Q&A Hero

Q: The largest single hazard associated with EMS highway operations is: A) explosion. B) traffic flow. C) power lines. D) sharp objects.

Q: Which of the following considerations should be determined when conducting a scene size-up at night of a single vehicle collision involving a rollover? A) Make and model of the vehicle involved B) Mechanism of injury C) How many EMS supervisors are needed for command D) Which patient is the least injured

Q: When controlling the scene of an emergency involving damaged power poles and downed electrical wires, the EMT must remember to: A) render the scene safe before entering the danger zone. B) request appropriate personnel to cut the power source. C) use nonconductive implements to make a safe path to victims. D) use double-thickness gloves to insulate the body from electrocution.

Q: When responding to an emergency located on an interstate highway in a medium-duty ambulance, the vehicle should be positioned: A) in a safe location in the emergency lane of the interstate. B) across as many lanes as possible to block oncoming traffic. C) in the same direction as other response vehicles in a single line. D) to one side of the damaged vehicles for easy egress.

Q: You are at the scene of a vehicle collision on an interstate highway. There are two cars involved and both are out of the lanes against the median wall. As an EMS provider, what is your primary safety concern? A) Ensuring the patient is properly packaged for transport B) Watching for distracted drivers who are driving past the scene C) Evaluating the risk of fire caused by ruptured fuel lines D) Searching for sharp edges of broken glass and torn metal

Q: When placing cribbing: A) kneel on both knees for stabilization. B) always squat, so you can move away quickly. C) kneel on one knee only so you can move away quickly. D) kneel or squat as necessary.

Q: You have arrived at the scene of a vehicle collision in which there are utility wires down around the vehicle. The three occupants appear dazed and other responding units have not yet arrived. Which of the following is the BEST course of action? A) Cool the wires with large amounts of water to prevent a fire from starting. B) Encourage the occupants to exit the vehicle by jumping free of the vehicle before touching the ground. C) Push the wires out of the way with a long pry-bar in order to access the patients. D) Stay at a distance and caution the occupants to stay inside the vehicle.

Q: Which of the following is the BEST protection for an EMT's upper body during an extrication operation? A) Firefighting turnout coat B) Thick wool coat C) Nylon jacket with asbestos lining D) Thick fireproof blanket draped around the shoulders

Q: Which of the following can serve as appropriate eye protection for an EMT on the scene of an extrication? A) Prescription eyeglasses B) Face conforming goggles C) Plastic face shield of the type used for Standard Precautions D) Shield of a Firefighter's helmet

Q: Which of the following phases of extrication comes before the other three phrases? A) Sizing up the situation B) Recognizing and managing hazards C) Gaining access to the patient D) Preparing for the rescue

Q: Which of the following is a common hazard associated with the inner circle of a typical auto extrication? A) Penetrating injury from extrication tools B) Flying glass and metal fragments C) Carbon monoxide poisoning D) Both A and C

Q: Which of the following is NOT an example of a specialty rescue team? A) Water rescue B) Confined space C) High angle rescue D) Advanced cardiac life support

Q: Which of the following may be a source of ignition when an ambulance is parked off the roadway in a field of dried grass? A) Mobile radio B) Battery C) Leaking coolant D) Catalytic converter

Q: Which of the following human factors can lead to an increased risk of injury for an EMT at the scene of a vehicle collision? A) Physical problems that impede strenuous effort B) Careless attitude toward personal safety C) Lack of proficiency in the use of rescue tools D) All of the above

Q: Which of the following is a common reason that EMTs are struck by motor vehicles at the scene of motor vehicle collisions on roadways? A) Drivers are distracted by the scene of the collision and do not pay attention to what they are doing. B) EMTs sometimes lose track of what they are doing and wander into traffic. C) Drivers who are angry at being delayed deliberately take out their frustrations on rescue workers. D) All of the above

Q: Which of the following is the MOST common type of rescue across the United States? A) Farm rescue B) Water rescue C) Vehicle rescue D) Hazardous materials response

Q: Which of the following has been shown to actually interfere with the normal grieving and healing process after a multiple-casualty incident? A) Mental health personnel available on the scene B) Mental health personnel available during the two months following a major incident C) EMT engaging in psychoanalysis D) Critical incident stress debriefing (CISD) sessions

Q: Which of the following is NOT a warning sign or physical symptom of stress? A) Heart palpitations B) GI distress C) Increased salivation D) Chest pain

Q: Which of the following may help in minimizing the stressful effects of the disruption in circadian rhythms seen in EMS multiple-casualty incidents work? A) Seek help from a trained professional. B) Eat a heavy meal just before bedtime. C) Keep your bedroom light on and warm. D) Sleep as much as possible on days off.

Q: When informing someone of the death of a loved one due to a multiple-casualty incident, you should use the term: A) expired. B) passed away. C) dead. D) sickly.

Q: Who is the person that is in charge of tracking the patient's final destination? A) Treatment officer B) Staging officer C) Transportation officer D) Incident Commander

Q: EMS operations generally include the Mobile command center and what other six areas? A) Extrication, Operations, Logistics, Triage, Finance, and Transportation B) Extrication, Staging, Logistics, Triage, Operations, and Transportation C) Extrication, Staging, Triage, Treatment, Transportation, and Rehabilitation D) Extrication, Staging, Triage, Air operations, Transportation, and Rehabilitation

Q: When transporting patients from the scene of a mass-casualty incident, who should be responsible for contacting the receiving hospital? A) Transporting EMT B) Incident commander C) Transportation officer D) Triage officer

Q: When responding to a multiple-casualty incident, staging refers to which of the following? A) Setting up a triage center from the back of your ambulance B) Staying on station until called upon to receive a patient C) Keeping a log of all patients transported D) Waiting in a designated location until called upon by the designated sector officer

Q: Using START triage guidelines, a patient on the scene of a mass-causality incident who is alert and has a capillary refill time of less than 2 seconds is deemed a ________ patient. A) Priority 0 B) Priority 1 C) Priority 2 D) Priority 3

Q: Using START triage guidelines, a patient on the scene of a mass-causality incident who has no pulse is deemed a ________ patient. A) Priority 0 B) Priority 1 C) Priority 2 D) Priority 3

Q: Using START triage guidelines, a patient on the scene of a mass-causality incident who is not breathing initially, but begins breathing when the airway is open, is deemed a ________ patient. A) Priority 0 B) Priority 1 C) Priority 2 D) Priority 3

Q: You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario: Patient #5 is a 17-year-old male with the following vital signs: respirations 18, pulse 104, alert, crying, and wanting his mother; he is ambulatory. A) Priority 2, yellow tag B) Priority 3, green tag C) Priority 1, red tag D) Priority 4, black tag

Q: You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario: Patient #4 is a 13-year-old female with the following vital signs: respirations 8, pulse 124, and nonresponsive with blood from the ears and nose. A) Priority 3, green tag B) Priority 4, black tag C) Priority 1, red tag D) Priority 2, yellow tag

Q: You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario: Patient #3 is a 38-year-old female with the following vital signs: respirations 0, pulse 0, and nonresponsive. A) Priority 4, black tag B) Priority 1, red tag C) Priority 2, yellow tag D) Priority 3, green tag

Q: You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario: Patient #2 is an 8-year-old male with the following vital signs: respirations 10, pulse 102, and alert mental status with warm dry skin. A) Priority 1, red tag B) Priority 3, green tag C) Priority 2, yellow tag D) Priority 4, black tag

Q: You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario: Patient #1 is a 16-year-old female with the following vital signs: respirations 28, pulse 132, and altered mental status with cool clammy skin. A) Priority 3, green tag B) Priority 4, black tag C) Priority 1, red tag D) Priority 2, yellow tag

Q: With START triage, when you arrive on the scene you ask all the patients who can walk to move to one area. These patients are categorized as: A) yellow tagged. B) Priority 3 walking wounded. C) red tagged. D) Priority 4 walking wounded.

Q: Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment (START) is a system that relies on some simple commands and what three physiologic parameters? A) Respiration, pain, and mental status B) Circulation, sensory, and motor status C) Respiration, sensory, and motor status D) Respiration, pulse, and mental status

Q: You are on the scene of a mass-casualty incident in which the grandstand at a race track has collapsed. As the triage officer, you have encountered a 14-year-old male whose leg has been amputated above the knee. He is responsive to verbal stimuli, and he has an open airway, shallow rapid breathing, and a weak, rapid carotid pulse. This patient would be classified as a Priority ________ for treatment and transport. A) 2 B) 3 C) 1 D) 4

Q: You are on the scene of a church bus roll-over collision. There are 30 passengers involved. As triage officer, which one of the following patients should you assign the highest priority? A) 30-year-old man with multiple lower extremity fractures who is awake, has a strong radial pulse, and is complaining of severe pain B) 35-year-old pregnant woman with a cut on her head, neck pain, and numbness and tingling in her arms C) 70-year-old woman who is awake but having difficulty breathing and has absent lung sounds on the right side D) Unresponsive 9-year-old male with an open skull fracture who is in cardiac arrest

Q: When several agencies work independently but cooperatively, rather than one agency exercising control over the others, this is called: A) unified command. B) single incident command. C) ICS. D) NIMS.

Q: ICS systems recognize that the manageable span of control is: A) 6 people. B) 12 people. C) 18 people. D) 24 people.

Q: You are an EMT on the scene of a mass-casualty incident in which there are 50 patients from a bus roll-over. Incident Command has been established and EMS, law enforcement, and rescue sectors are established. You have just discovered that one of the bus passengers was carrying a suspicious package that is now leaking a white powdery substance. Which of the following entities should you contact about this? A) Incident Commander B) EMS sector officer C) Rescue sector officer D) Dispatch

Q: Which of the following is a principle of effective Incident Command? A) Command is most effective when one person is responsible for not more than 6 other people. B) The command location must not be revealed to anyone on the scene. C) Police, fire, and EMS must establish separate command locations. D) None of the above

Q: Which of the following is a feature of a good disaster plan? A) It is specific to the geographical location. B) It has been practiced in mock disasters. C) It is based on the availability of resources in a particular area. D) All of the above

Q: You are on the scene of a riot following a decision in a controversial court case. A large group of people have set fire to vehicles, broken windows, and assaulted people in the area. Which of the following would be the BEST method of incident command? A) Singular command by EMS B) Singular command by fire service C) Unified command D) Singular command by law enforcement

Q: The senior EMT on the first vehicle that arrived on a scene with multiple patients should assume which of the following roles until relieved by a senior official? A) Transport sector supervisor B) Commander of the entire incident C) Triage sector supervisor D) Incident Commander of the scene

Q: Disaster plans are a predefined set of instructions that should be written to address the events that are conceivable for a particular location and which other three parts? A) Written, multijurisdictional, and rehearsed B) Well publicized, multijurisdictional, and rehearsed C) Well publicized, realistic, and rehearsed D) Written, realistic, and rehearsed

Q: What constitutes a multiple-casualty incident (MCI)? A) An event that unfolds over a long period of time and requires federal, state, and local response B) An incident with 3 to 15 patients that the service handles without calling for additional resources C) An event that places a great demand on EMS equipment and personnel resources D) Any event that requires additional ambulances to adequately transport the patients from the scene

Q: You are just leaving the scene of a multiple-casualty incident with two Priority 1 patients. Which of the following is appropriate regarding communication? A) Allow the transportation sector officer to notify the receiving facility. B) Notify the receiving facility by radio of the nature of the patients' injuries. C) Notify the receiving hospital by cellular phone of the nature of the patients' injuries. D) Have dispatch relay your patient reports to the receiving facility.

Q: Which of the following is the MOST common type of multiple-casualty incident that EMS providers will respond to? A) Outbreaks of influenza B) Motor vehicle collisions C) Structure fires D) Hazardous materials incidents

Q: What is the process that removes the biological (etiological) contamination hazards as it destroys microorganisms and their toxins? A) Dilution B) Emulsification C) Disinfection D) Absorption

Q: When grossly decontaminating a patient who is not wearing personal protective equipment in a hazardous materials incident, which of the following techniques should be used? A) Taking a low-pressure decontamination shower B) Scrubbing with a long-handled brush C) Sponging with a dilute solution of water and white vinegar D) Using a high pressure water jet system

Q: Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of decontamination from hazardous materials? A) Disinfecting B) Disposing C) Deodorizing D) Emulsifying

Q: Which of the following personal protective items must be used by EMS personnel caring for patients in a hazardous materials emergency? A) Structural firefighting gear B) HEPA mask C) Chemical permeable gloves D) Tyvek or other chemical impermeable coveralls

Q: Which of the following actions may need to be taken by the EMT when treating and transporting a patient who was exposed to, and contaminated by, a hazardous material? A) Wearing heavy cloth gloves B) Disposing of patient care equipment such as blood-pressure cuffs and backboards C) Wearing a gown, mask, and goggles to prevent secondary contamination D) Placing towels on the floor of the ambulance to soak up contaminated runoff water

Q: Which of the following is a function of the rehabilitation sector in a hazardous materials incident? A) Providing for hydration of rescue crews B) Taking baseline vital signs before rescuers enter the operations area C) Performing medical assessment of rescue crews D) All of the above

Q: Which of the following isNOT a desirable characteristic of the rehabilitation sector of a hazardous materials incident? A) It is large enough to accommodate multiple rescue crews. B) It allows for rapid re-entry to the emergency operation. C) It is protected from weather elements. D) It is located in the warm zone.

Q: At 0330, you responded to the scene of an overturned tanker truck. What organization could you contact to obtain information about the liquid the truck is carrying? A) Regional poison control center B) CHEMTREC C) CHEM-CALL D) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

Q: When seeking expert advice on how to proceed at a hazardous materials incident, which of the following information is important to provide? A) Amount of the substance involved B) Your level of EMS certification C) Your background in chemistry D) Both A and B

Q: Which of the following is a resource for specific actions to be taken by personnel dealing with a hazardous materials incident? A) Medical protocols B) Emergency Response Guidebook C) Medical dictionary D) Food and Drug Administration (FDA) toll-free hotline

Q: ________ is the response agency, established in Washington, DC, as a service of the Chemical Manufacturers Association that can provide either you or your dispatcher with information about the hazardous material and contact the shipper to provide you with information about the material. A) OSHA B) CHEMTREC C) HAZMART D) EPA

Q: What source will provide first aid information about hazardous materials for employees at a work site? A) Safety Data Sheets B) Bill of lading C) Shipping manifest D) Placard

Q: Signs that identify the hazardous material contained within a transport vehicle are called: A) indicators. B) placards. C) panels. D) warnings.

Q: Which of the following is NOT an acceptable way of attempting to identify a hazardous material? A) Checking the material safety data sheet B) Collecting a sample of the material for laboratory analysis C) Asking the driver of the tractor-trailer truck involved in the incident D) Using binoculars to obtain information from the placard on a container

Q: An area near a hazardous materials incident that is upwind from the incident and on higher ground is a good location for a: A) danger zone. B) hot zone. C) safe zone. D) treatment zone.

Q: Where is the decon corridor located where patients, personnel, and equipment are decontaminated? A) Hot zone B) Cold zone C) Warm zone D) Cool zone

Q: In which of the following zones is the EMT expected to be staged at the scene of a hazardous materials incident? A) Warm zone B) Hot zone C) Cold zone D) Ground zero

Q: Which of the following are desirable characteristics of the "safe or cold zone" in a hazardous materials incident? A) Upwind, uphill from the spill B) Upwind, on the same level as the spill C) Downwind, uphill from the spill D) Downwind, downhill from the spill

Q: You are called to a local hardware store for a male patient complaining of difficulty breathing. As you pull into the parking lot you notice several people in front of the building coughing and in obvious distress. What would be an appropriate course of action at this point? A) Locate the patient for whom you were requested and begin treatment while another ambulance is en route for the other patients. B) Request a hazardous materials incident response and begin treating all patients displaying respiratory difficulties. C) Evaluate the scene further for indications of a hazardous environment and request a hazardous materials response. D) Move the people with respiratory difficulties to a distant corner of the parking lot and set up a treatment sector.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of an EMT at the scene of a hazardous materials emergency? A) Rehabilitating the hazmat team B) Decontaminating injured victims C) Treating injured patients D) Staying in the cold zone

Q: Which of the following should be considered during the scene size-up of a hazardous materials emergency? A) Potential for spread of the substance B) The properties and potential dangers of the substance C) Identification of the substance D) All of the above

Q: Which of the following is NOT the role of the first arriving EMT at the scene of a possible hazardous materials emergency? A) Requesting special resources to respond B) Recognizing a hazardous materials emergency C) Establishing a safe zone D) Rescuing any victims still in the area of the spill

Q: You are beginning triage at the scene of a mass-casualty incident in which a commuter train has derailed. Which of the following should you do first? A) Do a quick pulse check on all patients at the scene. B) Identify all Priority 1 patients. C) Announce that everyone who can get up and walk needs to go to the parking lot of a nearby building. D) Check the airway status of all patients who do not appear to be moving.

Q: Andrea is an EMS supervisor with a combined EMS/Fire department. On the scene of a hazardous materials incident, she uses her knowledge of hazardous materials to support the activities of other responders and manage the scene. Andrea's level of hazardous materials training is at the ________ level. A) First Responder Awareness B) First Responder Operations C) Hazardous Materials Technician D) Hazardous Materials Specialist

Q: Eduardo is an EMT with a major metropolitan fire department. He is assigned to a station within an industrial complex. On the scene of a hazardous materials incident, Eduardo functions on a team where he plugs a leaking drum. Eduardo's level of hazardous materials training is at the ________ level. A) First Responder Awareness B) First Responder Operations C) Hazardous Materials Technician D) Hazardous Materials Specialist

Q: Soraya is an EMT who volunteers for a local fire department. On the scene of a hazardous materials incident, she helps prevent the incident from becoming larger and ensures bystanders remain safe. Soraya's level of hazardous materials training is at the ________ level. A) First Responder Awareness B) First Responder Operations C) Hazardous Materials Technician D) Hazardous Materials Specialist

Q: Johnny is an EMT with a local ambulance service. As part of his job, he is trained to recognize the existence of a potentially dangerous scene involving hazardous materials and know when to request a hazmat response. Johnny's level of hazardous materials training is at the ________ level. A) First Responder Awareness B) First Responder Operations C) Hazardous Materials Technician D) Hazardous Materials Specialist

Q: As it pertains to hazardous materials, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration requires employers to: A) train employees to handle any type of hazardous materials incident. B) document the appropriate level of training for each employee. C) have knowledge of all hazardous materials on the premises. D) ensure there is at least one person on-site trained at the technician level.

Q: To respond to a hazardous materials incident, the EMT should be trained at which of the four levels? A) Operations B) Specialist C) Technician D) Awareness

Q: Which of the following agencies have developed regulations for dealing with hazardous materials emergencies? A) OSHA and EPA B) DOT and FCC C) NAEMT and NHTSA D) NHTSA and NRC

Q: You are called to a garden center where four shoppers have collapsed after a section of shelving fell and dumped hazardous products on the floor. When you arrive on the scene, you should: A) think hazmat, secure the scene by limiting access, isolate the possible contaminated from the noncontaminated, and request hazmat response. B) think hazmat, dress in a Tyvek suit, secure the scene by limiting access, isolate the possible contaminated from the noncontaminated, and request hazmat response. C) secure the scene quickly, triage each patient, and move to fresh air. D) think hazmat, dress in a Tyvek suit, access the scene to identify the spilled product, secure the MSDS sheets, and remove victims to fresh air.

Q: In which of the following settings should the EMT be alert to the possibility of hazardous materials emergencies? A) Manufacturing industries B) Farm service agencies C) Shipping ports D) All of the above

Q: You are in charge of your department's personnel at the scene of a mass-casualty incident. As the incident progresses, you request additional resources and a neighboring department assists you. As part of this department's response, a battalion chief responds to oversee operations. At the command post, you and the battalion chief work together to manage the incident. This cooperative management effort is known as: A) dual command. B) redundant command. C) unified command. D) incident command.