Q&A Hero

Q: Which of the following is true concerning the primary assessment? A) Manual airway maneuvers must be performed on all patients. B) The EMT should perform a sternal rub on all patients to test for response to painful stimuli. C) External bleeding will be obvious as you enter the room and initially see the patient. D) The primary assessment begins by just observing the patient as you enter the room.

Q: Which of the following is the purpose of the primary assessment? A) To detect and treat immediately life-threatening problems B) To find all of the patient's signs and symptoms C) To discover trends of improvement or deterioration in the patient's condition D) To detect dangers to the patient and/or EMS crew

Q: Which of the following BEST describes an EMS provider's "sixth sense"? A) Diagnostic ability B) General impression C) Clinical judgment D) Scene safety

Q: Which of the following is completed first during the primary assessment? A) Determining transport priority B) Assessing mental status C) Opening the airway D) Forming a general impression

Q: Which of the following represents the correct order of assessment for the EMT during the primary assessment from start to end? A) General impression, mental status, airway, breathing, circulation, patient priority B) Mental status, general impression, airway, breathing, circulation, patient priority C) Patient priority, general impression, mental status, airway, breathing, circulation D) None of the above

Q: Which of the following describes the chief complaint? A) Reason why the patient summoned EMS B) Events immediately preceding the call for EMS C) Overall impression of the patient's condition D) All of the above

Q: In EMS, which of the following BEST describes the term intervention? A) Determining if there is a problem B) Taking steps to correct a problem C) Creating a permanent record of patient care D) Decreasing the EMT's liability for negligence

Q: In EMS, what does mental status refer to? A) Patient's level of awareness of his surroundings B) Any history of mental illness that the patient may have C) Patient's general level of intelligence D) None of the above

Q: Which of the following is NOT part of the general impression? A) Patient's facial expression B) Patient's age and race C) Position in which the patient is found D) Patient's past medical history

Q: What BEST defines the immediate sense of the patient's degree of distress, formulated from the patient's immediate environment, appearance, and chief complaint? A) General impression B) Primary assessment C) Scene size-up D) Secondary assessment

Q: Which of the following is true concerning scene size-up? A) The need for additional resources must be determined on both medical and trauma calls. B) Scene size-up does not play a role in determining the nature of the illness. C) Determining the number of patients is not important on a medical call. D) Information from bystanders is not important on trauma calls.

Q: You and your partner are en route to a motor vehicle crash involving a tanker truck on a rural road. Dispatch informs you that fluid is leaking from the truck, that there are several bystanders passed out on the ground near the cab of the truck, and that a caller has reported the code that appears on a placard attached to the tanker truck. You should: A) remove the bystanders from the scene. B) park about 50 feet from the truck. C) consult the Emergency Response Guidebook. D) park downwind from the tanker truck.

Q: You should have a keen awareness that there may be injuries based on your scene size-up. This is known as which of the following? A) Nature of illness B) Law of inertia C) Mechanism of injury D) Index of suspicion

Q: When should the EMT evaluate the need for Standard Precautions? A) An evaluation should be made throughout the call. B) An evaluation should be made once a general impression of the patient has been formed. C) An evaluation should be made before arrival on-scene. D) No evaluation is ever needed, since the precautions are the same for every call.

Q: Which of the following may be a hazard at the scene of a vehicle collision? A) Electrocution B) Hazardous materials C) Other emergency vehicles D) All of the above

Q: In which of the following situations should the EMT consult the Emergency Response Guidebook?A) Chlorine gas leak at a public swimming poolB) Domestic disturbance with the potential for violenceC) Patient with a suspected infectious diseaseD) Downed power lines at the scene of a vehicle collision

Q: Which of the following situations will NOT require additional resources at the scene? A) A patient with emphysema who is on oxygen therapy at home B) A call for a sick person at home during which an odor of natural gas is detected C) A call to a manufacturing plant where a worker has his hand caught in a machine D) A 300-pound woman complaining of back pain

Q: Which of the following BEST describes blunt-force trauma? A) An object strikes the body, but it does not penetrate the body tissues. B) The object is not sharp, but it penetrates the body when enough force is used. C) The object penetrates soft tissue, but it cannot penetrate bone. D) A rounded object impacts the body tissues.

Q: A fall is considered severe anytime an adult patient has fallen more than ________ feet. A) 20 B) 15 C) 10 D) 8

Q: Where should the EMT assess for injury when caring for a patient who had a two-story fall and landed square on his feet? A) Patient's lower back B) Patient's ankles C) Patient's femur D) All of the above

Q: Your patient fell out of a tree while putting the roof on a tree house. A 15-foot ladder is required to enter the tree house and there is enough room for an adult to stand up inside. Your patient should be transported to: A) an urgent care center. B) the closest hospital. C) a trauma center. D) a neurosurgery center.

Q: An injury caused by an object that passes through the skin or other body tissue is known as which of the following?A) Cavitating traumaB) Puncturing traumaC) Penetrating traumaD) Impaling trauma

Q: What law of physics explains why a patient's liver can be injured from the impact of his car with a tree? A) Second law of motion B) Newton's law of moving energy C) Law of inertia D) Law of kinetic energy

Q: When determining possible injuries suffered from a gunshot wound, which of the following is true? A) The EMT must ask the patient or bystanders exactly where the shooter was standing. B) Bullets pass in a straight line through the body from the point of entry to the exit wound. C) The EMT must determine the caliber of ammunition involved. D) The EMT must be aware that bullets cause damage in more than one way.

Q: Which of the following will deliver a medium velocity impact? A) Bullet from a handgun B) Ice pick C) Butcher knife D) Bullet from an assault rifle

Q: When considering the potential for injury from a fall, which of the following is LEAST important? A) Height of the fall B) Type of surface onto which the patient fell C) Whether the patient struck anything with his body on the way down D) Patient's weight

Q: Your patient, a 29-year-old female, was the front seat passenger in a vehicle that was struck in the passenger's side door by another vehicle that ran a red light. Which of the following is most likely to have occurred? A) The patient impacted the steering wheel with her chest, causing a fracture of the sternum. B) The patient took the "down and under" pathway, causing trauma to her lower extremities. C) The patient's body was pushed forcefully out from under her head, causing injury to the cervical spine. D) The patient took the "up and over" pathway, striking her head on the windshield.

Q: You have just arrived on the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a compact car was struck from behind by a delivery truck. The driver of the delivery truck is standing outside his vehicle talking to police when you arrive, but the driver of the car is still seated in the driver's seat. You have noted moderate damage to the rear of the car. For which of the following injuries should you have the highest level of suspicion? A) Fractures of the lower extremities B) Chest injury C) Abdominal injuries D) Neck injury

Q: As you approach the scene of a motorcycle accident, you see an EMR trying to stop the bleeding on the patient's left arm. You notice that the EMR has blood covering the front of his shirt and running down his arms. What Standard Precautions are needed? A) There is no need for Standard Precautions because you have no open injuries. B) Gloves, gown, and face mask with eye shield are needed. C) Gloves, gown, eye protection, and an N-95 or HEPA respirator are needed. D) Gloves and gown only are needed.

Q: You are dispatched to a local bar for the report of an unresponsive female patient found in the bathroom. As you approach the scene, you notice a large crowd outside the front door holding beer bottles. The group has pulled the patient outside. As you approach the scene, people from the group start yelling, "Do something! She's not breathing." What concerns you the most about this scene? A) The large crowd that has been drinking and is now yelling at you B) The fact that the patient has been moved from where she was found C) The crowd stating the patient is not breathing D) All of the above

Q: As you are assessing a 32-year-old asthmatic woman who has called EMS due to difficulty breathing, her husband enters the home through a back door and shouts, "Get your hands off her; she doesn't need your help. She needs to be taught a lesson about her smart mouth." Which of the following is the best course of action? A) Attempt to remove the patient from the home and continue treatment en route to the hospital. B) Continue assessment and respond that the patient is sick and needs medical attention. C) Leave the scene and patient, then notify police. D) Let the husband know that his behavior is inappropriate, and if it continues you will call for the police.

Q: You are on the scene of an explosion at a suspected methamphetamine manufacturing operation. You and your partner are the first to arrive and note two middle-aged men and a woman on the front lawn with burns and cuts on their faces and arms. The fire department is en route. Which of the following resources should be the LEAST important to be requested by the EMT during the scene size-up? A) Gas company B) Law enforcement C) One or two additional ambulances D) Hazardous material clean-up crew

Q: Which of the following is true concerning the potential for violence at the scene of an EMS call? A) An unusual lack of activity at the scene may signal impending violence against the EMT. B) The chance for violence is very low at emergency scenes. C) You do not need to worry about violence at an emergency scene once the police have secured it. D) Signs of impending violence are obvious if you know what to look for.

Q: You and your partner respond to a residence for a fall. You arrive to find a group of approximately 30 adults surrounding a middle-aged man who appears to be unconscious. A police car pulls in behind you. You should: A) wait for the police officer to assess the safety of the scene. B) enter the scene ahead of the police officer to provide care. C) leave the area and stage until the scene is cleared of people. D) have the police officer drag the victim over to the ambulance.

Q: You are on the scene of a tanker truck versus passenger vehicle collision on a rural highway. The vehicles are just beyond a curve in the roadway and there is a distinct odor of diesel fuel. It is dark and there is little traffic. Which of the following should be used to alert oncoming traffic to the situation? A) Flashing lights on the ambulance B) Yellow crime scene tape C) Flares D) Reflective triangles

Q: Which of the following is NOT a consideration that should be used by the EMT in establishing the size of the danger zone? A) Presence of hazardous materials B) Wind direction C) Amount of equipment needed D) Fire

Q: At the scene of a vehicle collision in which there are no apparent hazards, which of the following guidelines should be followed for establishing a danger zone?A) The danger zone should be 50 feet in all directions.B) The danger zone should be 150 feet in all directions.C) The danger zone should be 15 feet in all directions.D) There is no need to establish a danger zone when there are no apparent hazards.

Q: As you arrive at the scene of a house fire, a very upset man screams at you to help his young son, who is trapped under a piece of burning wood on the ground. Which of the following should you do first? A) With the father's help, grab the boy by the arms and pull him from underneath the wood. B) Size-up the scene before acting. C) Perform an initial assessment on the patient. D) Use a blanket to put out the fire on the piece of wood.

Q: You are called to a motor vehicle collision where the car is on fire. You should ensure safety by:A) borrowing turnout gear from the fire department.B) remaining a safe distance from the car until the fire is out.C) putting your unit back in service and leaving the scene.D) using your fire extinguisher to put out the fire.

Q: Which of the following situations requires additional action by the EMT during scene size-up?A) A vehicle collision involving a tractor-trailer that appears to be empty.B) The sound of a barking and growling dog upon approaching the door to a residence.C) A bystander who is smoking a cigarette at the scene of an assault at a local park.D) A news media helicopter arrives and hovers overhead at the scene of a vehicle collision.

Q: At which of the following points should you begin your scene size-up? A) After exiting the ambulance, but before making patient contact B) When you arrive on the scene, but before exiting the ambulance C) As you approach the scene in the ambulance D) When the patient or family member opens the door to the residence

Q: At what point is the scene size-up complete? A) When crashed vehicles have been stabilized B) At the end of the call C) Upon stabilization of the c-spine D) When the number of patients has been determined

Q: Which of the following is NOT determined in a scene size-up? A) Chief complaint B) Mechanism of injury C) Potential hazards to the EMS crew D) Need for additional resources

Q: Concerning the use of humidified oxygen, which of the following is true? A) It should only be used when assisting ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device. B) The water in the reservoir should be treated with chlorine tablets to prevent the growth of bacteria. C) It is not of great benefit during short transports but can make the patient more comfortable. D) The water reservoir should be changed on a weekly basis.

Q: Which of the following is necessary to deliver oxygen to patients at a safe pressure? A) Filter B) Float ball C) Regulator D) Flowmeter

Q: The safe residual for an oxygen cylinder is ________ psi. A) 200 B) 300 C) 500 D) 1,000

Q: Which of the following colors identifies an oxygen cylinder? A) Orange and red B) Black and tan C) Blue and yellow D) Green and white

Q: Of the three types of oxygen flowmeters, which one can only be used upright? A) Bourdon gauge flowmeter B) Hudson gauge flowmeter C) Constant flow selector valve D) Pressure-compensated flowmeter

Q: Which of the following is acceptable for maintaining a seal between an oxygen cylinder and regulator? A) Pop-off valve B) Gasket C) Grease plug D) Medical grade adhesive tape

Q: You are attempting to replace the oxygen cylinder in your truck. After removing the regulator from the old cylinder, removing the old cylinder, and placing the new cylinder in the oxygen compartment, you attempt to connect the regulator. The new cylinder has a yellow stripe around it instead of a green one but was stored with the green cylinders. You are unable to get the regulator to seat properly and it will not turn. You should: A) attempt to force the regulator onto the cylinder. B) remove the cylinder and get a green cylinder. C) replace the oxygen regulator with a new one. D) put the old cylinder back on the truck.

Q: Which of the following oxygen cylinders would normally run out after 50 minutes when flowing at 10 liters per minute? A) M tank B) D tank C) G tank D) E tank

Q: The oxygen flow rate for a nasal cannula should not exceed ________ liters per minute. A) 8 B) 4 C) 6 D) 2

Q: Venturi masks are designed to mix oxygen with: A) nitrogen. B) inhaled air. C) humidified air. D) carbon monoxide.

Q: A ________ is NOT typically used in the prehospital setting for oxygen administration. A) nasal cannula B) partial rebreather mask C) regulator D) tracheostomy mask

Q: Which of these patients would require a tracheostomy mask for supplemental oxygen administration? A) A patient with a stoma B) A patient with quadriplegia C) A patient with chronic bronchitis D) A patient with upper airway inflammation

Q: Before applying a nonrebreather mask, the EMT should take what action? A) Insert a properly sized oropharyngeal airway. B) Connect the mask to a humidified oxygen source and wait for the patient's heart rate to slow. C) Make sure the oxygen supply has greater than 2,000 psi in the tank. D) Inflate the reservoir bag and make sure the bag does not deflate during inspiration.

Q: You are transporting a 44-year-old female with chest pain and sudden respiratory distress. She is agitated, anxious, and refuses to have a nonrebreather mask applied. Which of the following is the best option? A) Use a nasal cannula instead. B) Have her breathe into a paper bag to control her hyperventilation. C) Do not make further attempts to administer oxygen as it will only agitate the patient further. D) Consult with medical control about restraining the patient.

Q: A nonrebreather mask at 12 to 15 liters per minute will generally provide the patient what percentage of oxygen? A) 80-100 B) 16-21 C) 24-44 D) 90-100

Q: Your patient is a 65-year-old male with a history of COPD. He is sitting up and complaining of a severe shortness of breath. You should: A) suction the airway with a rigid suction catheter. B) administer 4 lpm of oxygen via nasal cannula. C) insert a nasal airway and ventilate. D) apply a nonrebreather mask giving 15 lpm of oxygen.

Q: Which of the following is the best device to deliver high-concentration oxygen to a breathing patient? A) Simple face mask B) Nonrebreather mask C) Nasal cannula D) Oropharyngeal airway

Q: Your patient is a 55-year-old man with a history of chronic bronchitis. You have been called to his home today because of an increase in his level of respiratory distress. The patient is on 2 liters per minute of oxygen by nasal cannula at home. Your assessment reveals difficulty speaking due to shortness of breath, leaning forward to breathe, a productive cough, and a respiratory rate of 32 per minute. Which of the following is true concerning the best course of action for this patient? A) Because increased blood levels of carbon dioxide are the primary stimulus to breathe, you should encourage the patient to rebreathe his exhaled air from a paper bag. B) You should increase the patient's oxygen flow rate to deliver adequate amounts of oxygen to his tissues. If his respiratory rate decreases, you can assist him with a bag-valve-mask device. C) You should increase the patient's oxygen flow rate until his respiratory rate decreases and then resume oxygen administration at 2 liters per minute. D) You should not increase the patient's oxygen flow rate because of his likely dependence on a hypoxic drive to stimulate breathing.

Q: What is the percentage of oxygen provided by connecting a high flow of oxygen to the oxygen inlet found on a pocket mask? A) 50% B) 21% C) 100% D) 16%

Q: A 21-year-old patient presents with labored breathing and audible wheezes, heart rate of 124, respiration 36; he has significantly altered mentation. What is the treatment for this patient? A) Supplement the breaths with high-concentration oxygen through a nonrebreather mask. B) Use a pocket mask, which will provide adequate oxygen to improve the patient's condition. C) Ventilate with a bag-valve mask with high oxygen or FROPVD. D) Give mouth-to-mouth breathing with a nasal cannula, providing the patient with an increase of oxygen.

Q: You and your EMT partner are preparing to ventilate an elderly non-trauma patient who has a stoma. Your partner performs the head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver and you ask him to return the patient's head to a neutral position. "Why? This is not a pediatric patient!" your partner protests. What would you say? A) Elderly patients should never have their heads tilted back because spinal curvatures are common and can prevent airway positioning. B) It is not necessary to position the airway of a stoma breather when providing ventilations. C) Stoma breathers should only have their airways positioned after placement of the ventilation device. D) Using the head-tilt, chin-lift prior to clearing any mucus plugs from the stoma can cause airway occlusion.

Q: You are aggressively ventilating an adult patient with a bag-valve mask when you notice that his previously strong pulse is getting weaker. You should: A) increase the concentration of oxygen. B) reduce the concentration of oxygen. C) reduce the volume of the ventilations. D) begin chest compressions.

Q: What is NOT one of the basic parts of a bag-valve-mask system? A) Self-refilling shell B) Non-jam valve C) Be nonrebreathing D) 15/25 respiratory fitting

Q: What device is used to perform mouth-to-mask ventilation? A) Pocket face mask B) Bag-valve mask C) Stoma D) Automatic transport ventilator

Q: You are ventilating an adult patient with a bag-valve mask when you notice that his abdomen is getting bigger. You should: A) apply cricoid pressure. B) decrease the flow of oxygen. C) apply pressure to the abdomen. D) suction the airway.

Q: Which of the following patients does NOT require the administration of supplemental oxygen? A) A 60-year-old woman with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who can speak two or three words at a time without a breath B) A 6-year-old male with a history of asthma whose breath sounds are silent and who is drowsy C) A 31-year-old male who is unresponsive due to an overdose of narcotics D) A 24-year-old woman who is breathing 28 times per minute after being in an argument with her husband

Q: Your patient is a motorcyclist who was ejected after striking a guard rail. The patient is unresponsive to painful stimuli and is breathing shallowly six to eight times per minute. Which of the following should you do first? A) Use a bag-valve mask with supplemental oxygen. B) Perform a rapid trauma assessment. C) Apply a cervical collar. D) Apply a nonrebreather mask with an oxygen flow rate of 15 lpm.

Q: You have arrived at the scene of a call for a "man down." As you enter the residence you note that your patient is a male in his mid-60s who is awake but does not seem to acknowledge your presence. He is perspiring profusely, has cyanosis of his ears and lips, and has rapid, shallow respirations. Which of the following should you do first? A) Check for a radial pulse. B) Obtain the patient's medical history. C) Listen to his lung sounds. D) Assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask and supplemental oxygen.

Q: Which of the following BEST describes inadequate breathing? A) The respiratory rate is slower than normal. B) The minute volume is less than normal. C) The minute volume is greater than normal. D) The respiratory rate is faster than normal.

Q: When does respiratory distress change to respiratory failure? A) When the respiratory challenge continues, the systems fail with the demand for oxygen, pupils dilate, and the skin becomes hot and dry. B) When the respiratory challenge continues, the systems cannot keep up with the demand, and skin color and mental status change. C) When the patient who is short of breath, with noisy respiration, presents in the tripod position but then suddenly has the condition clear up and return to normal. D) When the compensatory mechanism is no longer needed and the patient goes into arrest.

Q: A 16-year-old patient presents with labored breathing and increased respiratory rate, increased heart rate, and leaning forward with his hands on his knees. His skin is pink and his accurate pulse oximetry is 96. This patient is suffering from respiratory: A) failure. B) hypoxia. C) distress. D) arrest.

Q: What is the relatively rare condition that can cause respiratory depression? A) Lungs can react unfavorably to oxygen when the concentration is too high for a long period of time and this can depress breathing. B) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has changed the stimulus to breathe to the hypoxic drive and high concentration can depress breathing. C) High concentration of oxygen can depress breathing when the patient has an allergic reaction from the oxygen. D) The eyes can develop scar tissue on the retina from a high concentration of oxygen.

Q: The movement of oxygen and carbon dioxide across the cell membranes from the capillaries is called: A) external respiration. B) dehydration. C) internal respiration. D) oxygenation.

Q: Why does a patient involved in an auto crash who has major internal abdominal bleeding require oxygen to maintain internal respiration? A) The red blood cells have a reduction of hemoglobin that reduces the amount of oxygen that can be transported. B) A lack of oxygen in the air decreases the oxygen diffused into the bloodstream, which creates an increase of carbon dioxide. C) The swelling of the abdominal space causes the diaphragm to be restricted, which will reduce the thorax space. D) A lack of circulating volume decreases the oxygen and carbon dioxide transport capability.

Q: The movement of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and circulating blood is called: A) internal respiration. B) osmosis. C) cellular respiration. D) pulmonary (external) respiration.

Q: Which of the following statements BEST describes the exchange of gas in the alveoli? A) Blood moves by way of the pulmonary capillaries, air arrives at the alveoli, and osmosis occurs. B) Blood moves from the left heart to the lungs, air arrives in the alveoli sacks, and diffusion occurs. C) Air moves into the airway, blood arrives via the pulmonary veins, and osmosis occurs. D) Air moves into the alveoli, blood is transported by the pulmonary capillaries, and diffusion occurs.

Q: To calculate the minute volume, you need to multiply what two measurements? A) Tidal volume and respiratory rate B) Alveolar ventilation and respiratory rate C) Respiratory rate and bronchial dilation D) Tidal volume and dead space air