Q&A Hero

Q: Which of the following makes up more than half of the volume of blood in the body? A) Platelets B) Plasma C) Red blood cells D) White corpuscles

Q: Which of the following types of blood vessels allow the exchange of substances directly between the blood and the cells of the body? A) Veins B) Alveoli C) Capillaries D) Arterioles

Q: You are caring for a 47-year-old male patient with classical chest pain suggestive of a myocardial infarction. Based on your understanding of the cardiovascular system, you know he could be suffering from damage, narrowing, or blockage of what arteries? A) Pulmonary arteries B) Coronary arteries C) Brachial arteries D) Femoral arteries

Q: A clot cannot form without which of the following blood components? A) Plasma B) Corpuscles C) Platelets D) White blood cells

Q: The cardiac muscle receives its supply of oxygenated blood by which of the following mechanisms? A) Coronary arteries that branch off the aorta B) Coronary veins that branch off the pulmonary vein as it returns oxygenated blood to the heart C) Absorption of oxygen from the blood returning from the lungs D) None of the above

Q: An artery is a blood vessel that only: A) returns blood to the heart. B) carries oxygenated blood. C) carries deoxygenated blood. D) carries blood away from the heart.

Q: Which of the following organs functions as a reservoir for blood that can be used in case of blood loss? A) Liver B) Spleen C) Thyroid gland D) Heart

Q: What type of muscles control the size of the bronchioles in the lungs? A) Voluntary B) Striated C) Skeletal D) Smooth

Q: Which of the following respiratory processes requires the active use of muscles? A) Inhalation B) Bifurcation C) Exhalation D) Gas exchange

Q: Which of the following terms describes the heart muscle's ability to generate its own electrical impulses? A) Contractility B) Conductivity C) Automaticity D) Irritability

Q: What are the two most easily injured portions of the spine? A) Sacral and coccygeal B) Cervical and thoracic C) Cervical and lumbar D) Lumbar and sacral

Q: Which of the following structures do NOT form part of the thorax? A) Sternum B) Ribs C) 8th through 19th vertebrae D) Ischium

Q: Which of the following structures or tissues is NOT part of the musculoskeletal system? A) Ligaments B) Acetabulum C) Fat D) Tendons

Q: Which of the following BEST describes the medical condition of shock? A) Hypotension B) A state of inadequate tissue perfusion C) An extreme emotional reaction to a stressful event D) Delayed capillary refill

Q: In relation to anatomy, the term topography means: A) the study of the skin. B) external landmarks of body structures. C) blood pressure fluctuations. D) key elements of the central nervous system.

Q: Physiology is the study of: A) body structures. B) muscles and movement. C) body systems. D) exercise and nutrition.

Q: What two components are directly related to aerobic metabolism? A) Exercise and water B) Electrolytes and carbohydrates C) Oxygen and glucose D) Carbolic acid and air

Q: What two body systems are critical for the life support chain? A) Respiratory and cardiovascular systems B) Respiratory and endocrine systems C) Cardiopulmonary and digestive systems D) Cardiovascular and lymphatic systems

Q: What causes the "seesaw" breathing pattern of young children? A) The cricoid cartilage and trachea are both more flexible than in adults, making breathing more difficult. B) The size of their tongues in proportion to their mouths. C) They rely more on the diaphragm during breathing difficulty. D) The pronounced inward curvature at the bottom of the ribcage.

Q: A child's ________ takes up proportionally more space in the pharynx than does an adult's. A) trachea B) tongue C) epiglottis D) cricoid cartilage

Q: What is NOT one of the primary organs for the female reproductive system? A) Ovaries B) Uterus C) Urethra D) Vagina

Q: Which organ is the principal organ of the renal system? A) Kidney B) Bladder C) Ureter D) Urethra

Q: Which of the following describes Fowler's position? A) Lying flat on the back B) Lying on the side C) Lying on the stomach D) Sitting upright with the legs straight

Q: To check the distal pulse of a patient with an injury to the forearm, the EMT would check for a pulse in which location? A) Armpit B) Wrist C) Upper arm D) Throat

Q: Which of the following BEST describes the location of the mid-axillary line? A) A line from the center of the armpit, extending vertically down the side of the chest B) A line drawn diagonally from the outer end of the clavicle to the navel C) A line drawn horizontally from one armpit to the other, across the front of the body D) A line drawn vertically from the xiphoid process to the pubic bone

Q: Which of the following are the abdominal regions created by drawing two imaginary lines intersecting at the navel? A) Abdominal quadrants B) Abdominal planes C) Abdominal regions D) Abdominal sextants

Q: With regard to anatomical locations, which of the following is NOT true? A) The umbilicus is located on the ventral aspect of the body. B) The ears are located on the lateral aspect of the head. C) The foot is distal to the knee. D) The mouth is proximal to the nose.

Q: A postal worker has been attacked by a dog during her mail delivery route. The patient is a 54-year-old female with several dog bites on her lower extremities and left arm. The worst of these bites is located on the back of her right leg just above the ankle. How can you explain the location of this injury using anatomical landmarks? A) The bite is located on the posterior aspect of the calf distal to the knee. B) The bite is located on the anterior aspect of the calf just proximal to the knee. C) The bite is located on the posterior aspect of the calf just proximal to the knee. D) The bite is located on the anterior aspect of the calf just distal to the knee.

Q: The wrist is ________ to the elbow. A) medial B) inferior C) distal D) dorsal

Q: You respond to a large concert venue where a number of spectators are reported to be severely intoxicated. You are directed to an area where several patients appear to be unconscious, lying face down on the ground. The position of these patients is described as: A) posterior. B) supine. C) anterior. D) prone.

Q: What is another term for the frontal aspect of the body? A) Caudal B) Dorsal C) Posterior D) Anterior

Q: Your 79-year-old female patient appears to show all signs and symptoms of a stroke. Her level of consciousness has rapidly deteriorated, she is now unconscious, and she can no longer control her own airway. While you intervene to manage her airway, the best position in which to keep fluid or vomitus from occluding her airway would be the: A) recovery position. B) Fowler position. C) Trendelenburg position. D) prone position.

Q: The inside of a person's thigh is also known as its ________ aspect. A) inferior B) lateral C) medial D) axillary

Q: Which of the following describes the midline of the body? A) An imaginary line dividing the body into equal right and left halves B) An imaginary line dividing the body into a top and bottom portion C) The intersection of two imaginary lines crossing at the umbilicus D) An imaginary line dividing the body into a front and a back portion

Q: Which of the following BEST describes the anatomic position? A) Supine with arms crossed over the chest and knees slightly bent B) Standing, facing forward, with arms raised above the head C) Standing, facing forward, with arms at the side, palms forward D) Standing in profile with the hands on the hips

Q: When discussing left and right in terms of anatomic locations, what do they refer to? A) Left and right from the patient's perspective B) Whoever is speaking about the anatomic location determines left and right orientation. C) Anatomic left and right refer to the provider's left and right orientation when facing a patient in the anatomic position. D) What left and right refer to anatomically is dependent on the patient's positioning when care is provided.

Q: You and your newly hired EMT partner arrive on the scene of a bicycle collision at the local community park. One cyclist stands by and says that she has no injuries. The other is lying on his side on the bike path, guarding his ribs and holding the lower part of his left leg. Your partner kneels next to the man, introduces herself, and asks, "Can you ambulate?" The patient looks up, confused and in obvious pain. "Can you ambulate? You know"¦walk?" Your partner says, a little louder. After transporting the patient, you discuss the call with your partner and suggest that she avoid using medical terms unnecessarily when talking with patients. She seems insulted and says, "Why?" What would you say? A) Explain that using large words and medical terms can be seen as being egotistical, which can alienate both patients and other providers. B) Tell her that the general public isn't smart enough to understand medical terminology and that all communication must be "dumbed down" when talking to patients. C) Tell her that the point of communicating with patients and other providers is so there is clear understanding; using medical terms when not necessary can cause confusion. D) You should say that you are an experienced EMT and since she is new, she should just take your advice and apply it.

Q: Why should an EMT avoid the use of acronyms and abbreviations when communicating? A) They should only be avoided in verbal communications, where they can be misunderstood; they are expected in written patient care reports. B) There is a chance that they can lead to errors in continued care for the patient. C) The medical acronyms and abbreviations used by prehospital care providers and hospital staff are different. D) Using acronyms and abbreviations is considered unprofessional.

Q: You and your EMT partner are responding to a medical aid call in the rural West County area. The dispatcher advises that the caller is reporting the patient as having a history of "plegia." Why would it be beneficial to have the dispatcher clarify a prefix for the word plegia? A) Without a clarifying prefix, it is difficult for the EMTs to effectively prepare for the type of patient they may encounter. B) Because a dysplegiac patient generally requires an EMT-Paramedic level of care, and it may change the level of response. C) A patient with plegia is potentially contagious, and the EMTs need to know what precautions are required. D) There is actually no need to clarify the word.

Q: A patient with bilateral femur fractures would have which of the following? A) Two fractures in the same femur B) A femur fracture occurring with little or no trauma C) A femur fracture in which the bone ends have punctured the muscle and skin of the thigh D) Fractures of both femurs

Q: What word would be used to refer to a patient's rapid breathing? A) Tachycardia B) Dyspnea C) Tachypnea D) Dyseffusion

Q: While transporting a patient with a traumatic wound to the back, you call in report to the receiving hospital over the radio. Due to radio static and background noise in the Emergency Department, the physician has had to ask you twice to repeat if the wound was superior or inferior. Why would this distinction be important? A) The physician is just trying to determine if the wound is deep or not so she knows what to prepare for. B) The answer is not necessarily important. The physician is just focusing on getting her standard questions answered while dealing with an inadequate radio system. C) The location of the wound is important in determining which types of resources to have available when the patient arrives. D) It is a triage question to determine if the patient is critical or not so the hospital can prioritize.

Q: What is the primary reason for an EMT to use specific and proper medical terminology? A) People may think that an EMT is not intelligent or professional unless she uses medical terms. B) Medical communication needs to be exact and consistent. C) It will make patients and family members trust in the EMT's abilities more. D) EMS providers can't bill for services unless the correct terminology is used in all documentation.

Q: The term lateral is best defined as: A) under the arms. B) toward the middle of. C) to the back of. D) to the side.

Q: The abdominal quadrants include all of the following except the: A) right upper. B) left lower. C) right medial. D) left upper.

Q: With regard to medical terminology, a prefix is: A) added to the beginnings of roots or words to modify or qualify their meaning. B) the foundation of a word or term. C) the combination of any two or more whole words. D) a modifier that indicates if a term is singular or plural.

Q: What is the distinction between anatomy and physiology? A) Anatomy is the study of physical body structures, whereas physiology is the study of emotions and behavior. B) The terms are synonymous. C) Anatomy is the study of body components and systems, and physiology is the study of injuries and disease processes. D) Anatomy is the study of body structures, and physiology is the study of body function.

Q: You are treating an elderly male patient in the back of your ambulance. En route, the patient becomes unresponsive. Upon arrival, the ED nurse asks you several questions about his condition. What should you do? A) You should answer her questions because you may legally share the patient's medical condition with other pertinent health care providers. B) You should not disclose the information to the nurse because it is protected confidential information and the patient did not sign a release authorizing you to discuss his condition. C) You should not disclose the information because HIPAA laws only allow you to provide the information to the emergency department physician. D) You should disclose the information, as it is not protected by law.

Q: You respond to a bus accident with multiple patients. As you arrive at the scene, you are approached by a local politician who states that his wife has been involved. He tells you that if you will take care of her first, he will ensure that you get the promotion you are up for. This becomes what type of decision for you as an EMT? A) Legal B) Financial C) Medical D) Ethical

Q: Which of the following incidents is the EMT legally required to report to law enforcement? A) You suspect the wife of the patient you are treating for chest pain has been smoking marijuana. B) Your patient is an 18-year-old college student who has been consuming large amounts of alcohol at a fraternity party. C) Your patient is a 12-year-old male who fell from his bicycle, breaking his left arm, and tells you his parents are at work. D) Your patient has facial and head injuries and states that her husband beat her with a telephone receiver.

Q: While treating a patient involved in a shooting at the patient's vacation home, which of the following actions may interfere with the investigation of a crime scene? A) Moving the patient B) Using the bathroom C) Using the patient's phone D) All of the above

Q: Which of the following is the EMT's primary responsibility at a secured crime scene? A) Identifying any potential suspects encountered at the scene B) Providing patient care C) Taking notes that may be needed during court testimony D) Preserving evidence

Q: Which of the following information may be important to law enforcement officers investigating a crime scene? A) What route you took when responding to the scene B) How you gained access to the scene C) Your opinion of what happened before you arrived on-scene D) Your experience as an EMT

Q: You respond to the report of an unconscious female patient. You can acquire important medical information about the patient through which of the following? A) Medical identification device B) Driver's license C) Medical history identifier D) On-call Medical Director

Q: While documenting a call, you add a false statement that was made about a local doctor. This could constitute which of the following? A) Libel B) Slander C) Degradation of character D) HIPAA violation

Q: You are providing care to a 54-year-old male patient complaining of chest pain. The patient asks to speak to you privately. He tells you he is taking Cialis for erectile dysfunction and his wife does not know he is taking it. He does not want his wife to find out. As you are putting the EMS bags back in the ambulance, the wife corners you and insists that you tell her what her husband said. What should you do? A) You should tell her. As his spouse, she is legally entitled to know his medical information. B) You should not tell her. There is no reason to humiliate your patient by disclosing his embarrassing condition. C) You should tell her. He may be having an affair without her knowledge and she needs to be tested for sexually transmitted diseases. D) You should not tell her. By law, your conversation with your patient is confidential.

Q: Which of the following requires training, policies, and procedures related to storing, accessing, and sharing patient information? A) HIPAA B) HIAPA C) EMTALA D) COBRA

Q: In which of the following situations is it legal to share information about treatment you provided to a patient? A) The triage nurse at the emergency department asks about the care you provided to the patient. B) The patient gives verbal consent to release information to a friend. C) The patient's lawyer requests the information over the phone. D) You are asked by a coworker who knows the patient.

Q: Sharing information about a patient's medical history with your neighbor after you hear a call on a radio scanner would constitute which of the following? A) Slander B) Violation of patient privacy C) Breach of confidentiality D) Libel

Q: Which of the following statements is true concerning protection by Good Samaritan laws? A) A Good Samaritan law allows an EMT to exceed the scope of practice, if necessary, when providing emergency care off-duty. B) An EMT is expected to act as a lay person when providing emergency care off-duty. C) The purpose of Good Samaritan laws is to protect people who are trying to help in an emergency. D) An EMT cannot be sued for negligence if the state in which he works has a Good Samaritan law.

Q: An off-duty EMT is driving down the road when she sees a major vehicle accident. There are no Emergency Medical Responders on the scene yet. There are only Good Samaritans. The EMT is late for a doctor's appointment so she decides that she will not stop and help. The driver of the vehicle dies before help arrives. One of the Good Samaritans notices her EMT license plates and writes them down as she passes by. The Good Samaritan is angry that the EMT did not stop and help and tries to get the EMT fired for not helping. Which of the following statements is true? A) The EMT is negligent for not stopping and helping. B) The EMT is negligent because the patient died. C) The EMT is not negligent because she had a doctor's appointment. D) The EMT is not negligent because she did not have a duty to act.

Q: Two EMTs respond to the scene of a syncopal episode. They evaluate a 50-year-old male patient who passed out and cut his upper lip. The EMTs examine the patient and his vital signs are normal. The EMTs talk the patient out of an expensive ambulance ride and suggest he will save money by driving himself to the urgent care clinic for stitches for his lip rather than waiting all night in the emergency department as a nonemergency patient. The patient signs the EMS refusal form. The patient decides to see his own doctor the next morning but dies at his house from sudden cardiac arrest an hour later. Which of the following statements is true? A) The EMTs are not negligent because the patient signed the refusal form. B) The EMTs are negligent because the patient died. C) The EMTs are negligent because there was proximate causation. D) The EMTs are not negligent because the EMTs have no control over the patient's medical condition.

Q: Which of the following situations BEST illustrates the act of abandonment by the EMT? A) The EMT resuscitates a patient who has a DNR order signed by his physician. B) An EMT transports a patient to the emergency department, leaves the patient in the waiting room, but does not advise the ED staff. C) An EMT begins care of a patient, then turns the patient over to a paramedic. D) An EMT who is off-duty sees a motor vehicle collision with probable injuries but does not stop to help.

Q: Which of the following is NOT required to prove a claim of negligence against an EMT? A) The EMT had a duty to act. B) Proximate causation existed. C) The EMT failed to act according to the standard of care. D) The patient was in fear of bodily harm at the time of the incident.

Q: If the EMT is in doubt as to whether a patient in cardiac arrest should be resuscitated, which of the following is the best decision? A) Have the patient's family put their wishes in writing. B) Withhold resuscitative measures. C) Consult with the patient's physician. D) Begin resuscitative measures.

Q: You are on the scene with a 72-year-old male patient with chest pain. The patient is complaining of shortness of breath but also refuses to go to the hospital, even after multiple attempts urging him to go. Which of the following should you do next? A) Stay with the patient until he loses consciousness. B) Fully inform the patient about his situation and the implications of refusing care. C) Inform the patient that he is having a "heart attack" and must be taken to the hospital for evaluation. D) Contact medical direction for orders to restrain the patient.

Q: Your patient is a 45-year-old man who is suffering from chest pain. Upon arrival, the patient is pale, sweaty, and seems short of breath. The patient is angry with his daughter for calling 911. He says that he had some spicy sausage for breakfast and has indigestion. Which of the following is an appropriate means of getting the patient the care he needs? A) Try to find out why the patient does not want to go to the hospital. B) Call the patient's neighbors and tell them that you have been called to the patient's house but he is now refusing care. C) Inform the patient that if he does not agree to treatment, you will have to take him against his will because he has a potentially life-threatening problem. D) Tell the patient that his chest pain is most likely caused by his diet, have him take an antacid, and go to bed.

Q: In which of the following situations should an EMT withhold resuscitative measures from a patient in cardiac arrest? A) The patient's caregiver presents a DNR order signed by the patient and his physician. B) The EMT's religious beliefs permit withholding resuscitation, and the caregiver presents documentation of the patient's wishes. C) Family members request that nothing be done. D) All of the above

Q: The EMT's obligation to provide care to a patient either as a formal or ethical responsibility is known as which of the following? A) Legal responsibility B) Scope of practice C) Duty to act D) Standard of care

Q: You arrive on the scene of a 55-year-old male patient. The patient's wife called 911 because he is having chest pains. The patient is very angry with his wife for calling 911 because he states he only has heartburn and adamantly refuses any treatment or transport. After signing the patient refusal form, the patient collapses and goes into sudden cardiac arrest. The wife is crying uncontrollably and begging you to do something. What should you do? A) Respect his legal right to not have any treatment, regardless of how much the wife begs you to help. B) Explain to the wife that her husband signed a legal document refusing care, and if you intervened to help him now, you would be breaking the law. C) Provide emergency care for the patient only if his wife signs a document stating they will not sue the EMS service. D) Provide emergency care under implied consent.

Q: You respond to a middle school for a 12-year-old male patient who has been hit by a car. You get consent to treat the patient from the school principal. What concept allows the principal to speak for the parents? A) In loco parentis B) Informed consent C) Res ipsa loquitur D) Healthcare proxy

Q: Your patient is a 10-year-old boy who suffered a possible fractured arm while rollerblading at a friend's house. Which of the following is the BEST way to obtain consent for treatment? A) Act on implied consent. B) Get consent from the patient's 15-year-old sister, who is at the scene. C) Call the patient's mother at work. D) Allow the patient to consent as an emancipated minor.

Q: Your patient is a 40-year-old known diabetic who was found unconscious at work by a coworker. What type of consent allows you to treat this patient? A) Consent for treatment of minor emergencies B) Consent for mentally incompetent adults C) Expressed consent D) Implied consent

Q: Which of the following refers to the care that would be expected to be provided by an EMT with similar training when caring for a patient in a similar situation? A) Scope of practice B) Standard of practice C) Protocols and standing orders D) Professional standards

Q: The administration of oxygen and the application of spinal immobilization is part of which of the following for the EMT? A) Duty to act B) Standard of care C) Scope of practice D) None of the above

Q: Which of the following refers to the set of regulations that defines the legal actions expected and limitations placed on the EMT? A) Scope of practice B) Legal standards of practice C) Protocols and standing orders D) Professional standards

Q: Which type of consent must be used by the EMT when seeking to treat a mentally competent adult? A) Unconditional consent B) Expressed consent C) Conscious consent D) Implied consent

Q: You are moving an elderly patient down the stairs using a stair chair. The patient is alert and very anxious. What should you do prior to moving the patient to prevent her from grabbing the railing and causing you to fall? A) Explain to the patient what you are doing and advise her to hold her hands together and not let go until you are finished moving her. B) Gently tie the patient's hands together until you are downstairs to prevent her from unconsciously grabbing the railing. C) Use a strap to safely secure the patient's arms to the chair without causing any loss of circulation to the patient's extremities. D) Place the patient on oxygen during the move to calm her down.

Q: You respond to the scene of a two-vehicle T-bone vehicle collision. The driver's side door is smashed shut and will not open. The front passenger door will open. The front passenger is stable and complaining of severe head and neck pain. You suspect that he has a potential spinal injury. The driver is unresponsive, in critical condition, and has gurgling respirations. You should extricate the passenger by which technique? A) Carefully move the patient using full c-spine precautions. B) Take extra care to protect the passenger's neck with a KED board or short spine board because of the injury. C) Move the patient out of the car as quickly as possible, in the direction of the long axis of the body. D) Move the patient as quickly as possible so he can get to a hospital before paralysis sets in.

Q: Which of the following is used to immobilize a patient with a suspected spinal injury? A) Portable stretcher B) Long backboard C) Basket stretcher D) Scoop stretcher