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Q:
What is the name of the heart dysfunction caused by an electrical source that causes the heart to beat too fast?
A) Tachycardia
B) Trauma
C) Heart attack
D) Bradycardia
Q:
Injuries to the brain and spinal cord, sepsis, and severe allergic reactions can cause what similar cardiovascular problem?
A) Increased SVR
B) Loss of tone
C) Hypertension
D) Permeability
Q:
The net result of respiratory challenges is low oxygen, also called ________, within the body.
A) anorexia
B) hypoglycemia
C) hypoxia
D) anoxia
Q:
The disruption of lung tissue by mechanical forces or medical problems can upset diffusion, which is defined as:
A) the process of gas exchange between the alveoli and the capillaries.
B) the ability of the lungs to expand equally during inspiration.
C) maintaining enough positive pressure in the pleural space to keep the lungs from collapsing.
D) the exchange of gases in the bronchi.
Q:
If a hole is created in the chest wall, air could escape or be drawn in, or if bleeding develops within the chest, air and blood can accumulate in the pleural space. This would force the lung to:
A) increase respirations.
B) increase the minute volume.
C) collapse.
D) work harder with minimal problems.
Q:
A condition that is caused by a decreased number of red blood cells is called:
A) polycythemia.
B) erythrocythemia.
C) leukemia.
D) anemia.
Q:
When carbon dioxide is not exchanged, the net result is high carbon dioxide, a condition called ________, within the body.
A) hyperemia
B) hypercapnia
C) hyperthermia
D) hyperglycemia
Q:
Which of the following statements provides reasons for the disruption of respiratory control?
A) A medical, structural, and mechanical failure that has initiated the cascade of life-threatening problems will interrupt this control.
B) A structural reason that has caused collapse of the upper and lower airways to block the flow of oxygen to the alveoli can interrupt this control.
C) Medical reasons, infections, trauma, toxins, and drugs, along with neurologic disorders, can interrupt this control.
D) Mechanical failure, soft-tissue damage, obstruction, and lack of perfusion will interrupt this control.
Q:
The potential space between the lung and chest wall is called the:
A) carina space.
B) lung space.
C) dead space.
D) pleural space.
Q:
What is the correct order of air flow from the nose to the alveoli in the lungs?
A) Nose, pharynx, hypopharynx, epiglottis, trachea, crania, mainstem bronchi, alveoli
B) Mouth, pharynx, epiglottis, hypopharynx, trachea, mainstem bronchi, crania, alveoli
C) Nose, nasopharynx, pharynx, hypopharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli
D) Nose, hyperpharynx, pharynx, hypopharynx, trachea, mainstem bronchi, bronchi, alveoli
Q:
What is a patent airway?
A) A rigid suction device used to remove fluid and foreign objects from the pharynx to secure the airway
B) A term used by EMS practitioners to indicate that the patient has a secured and opened airway necessary for life
C) The condition of the patient's airway at the start of a lifesaving intervention
D) An airway that is in need of securing via an oral or nasal pharyngeal airway
Q:
A patient breathing in room air should be receiving ________ percent oxygen.
A) 21
B) 5
C) 16
D) 100
Q:
What is FiO2?A) The amount of oxygen delivered via an airway adjunct in liters per minuteB) The concentration of oxygen in our inhaled air, which is referred to as the fraction of inspired oxygenC) The concentration of gases in our expired air, which is referred to as the fraction of used oxygenD) The flow rate of gases provided to the patient by mask or nasal cannula
Q:
A disruption of the balance between oncotic pressure and hydrostatic pressure is critical to regulating:
A) oxygenation and perfusion.
B) blood pressure and cell hydration.
C) perfusion and proper circulation to the tissues.
D) waste removal and urine.
Q:
________ blood returns to the right side of the heart.
A) Deoxygenated
B) Anemic
C) Red
D) Oxygenated
Q:
What is the best description of the chest's mechanical functions?
A) The chest is a closed space with only one opening; the trachea, to inspire air; the diaphragm contracts down and the intercostal muscles expand the ribs, causing a negative pressure that fills the lungs with air.
B) The diaphragm contracts, causing the intercostal muscles that are attached to the lungs to also contract, which moves the air into the lungs.
C) With the chest being an airtight space, the act of breathing occurs when the muscles of the diaphragm and intercostal relax, which causes the lungs to expand and air to flow into the lungs.
D) The chest is a closed space, and the pleural space surrounds the lungs; when the diaphragm contracts and the intercostals expand, the chest and lungs move outward and downward, allowing expiration and gas exchange in the lungs.
Q:
The seat of respiratory control is found in the:
A) nose.
B) lungs.
C) chest.
D) medulla oblongata.
Q:
The respiratory system moves air in and out; however, to ________ cells, the air that is inhaled must meet up with the circulatory system.
A) defuse
B) hyperoxygenate
C) register
D) perfuse
Q:
Our blood transports oxygen from the lungs to the cells and returns with what byproduct of metabolism?
A) Lactic acid
B) Carbolic acid
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Carbon monoxide
Q:
The metabolism that creates large amounts of carbon dioxide and lactic acid but generates little energy is called:
A) homeostatic.
B) hyperoxic.
C) aerobic.
D) anaerobic.
Q:
What is the type of metabolism that occurs when energy is created with a balance of adequate oxygen and nutrients?
A) Anaerobic
B) Aerobic
C) Hypoxic
D) Homeostatic
Q:
The process by which glucose and other nutrients are converted into energy is called:
A) catabolism.
B) respiration.
C) metabolism.
D) depolarization.
Q:
What element does the cell need in order to NOT dehydrate and die?
A) Glucose
B) Proteins
C) Water
D) Oxygen
Q:
The basic nutrient of the cell and the building block for energy is:
A) glucose.
B) protein.
C) oxygen.
D) water.
Q:
What substances, when dissolved, separate into charged particles?
A) ATP
B) Electrolytes
C) Cations
D) Ions
Q:
Cells make up tissues, tissues make up organs, and organs make up:
A) organelles.
B) sections.
C) systems.
D) groups.
Q:
The most vulnerable part of the cell is the:
A) mitochondria.
B) DNA.
C) membrane.
D) nucleus.
Q:
The movement of ions across the cell membrane is needed to accomplish repolarization. What cell structure is used to prepare for depolarization?
A) Mitochondria
B) Nucleus
C) Endoplasmic reticulum
D) Sodium potassium pump
Q:
The cellular structure that is responsible for synthesizing proteins is:
A) mitochondria.
B) endoplasmic reticulum.
C) nucleus.
D) sodium pump.
Q:
Which of the following BEST defines adenosine triphosphate (ATP)?
A) It is the form of energy produced in the mitochondria and is the cell's engine responsible for all cell function.
B) It is the form of energy produced in the endoplasmic reticulum and is the cell's engine responsible for all cell function.
C) It is the form of energy that is produced in the nucleus from glucose and other nutrients.
D) It is the form of energy that is produced in the mitochondria from glucose and DNA.
Q:
You are on the scene at a local park where a 51-year-old male is reported to be confused and having difficulty walking. Your partner notes that the patient is wearing a bracelet indicating he is diabetic. Upon questioning, the patient is able to report that he has not eaten in 8 hours. Your knowledge of pathophysiology suggests that the patient may be suffering from a diabetic emergency. Glucose is a building block for what form of energy in the cell?
A) Mitochondria
B) Electrolytes
C) ATP
D) Endoplasmic reticulum
Q:
Production of energy occurs in what part of the cell?
A) Endoplasmic reticulum
B) Mitochondria
C) Nucleus
D) Potassium pump
Q:
Janie is having difficulty breathing. Her current tidal volume is 350 mL, and she is breathing at 28 times per minute. What would be her minute volume?
A) 9,800 mL
B) 12.5 mL
C) 342 mL
D) 378 mL
Q:
Stroke volume depends on a series of factors: one is the force the myocardial muscle exerts to move the blood. This is known as:
A) preload.
B) contractility.
C) automaticity.
D) afterload.
Q:
Certain blood vessels that contain specialized sensors that detect the level of internal pressure and transmit messages to the nervous system, which then triggers the smooth muscle in the vessel walls to make any needed size adjustments, are called:
A) pressure receptors.
B) stretch receptors.
C) chemoreceptors.
D) volume receptors.
Q:
Plasma oncotic pressure is created by the movement of which of the following?
A) Large proteins
B) Contraction of the heart
C) Constriction of the vessels
D) Dilation of the vessels
Q:
The pressure that is created when the heart pushes the blood throughout the circulatory system is called:
A) hyperstatic pressure.
B) osmotic pressure.
C) oncotic pressure.
D) hydrostatic pressure.
Q:
Carbon dioxide is transported back to the lungs in two ways: via the red blood cells and:
A) white blood cells.
B) oncotic pressure.
C) hydrostatic pressure.
D) plasma.
Q:
In normal exhalation, the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax to contract the chest, which creates a positive pressure. This is what type of process?
A) Inspiration
B) Active
C) Passive
D) Respiration
Q:
Not all inspired air reaches the alveoli; 150 mL is stopped in the airway leading to the alveoli. This is called:
A) vital capacity.
B) bronchial air.
C) tidal volume.
D) dead air space.
Q:
The volume of air that is moved in and out of the chest in a normal breath cycle is called:
A) vital capacity.
B) tidal volume.
C) expiration.
D) inspiration.
Q:
The study of how disease affects the functioning of the human body is called:
A) psychology.
B) physiology.
C) pathophysiology.
D) anatomy.
Q:
Which organ secretes insulin after a person eats a large meal?
A) Gallbladder
B) Spleen
C) Liver
D) Pancreas
Q:
Which layer of the skin is exposed to the environment?
A) Adipose tissue
B) Dermis
C) Subcutaneous tissue
D) Epidermis
Q:
Which of the following are the components of the nervous system?
A) Brain and autonomic nerves
B) Spinal cord and motor nerves
C) Spinal cord and sensory nerves
D) Brain, spinal cord, and nerves
Q:
What is the strongest and most muscular part of the heart?
A) Left atrium
B) Right ventricle
C) Left ventricle
D) Right atrium
Q:
What vessel carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs?
A) Venae cavae
B) Aorta
C) Pulmonary artery
D) Pulmonary veins
Q:
Which of the following structures receives deoxygenated blood from the body via the venae cavae?
A) Right ventricle
B) Left ventricle
C) Left atrium
D) Right atrium
Q:
Your patient is an 84-year-old male with difficulty breathing and peripheral edema. He tells you he has been suffering for many years with "heart failure" and his condition is worsening, especially with trouble breathing at night. Your knowledge of cardiovascular physiology suggests that his condition could have resulted from the failure of either the right or left side of his heart. Which chamber of the heart is the strongest, most muscular part of the heart and is primarily responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the rest of the body?
A) Left ventricle
B) Right ventricle
C) Left atrium
D) Right atrium
Q:
What type of blood vessels surround the alveoli?
A) Arterioles
B) Veins
C) Capillaries
D) Arteries
Q:
Which of the following structures closes over the trachea to protect it during swallowing?
A) Pharynx
B) Epiglottis
C) Cricoid cartilage
D) Diaphragm
Q:
You have been dispatched to a local shopping mall where a 63-year-old female patient has slipped and fallen in a department store. Upon your arrival, you find her supine on the ground, conscious and oriented with stable vital signs, complaining of severe pain to the upper portion of her left leg and hip. Her left leg is slightly shortened and rotated outward. The bone most commonly fractured with a "broken hip" is the:
A) femur.
B) tibia.
C) fibula.
D) ilium.
Q:
Your 15-year-old patient was playing baseball today and was struck in the face by a baseball bat. As you assess his injuries and manage spinal immobilization, you note that several of his teeth are broken and he seems to have deformity and pain isolated to his lower jaw. The lower jaw bone is also known as the:
A) orbit.
B) maxillae.
C) manubrium.
D) mandible.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT part of the upper extremities?
A) Carpals
B) Calcaneus
C) Clavicle
D) Scapula
Q:
Which of the following is the only movable bone of the face?
A) Mandible
B) Maxillae
C) Zygoma
D) Manubrium
Q:
At which of the following locations could you palpate a malleolus?
A) Elbow
B) Ankle
C) Spinal column
D) Wrist
Q:
What are the small bones that make up the wrist called?
A) Tarsals
B) Carpals
C) Metatarsals
D) Metacarpals
Q:
What is the long bone of the upper portion of the arm?
A) Humerus
B) Ulna
C) Scapula
D) Radius
Q:
What is the bone on the thumb side of the forearm?
A) Fibula
B) Acromion
C) Radius
D) Ulna
Q:
What is another name for the shoulder blade?
A) Pharynx
B) Clavicle
C) Patella
D) Scapula
Q:
What is the largest bone of the lower leg?
A) Tibia
B) Femur
C) Fibula
D) Patella
Q:
Which of the following is NOT part of the lower extremity?
A) Femur
B) Carpals
C) Pelvis
D) Patella
Q:
What is the large, wing-shaped bone on either side of the pelvis?
A) Ischium
B) Acetabulum
C) Pubis
D) Ilium
Q:
What is the inferior-most portion of the sternum?
A) Body
B) Sternal notch
C) Xiphoid process
D) Manubrium
Q:
What is another name for the eye socket?
A) Orbit
B) Parietal bone
C) Zygomatic arch
D) Odontoid process
Q:
Your unit has arrived on the scene of a multiple vehicle collision where several vehicles have rear-ended each other. You are directed by the incident commander to care for a 23-year-old female in the first vehicle. The firefighter on-scene holding manual spinal immobilization indicates that her primary complaint is back pain from her head whipping back and forth from the impact. Your understanding of the anatomy of the spinal column and vertebrae suggests that this type of mechanism of injury results in frequent injuries to which part of the spinal column?
A) Lumbar spine
B) Thoracic spine
C) Cervical spine
D) Sacral spine
Q:
The two major portions of the skull are the:
A) atlas and axis.
B) manubrium and mandible.
C) cranium and face.
D) frontal bone and ilium.
Q:
What system is a group of organs and glands designed for the specific purpose of reproduction?
A) Respiratory system
B) Renal system
C) Lymphatic system
D) Reproduction system
Q:
Failure of the liver would result in which of the following?
A) Inability to filter out old and damaged blood cells
B) Inability to secrete insulin
C) Inability to detoxify harmful substances in the bloodstream
D) None of the above
Q:
What system produces chemicals called hormones that help to regulate many body activities and functions?
A) Respiratory system
B) Endocrine system
C) Lymphatic system
D) Digestive system
Q:
Which of the following is a function of the skin?
A) Regulation of body temperature
B) Balancing water in the body
C) Protection from the environment
D) All of the above
Q:
Which of the following body systems primarily produces hormones?
A) Cardiovascular
B) Gastrointestinal
C) Exocrine
D) Endocrine
Q:
Which of the following structures allows food to move from the mouth to the stomach?
A) Trachea
B) Venae cavae
C) Duodenum
D) Esophagus
Q:
Which of the following is the primary function of the stomach?
A) Production of bile
B) Absorption of water from food products
C) Chemical breakdown of food by acidic secretions
D) Absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream
Q:
You are on the scene at an office building where a 32-year-old male is described as having difficulty breathing and chest pain. The patient is allergic to peanuts and thinks he may have accidentally ingested some cookies with peanuts in them this afternoon during his break. He is pale with a pulse rate of 158 and a respiratory rate of 36. You understand that a "fight-or-flight" response may have been activated in this patient, involving which nervous system and which hormone?
A) Parasympathetic nervous system and insulin
B) Parasympathetic nervous system and epinephrine
C) Sympathetic nervous system and insulin
D) Sympathetic nervous system and epinephrine
Q:
In which of the following locations is the femoral pulse palpated?
A) At the groin
B) Behind the knee
C) On the medial side of the ankle, posterior to the tibia
D) On the medial side of the upper arm
Q:
The pulse palpated on the top of the foot is called the ________ pulse.
A) phalanx proximalis
B) tibialis posterior
C) dorsalis pedis
D) suprametatarsal
Q:
The pressure against the walls of the blood vessels as blood is ejected from the heart and circulates through the body is the ________ blood pressure.
A) systolic
B) diastolic
C) central venous
D) mean arterial
Q:
What condition of immediate concern results from a loss of red blood cells due to hemorrhage?
A) Decreased ability to fight infection
B) Decrease in pulse rate
C) Decreased oxygen delivery to the tissues
D) Decreased production of carbon dioxide
Q:
You have been dispatched to the site of a construction accident where a 36-year-old male patient was moderately cut by some machinery. His left arm has a 4" deep laceration that appears to have stopped bleeding with the gauze and direct pressure applied by his coworkers. Your knowledge of physiology suggests that which component of blood was partially responsible for forming clotting factors to stop the bleeding?
A) Platelets
B) White blood cells
C) Plasma
D) Red blood cells