-year-old male who has been shot in the chest. He is suffering from a sucking chest wound and has a decreased level of consciousness. How often should you perform a reassessment? A) Every 30 minutes B) Every 5 minutes C) Every 15 minutes D) Every 10 minutes

Q: As you arrive at the emergency department with an unresponsive trauma patient, the nurse asks for your trending assessment. Why is this information important to the nurse? A) She can critique your technique of taking vital signs. B) She can evaluate whether or not the patient is improving. C) She can determine if you understand the assessment process. D) She can evaluate the quality of care you provided.