Q&A Hero

Q: You are treating an unconscious patient who does not have a possibility of spinal injury and who is breathing adequately. Which of the following is the BEST position for transporting the patient? A) Supine B) Fowler position C) Semi-Fowler position D) Recovery position

Q: For a patient without a possibility of spinal injury, which of the following carries should be used to move him from a bed to a stretcher? A) Firefighter's carry B) Direct-ground lift C) Draw-sheet method D) Extremity lift

Q: You are called to the scene of a patient who fell approximately 5 feet off a stepladder to the floor of a third-story attic of a very old building. He is complaining of severe neck and back pain, and he has an obvious fractured ankle. You cannot get your stretcher past the first-floor stairs and your long spine board is not practical with the winding spiral staircase and the small attic access. What is the best device to safely get the patient out of the attic where he can be properly immobilized? A) Scoop stretcher B) Stair chair C) Flexible stretcher D) Vest-type extrication device

Q: What is the contraindication for the use of a scoop or orthopedic stretcher? A) Internal injuries B) Hip fracture C) Pelvic injury D) Spinal injury

Q: Which of the following should you use when you want to move a patient from a wheelchair to a stretcher? A) Ground transfer B) Extremity lift C) Clothing lift D) Modified direct lift

Q: You respond to a 48-year-old morbidly obese female patient. Her adult daughter called you because she has not gotten up from her oversized recliner chair in over a week. She has tried to help her out of the chair but states that each time her mother screams in agony. The foul odor presence of urine and feces is strong around the patient. Her feet do not touch the ground, and any attempt to lift the patient by her arms or scoot her down to the end of the chair results in severe pain to the patient. You are finding it nearly impossible to get a good grip on the patient. How will you get her out of the chair? A) Soft stretcher B) Long spine board C) Lie the chair back and use a scoop stretcher D) Vest-type extrication device

Q: You and your partner arrive on the scene of a 400-pound patient lying in bed. He complains of nausea and vomiting for the past 3 days. When he tries to sit up, he gets very dizzy and has a syncopal episode. Realizing that he cannot assist you in getting on the stretcher, you decide to do which of the following? A) Use the patient's sheets to slide him over to the stretcher. B) Place the patient on a backboard to provide better gripping points to move the patient. C) Use the power lift technique to carefully and safely lift the patient to the stretcher. D) Call for additional manpower to move the patient.

Q: What type of move should the EMT use to move a patient who is in a car that has started to burn? A) Non-urgent move B) Emergency move C) No attempt to move D) Urgent move

Q: Which of the following is another name for an ambulance cot? A) Stair chair B) Reeve's stretcher C) Scoop stretcher D) Wheeled ambulance stretcher

Q: Which urgent move should be performed for a patient seated in a vehicle? A) Rapid immobilization B) Rapid extrication C) Rapid takedown D) Rapid takeout

Q: Urgent moves are required when: A) an emergency move is not possible. B) rapid transport is necessary. C) performed for treatment of life threats along with precautions for spinal injuries. D) there are no life threats and conditions are stable.

Q: During an emergency move, which of the following techniques should be used, whenever possible, to minimize the possibility of further aggravating a possible spinal injury? A) Move the patient in the direction of the long axis of the body. B) Pull the patient from the feet, not the shoulders. C) Roll the patient over. D) Move the patient sideways, alternating between moving the shoulders, then the hips.

Q: Stretchers that are designed to carry obese patients weighing up to 800 pounds (or more) are called: A) battery-powered stretchers. B) wheeled stretchers. C) hydraulic stretchers. D) bariatric stretchers.

Q: What is the likely impact of power stretchers on EMS? A) There is no likely impact of power stretchers on EMS. B) There will be a decrease in the number of injuries among EMTs. C) Insurance reimbursement will increase for ambulance services. D) There will be an increase in the number of home health transfers.

Q: How many pounds are most battery-powered hydraulic systems rated to safely lift? A) 300 B) 500 C) 700 D) 200

Q: Which of the following patients should NOT be transported in a stair chair? A) Patient with difficulty breathing B) Patient who is nauseated C) Patient with a suspected spinal injury D) Patient found lying in bed

Q: What is the main benefit of using a stair chair with a track-like system over a traditional stair chair? A) A stair chair with a track-like system can be manipulated to lift into an ambulance using a hydraulic system. B) A stair chair with a track-like system prevents the patient from having to be lifted down stairs. C) There is no benefit of a track-like stair chair over a traditional stair chair. D) Only one EMT is required to operate a stair chair with a track-like system.

Q: Which of the following devices should be used to carry a patient down the stairs whenever possible? A) Stair chair B) Scoop stretcher C) Basket stretcher D) Wheeled ambulance stretcher

Q: You have responded to a multiple casualty incident involving an overturned bus. Patients have been thrown around the interior of the bus and several are piled on top of each other. What type of move would you perform to gain access to the most critically injured patients? A) Non-urgent move B) Extremity lift C) Urgent move D) Emergency move

Q: You have responded to a nursing home and find an elderly patient in his bed in cardiac arrest. Which type of move would you perform to get the patient to a hard surface so you can perform chest compressions? A) Non-urgent move B) Clothing drag C) Urgent move D) Emergency move

Q: What is the preferred number of rescuers when using a stair chair? A) Two: one in front and one in back B) Only one with the track-like chair C) Four: one for each corner of the device D) Three: two lifting and one spotting

Q: What should you NOT do when using a stair chair? A) Lean forward from the hips. B) Keep your back straight. C) Lean forward from the waist. D) Flex your knees.

Q: Which of the following is NOT correct when performing a log roll? A) Keep your back straight. B) Lean forward from the hips. C) Use your shoulder muscles. D) Place both feet flat on the ground.

Q: Which of the following devices is best suited for maneuvering a patient through a narrow hallway? A) Long backboard B) Flexible stretcher C) Wheeled stretcher D) Basket stretcher

Q: When a stretcher with a patient secured to it is elevated, what occurs? A) The patient feels more comfortable being at near normal height. B) The center of gravity is raised and this causes a tip hazard. C) The stretcher is more stable and easily pushed. D) The EMTs lessen the possibility of injury from being bent over the patient.

Q: You respond to a call at a park where you find a 550-pound patient who has fallen down a slope near a creek. As you and your partner discuss the situation, you decide to call a second unit for lifting assistance. Once the patient is on a stretcher, how would the additional two personnel help in this lift? A) You place one person on each corner of the stretcher to balance the weight and share in the lifting. B) They would position themselves half way up the slope to take over when you and your partner get fatigued. C) You will place two persons at the foot, one at the head, and the other to act as a safety anchor with a rope. D) You will place two persons at the head of the stretcher, one at the foot, and one to act as a spotter.

Q: Which of the following best describes an urgent move? A) Moving a patient from a car directly to a long spine board B) Dragging a patient from a burning house using his shirt C) Using a sheet to move a patient from a bed to the stretcher D) Pulling a patient by her feet across a parking lot

Q: Which of the following should you do when reaching for something? A) Keep your back in a locked-in position. B) Avoid twisting. C) Avoid reaching more than 15 to 20 inches in front of your body. D) All of the above

Q: If the weight being pulled is below the level of the EMT's waist, he should be in a(n) ________ position. A) squatting B) kneeling C) feet-together D) overhead

Q: Which of the following is another name for the squat-lift position? A) Power grip B) Power lift C) Weight-lifter technique D) Direct carry

Q: How far apart should your hands be when using a power grip? A) 24 inches B) 10 inches C) 6 inches D) 15 inches

Q: Where should you position the weight of the object being lifted? A) As far from the body as possible B) An arm's length away from the body C) To one side or the other D) As close to the body as possible

Q: Which of the following statements regarding body mechanics is true? A) Use your back to lift. B) Use your legs to lift. C) Twist your torso while lifting. D) Position your feet close together.

Q: Which of the following is the correct position of an EMT's feet when lifting? A) Shoulder-width apart B) As close together as possible C) As wide apart as possible D) Two feet apart

Q: When lifting a patient, a basic principle is to: A) lift with your lower back. B) extend your arms to maximize your lift. C) rush your lift to minimize your lift time. D) know your lifting limits.

Q: Which of the following factors should be considered before lifting any patient? A) The weight of the patient B) Your physical limitations C) Communications D) All of the above

Q: The term body mechanics describes the proper use of your body to lift without injury. What are the three considerations to review before any lift? A) Equipment, patient injury, and communication B) The object, patient injury, and communication C) The object, your limitations, and communication D) Environment, physical limitations, and communication

Q: Which of the following best describes body mechanics? A) Proper use of the body to protect patient safety B) Proper use of the body to facilitate lifting and moving objects C) Equipment designed to minimize stress on the user's body D) Both B and C

Q: When placing all fingers and the palm in contact with the object being lifted, you are using which of the following? A) Lock grip B) Power lift C) Power grip D) Vise grip

Q: Which of the methods listed below is best described as moving a patient from the floor to a stretcher by having two or more rescuers kneel, curl the patient to their chests, stand, and then reverse the process to place the patient on the stretcher? A) Direct carry B) Direct ground lift C) Power lift D) Draw-sheet method

Q: Which of the following provides the greatest personal safety for an EMT working at a motor vehicle collision? A) Nonslip footwear B) Reflective outer clothing C) Portable radio D) Flashlight

Q: What is a simple step EMTs can perform to help prevent the spread of flu in the prehospital environment? A) Place a surgical mask on suspected flu patients. B) Transport all patients with coughs to negative pressure rooms. C) Notify the CDC and local health department of flu cases. D) Encourage patients to get their H1N1 antivirals early in the flu season.

Q: Which of the following pathogens is transmitted through contact with open wounds or sores? A) Pertussis B) Staphylococcus C) Rubella D) Meningitis

Q: You are approaching the scene of a motor vehicle crash. Which of the following would be the first way to safeguard your well-being as an EMT? A) Take personal protective equipment (PPE) precautions. B) Request additional resources. C) Ensure scene safety. D) Utilize DOT-approved reflective safety clothing.

Q: You are dispatched to a "man down" with no further information. As your unit arrives on-scene, you see a crowd of bystanders looking at a man lying in an alleyway. The bystanders begin screaming to you, "Help him, he's been shot! He's bleeding real bad!" What would be the best course of action? A) Move bystanders aside since the patient will die without treatment. B) Tell law enforcement investigators to meet your unit at the ER. C) Dispatch law enforcement and wait until the scene is secure. D) Load and go, because you're already on-scene.

Q: You are on the scene of an "unknown medical" call. The patient is a 26-year-old, 250-pound male patient who suddenly becomes violently angry. Everything you say to the patient only makes him angrier. Offended by your questions, he screams that he is going to "cut your tongue out" and hurries into the kitchen. What should you do? A) Radio for police and then calmly walk out of the house, being sure to take all of your medical equipment. B) Tackle the patient before he can get a kitchen knife to stab you. C) Radio for police and relay to dispatch important scene information until they arrive. D) Leave immediately to a safe area and then call for police assistance.

Q: You are dispatched to a female with altered mental status. Once inside the home, you find a female who appears to have been beaten unconscious. A man, who smells of alcohol, says that she is his wife and that he does not know what happened: "I just found her this way!" The husband is behaving suspiciously, appears paranoid, and is pacing erratically around the room. What would be the safest course of action? A) Continue to question the man and begin treating the patient. B) Evacuate the patient and begin treatment. C) Leave the house and call for law enforcement. D) Have your partner call for help while you stay with the patient.

Q: You are first on the scene of a vehicle collision where a vehicle has gone off a bridge and is partially submerged. You are told that a person is still trapped in the vehicle. Your partner starts to take off his shoes and prepares to go in to save the victim. You stop your partner and tell him it is too dangerous. He tells you he is prepared to die to save a life. What is the best response to him? A) He is not only putting his life at risk, but also placing the lives of the professional rescuers unnecessarily at risk. B) His family will not receive any benefits if he is not trained in rescue and dies while attempting a rescue. C) The patient's family may sue him if he is not successful in rescuing him. D) He will force additional fire units to come to his aid unnecessarily and waste taxpayer money.

Q: You are dispatched to the staging area of a terrorist-related chemical exposure. The incident commander asks you to stand by while hazmat personnel bring patients to the cold zone. As an EMT on-board an ambulance, what statement BEST describes your role? A) Triage patients to be decontaminated. B) Transport decontaminated patients. C) Coordinate hazmat response. D) Transport patients to be decontaminated.

Q: What reference provides important information regarding hazardous materials, emergency care, and procedures in case of accidental fire or release; supplies definitions of placard colors and identification numbers; and should be standard issue on-board all ambulances and rescue units? A) Accidental Exposure and Contamination Guide B) Emergency Response Guidebook C) Emergency Preparedness and Response Plan D) Safety Data Sheets

Q: What is the EMT's highest priority at the scene of a hazardous materials incident? A) Personal safety B) Identification of hazardous materials C) Patient care D) Safety of bystanders

Q: Which three "Rs" are essential for the EMT to practice when reacting to danger? A) Retreat, radio, reevaluate B) Remember, respect, respond C) Ricochet, recover, re-entry D) Realize, react, reassess

Q: Which of the following behaviors would demonstrate that an EMT understands reactions to death and dying? A) Being tolerant of angry reactions by patients and family members B) Giving a dying patient hope that a cure can be found before the patient dies C) Providing spiritual guidance to patients who express anger at God D) Being firm with grieving family members and telling them they need to accept what has happened

Q: You observe a coworker telling a terminal cancer patient and her family, "Everything will be okay." Making false reassurances is considered: A) naive and uncompassionate. B) caring and supportive. C) professional and discreet. D) ambiguous and uncertain.

Q: You have just worked a cardiac arrest call on a 48-year-old father of three. Despite your best efforts, the patient died in the emergency department. As you are getting your ambulance in service, the patient's wife rushes out of the emergency department. She finds you and begins screaming at you that her husband's death is your fault. She blames you for not getting on the scene fast enough, taking too long at the house, and not shocking her husband back to life like she has seen on television. What response should you have to her anger? A) Recognize that she is in the denial stage of grief and interrupt her hysterical behavior pattern by getting her attention and helping her calm down. B) Reassure her that you did everything you could and that everything will be okay. C) Correct her misconceptions and remind her that television shows are fiction, so she will not sue you in the future. D) Listen empathetically to all of her complaints and let her know she can contact you for any additional assistance.

Q: A family member who keeps pleading with a deceased loved one to "wake up" is experiencing which reaction to death and dying? A) Anger B) Rejection C) Projection D) Denial

Q: When responding to the scene of a patient who was discovered to be unresponsive, not breathing, and without a pulse, family members state that the patient has been suffering from cancer for several years. One of his sons is cursing at you and your partner, saying that you are not moving fast enough. Which stage of grief is the patient's son experiencing in response to his father's death? A) Denial B) Depression C) Anger D) Acceptance

Q: While transporting a patient to the hospital who has a history of terminal brain cancer, the patient says, "I know I'm going to die, but first I want to see my grandson graduate from high school." What stage of death and dying describes this patient's current condition? A) Bargaining B) Denial C) Anger D) Depression

Q: Critical Incident Stress Debriefings (CISDs): A) are always recommended. B) are now less common than they once were. C) must be held from 2 to 4 hours following an incident to be effective. D) have been replaced with "defusings."

Q: Since EMS personnel are often exposed to both acute and chronic stressors, ________ management may be helpful to cope with on-the-job experiences. A) critical incident stress B) crisis intervention C) stress prevention D) chronic stress

Q: An EMT involved in an especially difficult call, such as one in which a coworker was killed, should be urged to: A) discuss the experience freely with coworkers. B) begin a course of psychiatric medications. C) seek help from a trained mental health professional. D) conceal the problem because care may not be covered financially.

Q: What is a positive, healthy way to help deal with stress? A) Caffeine to "get up and go" B) Regular physical exercise C) Adding workload to a busy regular schedule D) Drinking alcohol to "unwind"

Q: For the last few days, your regular EMT partner has been having trouble sleeping, has been on edge, and has trouble concentrating on his job during EMS calls. Luckily, your call volume has been low with no serious calls since the infant cardiac arrest you both worked last month. You ask him if anything is bothering him and he states he is fine in every way. He states that he has been going to the bars lately to relax and invites you to come along for some drinks after work. Choose the best answer for this situation. A) Your partner is suffering from acute stress reaction and you should recommend to him that he seek professional counseling. B) Your partner is suffering from post-traumatic stress disorder and you should go to the bar with him to provide moral support and talk with him. C) Your partner is suffering from a delayed stress reaction and you should recommend that he seek professional counseling. D) Your partner is suffering from a cumulative stress reaction. This is a natural response and he should be fine in a few days.

Q: Which of the following behaviors would be considered a common sign of stress rather than an acute psychological problem? A) Failure to use PPE appropriately on a regular basis B) Irritability with friends, family, coworkers, or patients C) Flashbacks, nightmares, and feelings of detachment D) Increased speeding and reckless driving

Q: Which of the following terms refers to a positive form of stress that helps people work when under pressure and respond effectively? A) Prostress B) Distress C) Unstress D) Eustress

Q: One's "cognitive ability" refers to his or her ability to do which of the following? A) Control his or her emotions B) Use fine motor skills C) Adapt to stress D) Think and solve problems

Q: A(n) ________ is a situation that may lead to an acute stress reaction. A) routine call B) abuse of alcohol C) ongoing night shift D) injury of a coworker

Q: What are some signs and symptoms that a coworker may be experiencing delayed stress reaction (PTSD)? A) Suspicion of friends, family, coworkers, or patients B) Excessive sleeping, loss of appetite, and distractibility C) Headaches, stomach ailments, and a chronic cough D) Flashbacks, nightmares, and feelings of detachment

Q: Post-traumatic stress disorder may be described as a(n): A) acute stress reaction. B) cumulative stress reaction. C) severe stress reaction. D) delayed stress reaction.

Q: The term burnout is also known as a(n) ________ stress reaction. A) delayed B) post-traumatic C) acute D) cumulative

Q: Which of the following is a physiologic effect of the "Stress Triad" as described by the physician Hans Selye? A) Bleeding gastric ulcers B) Hypertrophy of the lymph nodes C) Atrophy of the adrenal glands D) Amnesia for stressful events

Q: According to Dr. Hans Selye, the third stage of the "Stress Triad" is known as the ________ stage. A) resistance B) cumulative C) exhaustion D) alarm

Q: The "Stress Triad," or the body's response to a stressful stimulation, is known as general ________ syndrome. A) incident B) resistance C) reaction D) adaptation

Q: An EMT is confronted by an armed gunman who is threatening to kill the EMT and his partner. An elevation in the EMT's heart rate and blood pressure occurs in which stage of the body's response to stress? A) Resistance stage B) Exhaustion stage C) Alarm reaction stage D) Response stage

Q: Which hormone helps the body control stress, regulate metabolism, and influence an immune response? A) Immunoglobulin B) Serotonin C) Epinephrine D) Cortisol

Q: Which of the following parts of the nervous system is responsible for the "fight or flight" response experienced in response to a stressor? A) Parasympathetic nervous system B) Central nervous system C) Peripheral nervous system D) Sympathetic nervous system

Q: What action does an organ undergo to best describe the term hypertrophy? A) Absence B) Wasting C) Changing D) Enlargement

Q: Which of the following is the form of stress that can cause immediate and long-term problems with an EMT's health and well-being? A) Megastress B) Hyperstress C) Distress D) Eustress

Q: Which of the following terms is best defined as "a state of physical and/or psychological arousal to a stimulus?" A) Homeostasis B) Distress C) Stress D) Eustress

Q: The tuberculin skin test (TST), formerly known as the purified protein derivative (PPD) test, is used to: A) determine if a person has infected others with TB. B) detect a person's exposure to tuberculosis. C) inoculate healthcare workers against TB infections. D) prevent tuberculosis from spreading following an exposure.