Q&A Hero

Q: When the potential exists for exposure to exhaled air of a person with suspected or confirmed TB, a(n) ________ mask should be worn by the EMT. A) surgical B) B-50 C) nonrebreather D) N-95

Q: When covering a patient's mouth and nose with a mask of any kind, which of the following is the primary risk? A) Causing or exasperating respiratory illnesses B) Interfering with patient communication C) Upsetting the patient because of the social stigma D) Obstructing the ability to visualize and protect the airway

Q: What are the minimum Standard Precautions an EMT should take when transporting a patient infected with Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS)? A) Gloves, N-95 mask, and goggles B) Gloves C) Gloves and N-95 mask D) Gloves, N-95 mask, goggles, and gown

Q: You respond to a laceration call. When you arrive on-scene, you walk into the house and find a person suffering from a severe wrist laceration from a broken window. Without thinking, you immediately grab the wrist and apply direct pressure to the wound. You then realize that, in your hurry to save a life, you forgot to put on your gloves. You look down to see your hand is covered in blood. When practical, you immediately wash your hands thoroughly. What is your next best action? A) Report the exposure incident because it is the law and you could be fined a large sum of money for failing to report the exposure. B) Report the exposure so you can protect yourself from any accidental infection. C) Report the exposure. Failure to report the exposure may result in you not receiving financial compensation for a potential line-of-duty injury. D) If your hands had no open wounds, it is not required to report the exposure as there is no risk of infection, and you could get in trouble at work for failure to follow policy.

Q: What is the name of the federal act that mandates a procedure by which emergency healthcare providers can find out if they have been exposed to potentially life-threatening diseases while on the job? A) Communicable Disease Notification Act B) EMS Personnel Health Protection Act of 1991 C) Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens Act D) Ryan White CARE Act

Q: The CDC recommends using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer in all except which of the following situation(s)? A) The patient has a bloodborne communicable disease. B) The patient has a respiratory illness. C) The provider is not vaccinated against hepatitis B. D) The provider's hands come into contact with fecal matter.

Q: You are treating a patient who has a productive cough and who reports weight loss, loss of appetite, weakness, night sweats, and fever. Which of the following diseases is most likely the cause of these signs and symptoms? A) Hepatitis B B) Pneumonia C) AIDS D) Tuberculosis

Q: Which one of these groups is at greatest risk of contracting and transmitting tuberculosis? A) Current and former smokers B) Immunosuppressed patients C) Uranium mine workers D) Healthcare practitioners

Q: Which of the following statements about HIV/AIDS is true? A) HIV positive needlesticks have a 30 percent infection rate. B) The HIV virus lives longer outside the body than hepatitis B. C) HIV positive needlesticks have less than a 0.05 percent infection rate. D) Drugs are not available that slow HIV from progressing into AIDS.

Q: Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding tuberculosis (TB)? A) The incubation period of TB is from 1 to 7 days. B) TB is not spread through surface contamination. C) The TB pathogen only affects lung tissue. D) A tuberculin skin test can detect TB exposure.

Q: Healthcare employers are required by law to provide a hepatitis B ________ available to employees free of charge. A) prophylaxis B) vaccine C) cure D) immunity

Q: Which of the following pathogens can live in dried blood for days and should be a major concern for EMS providers even while cleaning contaminated equipment? A) Tuberculosis B) Hepatitis B C) Hepatitis A D) AIDS

Q: What mode of transmission most accurately describes the route of spreading hepatitis A? A) Respiratory droplet B) Unprotected sex C) Fecal-oral D) Bloodborne

Q: Which of the following is true regarding proper hand cleaning? A) Soap and water should be used following any patient contact if the EMT does not wear gloves. B) If the EMT's hands are visibly dirty, an alcohol-based hand cleaner is not sufficient. C) In cases where soap and water and alcohol-based hand cleaners are not immediately available, bleach wipes should be used. D) Following patient contact, the EMT should soak his hands in warm soapy water for at least 30 seconds and then shake them vigorously.

Q: You are called to an assault on a homeless male. Dried blood from the trauma is visible around the patient's mouth and nose. During assessment, you note the patient has a productive cough. The patient says, "Don't worry, I'm not contagious. I've had this cough for a year." Describe the best approach regarding respiratory isolation. A) Isolate the patient with a nonrebreather mask. B) Mask yourself and the patient. C) Mask yourself only. D) Use gloves for PPE, as that's all that's needed.

Q: Due to the high risk of an unstable work environment, EMTs responding to a motor vehicle crash may consider using ________ in addition to standard PPE. A) N-95 masks B) heavy-duty gloves C) face shields D) Level B hazmat suits

Q: During which of these situations would the EMT be least likely to experience a body substance exposure? A) Bandaging a laceration B) Childbirth C) Splinting a sprained ankle D) Glucometry

Q: An EMT should consider wearing protective eyewear when caring for which of these patients? A) A patient with a difficult-to-visualize scalp laceration B) A trauma patient who is covered in dirt, rocks, and other foreign debris C) A patient who is actively coughing D) A patient who was sprayed with mace by police during arrest

Q: What would be the primary reason for an EMT to change gloves between contact with different patients? A) To protect the EMT from becoming infected B) To minimize the amount of time the EMT's hands are spent in gloves C) To ensure soiled gloves are changed as soon as possible D) To prevent spreading infection to the next patient

Q: All of the following are ways that an EMT can increase both physical and mental well-being, except: A) drinking caffeine instead of alcohol. B) following a regular walking regimen. C) spending more time relaxing with friends and family. D) eating more carbohydrates.

Q: What is a common term used to describe the items needed for Standard Precautions or body substance isolation precautions? A) Harm-reduction strategy B) Exposure-control plan C) Personal protective equipment D) Infection-control plan

Q: Which of the following descriptions BEST defines the term pathogen? A) An immunity developed after an exposure B) A study of the origins of infection and disease C) A medication with a harmful effect D) An organism that causes infection and disease

Q: You and your new EMT partner arrive first on the scene of a single car rollover on the shoulder of a busy highway. You pull off in a safe location and just as you stop the ambulance, your partner throws the passenger door open, steps out of the truck, and begins jogging through the scattered debris toward the overturned car. You shout for him to stop and he looks back at you, but then continues to the vehicle and begins assessing the driver. Later, as you are restocking in the ambulance bay of the local trauma center your partner tells you that he thinks you acted unprofessionally by shouting at him. What is the best way to respond? A) Shouting was an attempt to protect the EMT from a potentially unsafe scene. B) New EMTs should expect partners to yell at them occasionally. C) The On-Duty Supervisor should be called. D) An EMT should never hurry to assist a patient.

Q: You and your EMT partner are assigned to spend a day at the senior center where you are to inspect the rooms and common areas for fall hazards. Your partner is upset that he is not in the ambulance where the "action is." He complains that "looking for loose rugs" is a waste of his time. What would be the best response to his complaints? A) It is good practice for the next emergency call. B) It makes the taxpayers happy. C) Injury prevention in the community is an important component of EMS. D) It minimizes the number of 911 calls late at night.

Q: A fellow EMT is talking with the Medical Director at a staff meeting. The EMT states that the neighboring ambulance service is carrying special clotting bandages for serious bleeding wounds. The special bandages cost five times as much as the regular bandages, but the EMT claims they work ten times better. The EMT wants the Medical Director to approve the bandages for use in their ambulances. The Medical Director responds to the EMT by saying he will not approve the bandages until he can prove they are worth the additional cost. How can the EMT best prove the worth of the special bandages? A) Have a member of the other ambulance service call the Medical Director to provide firsthand information on how the special bandages are much better. B) Call the manufacturer of the special bandage and request literature to give to the Medical Director. C) Perform a literature search to see what studies have been done on the special bandages and report the findings to the Medical Director. D) Order a small number of the special bandages and compare them side-by-side to the regular bandages.

Q: You respond to a 35-year-old male patient who fell 50 feet from a bluff. Your authority to provide emergency care is an extension of the Medical Director's license to practice medicine. You are acting as a(n) ________ of the Medical Director. A) subordinate B) employee C) designated agent D) extension

Q: You and another new EMT are studying your local protocols. The other EMT notices that you may give oral glucose without utilizing on-line medical control, but you must get an on-line order from a physician before assisting a patient in taking his nitroglycerin for chest pain. The EMT asks you why some drugs require on-line medical control while others do not. What is the best answer to give him? A) Glucose is only sugar so it cannot hurt the patient. B) The physician does not trust EMTs. C) The patient's nitroglycerin might be expired. D) The physician wants to be sure it is appropriate for the patient.

Q: A written authorization for an EMS provider to perform a particular skill in a specific situation is a(n): A) on-line protocol. B) standard of care. C) direct medical order. D) standing order.

Q: Which of the following BEST describes a list of steps the EMT should perform while assessing and managing emergency medical situations? A) Standing orders B) On-line medical direction C) Protocols D) Standard operating procedures

Q: The application of oxygen for a patient who is short of breath without having to contact the physician in the emergency department is an example of which of the following? A) On-line medical direction B) Standards of care C) Standing orders D) Breach of duty

Q: Who assumes the ultimate responsibility for patient care rendered by the EMT? A) EMS supervisor B) EMT C) Director of quality assurance D) Medical Director

Q: Which of the following is a role of the EMT in the quality improvement process? A) Taking responsibility for the actions of one's partner B) Writing complete patient care reports C) Critiquing performance of one's partner D) Assuring personal safety

Q: The EMT's role in the quality improvement process includes becoming involved in the quality process, keeping carefully written documentation, obtaining feedback from patients and the hospital staff, continuing your education, and which of the following? A) Writing protocols and standing orders B) Maintaining your equipment C) Providing quality care D) Being a member of the QI committee

Q: After delivering a patient to the emergency department, you discuss with hospital staff the details of your care and ask for suggestions to improve your care. This is an example of your role in which of the following? A) Patient advocacy B) Transfer of care C) Quality improvement D) Continuing education

Q: Why is it important for EMTs to participate in quality improvement programs? A) To ensure that individuals making false calls for EMS are prosecuted B) To identify problem employees and create a corrective action plan C) To identify problems and develop a plan to prevent their recurrence D) To ensure adequate personnel are available for emergencies

Q: You have just come on duty. The EMT on the previous shift complains to you that the QI manager was giving him grief because he did not document three sets of vital signs on the patient record. The EMT is angry and does not understand why documenting three sets of vital signs is so important. What is the best answer you could give him? A) Vital signs are something you have to fill out because the state requires it. B) The recording of three sets of vital signs demonstrates that you were trending the patient's condition. C) It is important you show the QI manager that you are a team player. D) The report looks better when all the boxes are filled out.

Q: The National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) was founded to establish which of the following? A) An education curriculum for EMT courses B) Quality oversight of emergency medical services practices C) National standards for emergency medical services personnel D) Quality improvement and quality assurance programs for emergency medical services

Q: What is NOT one the common settings that an EMT may work in? A) Rural/wilderness settings B) Ambulance services C) Hospitals D) Fire departments

Q: Which of the following is a personal trait an EMT should demonstrate? A) Self-starter B) Strong student C) Strong communication D) Good eyesight

Q: During the new employee orientation, the training officer meets with the new EMTs and explains to them the monthly training schedule and the classes they must attend for EMT recertification. One of the new EMTs asks the training officer why they have to keep taking EMT courses if they already passed the EMT examination. What is the best answer? A) The state requires the training. B) EMTs forget everything once they pass the EMT exam. C) It looks good to a jury should the service be sued. D) EMS is constantly evolving in response to evidence-based research.

Q: Which of the following best describes training that supplements the EMT's original training and that is usually taken in regular intervals? A) Distance education B) EMT training program C) Recertification D) Continuing education

Q: Which of the following is a personality trait required of EMTs? A) Ability to lift and carry 125 pounds B) Awareness of problems with color vision C) Ability to dominate the patient D) Control of personal habits

Q: Which of the following is a physical trait necessary for performing the duties of an EMT? A) Nonjudgmental and fair B) Ability to lift and carry 200 pounds C) Ability to speak clearly D) Ability to remain calm in stressful situations

Q: To be compassionate and empathetic, to be accurate with interviews, and to inspire confidence are all examples of which of the personal traits of a quality EMT? A) Able to listen to others B) Pleasant C) Judgmental but fair D) Emotionally stable

Q: Which of the following BEST describes a person who speaks up on behalf of the patient and supports his cause? A) Guardian B) Assistant C) Advocate D) Representative

Q: Who is responsible for on-scene safety of EMS providers? A) Traffic director B) Law enforcement C) All crew members D) Triage officer

Q: Which of the following is a component of patient advocacy? A) Immobilizing the neck of a patient with a possible spinal injury B) Granting patient wishes and not reporting spousal abuse to the authorities C) Building rapport with the patient during transport to the hospital D) Providing oxygen to a patient that is short of breath

Q: Upon arrival at the hospital, the EMT advises hospital personnel of the patient's condition, observations from the scene, treatment rendered, and other pertinent data to assure continuity of care. This process is known as which of the following? A) Transfer of care B) Breach of duty C) Definitive care D) End of tour

Q: What BEST defines the evaluation of the patient's condition in order to provide emergency care? A) Patient access B) Patient assessment C) Medical intervention D) Patient advocacy

Q: Which of the following is the primary responsibility of the EMT? A) Protect and stabilize the patient B) Communicate with other responders on the scene C) Maintain personal health and safety D) Provide emergency care

Q: What level of emergency medical training provides the most advanced pre-hospital care? A) Advanced EMT B) Emergency Medical Responder C) Emergency Medical Technician D) Paramedic

Q: What BEST describes the level of EMS training that emphasizes use of advanced airway devices and some prehospital medication administration? A) Advanced EMT B) Paramedic C) Emergency Medical Responder D) EMT

Q: What BEST describes the level of EMS training that emphasizes activation of the EMS system and provides immediate care for life-threatening problems? A) Emergency Medical Dispatcher B) Cardiac care responder C) EMT D) Emergency Medical Responder

Q: What is the minimum level of certification required of ambulance personnel responsible for direct patient care? A) Emergency Medical Technician B) Emergency Medical Responder C) Advanced EMT D) Emergency Ambulance Driver

Q: Which of the following BEST describes a communication system capable of identifying the number and location of the phone from which a caller is calling? A) Data display 911 B) Priority dispatch 911 C) Enhanced 911 D) Advanced 911

Q: Which of the following is the most common gateway for hospital services for patients who need emergency medical assistance? A) Emergency department B) Emergency medical services system C) Surgical services department D) Emergency medical dispatch center

Q: What has the modern emergency medical services (EMS) system been developed to provide? A) Prehospital care B) Prompt emergency response C) Safe emergency transportation D) Trained medical personnel

Q: Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of the modern emergency medical services (EMS) system? A) To have trained personnel respond quickly and provide emergency care on the scene, during transport, and at the hospital B) To have trained personnel capable of assessing and caring for injured and ill patients on the scene C) To have trained personnel understand the limitations of their training and "do no harm," while providing prompt transport to the hospital D) To have trained personnel knowledgeable in all aspects of prehospital care

Q: Which of the following agencies is responsible for establishing EMS system assessment programs? A) Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) B) National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) C) National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) D) United States Health Services Agency (HSA)

Q: Centralized coordination of emergency medical access, transportation, and care most refers to which of the following? A) Emergency preparedness plan B) Trauma system C) Resource management D) Central deployment

Q: In 1966 the National Highway Safety Act charged which of the following agencies with the development of emergency medical service standards? A) U.S. Department of Transportation B) U.S. Department of the Interior C) U.S. Department of Health Services D) U.S. Department of Homeland Security

Q: Which of the following groups is credited with developing the earliest documented emergency medical service? A) The Spanish B) The Egyptians C) The Mayans D) The French

Q: Which of the following refers to a program or process for evaluating and improving the effectiveness of an EMS system? A) Quality improvement B) System effectiveness management C) Process Improvement Plan (PIP) D) Total quality system

Q: What effect does FIO2 1.0 at 1 atm have on the half-life of COHb?a. reduces half-life to less than 1 hour b. reduces half -life to 2.5 hours c. reduces half-life to 7.5 hoursd. reduces hal-life to 10 hours

Q: What is the half life of COHb on FIO2 0.21 at 1 atm?a. 5 hours b. 10 hours c. 15 hoursd. 20 hours

Q: Which of the following are clinical indications for hyperbaric oxygenation?I. Acute traumatic ischemiaII. Thermal burnsIII. Clostridial infectionsIV. Carbon monoxide poisoninga. I, II, III, and IV b. IV only c. I, II, and IV onlyd. I, III, and IV only

Q: What is the leading cause of death by poisoning in the USA?a. carbon monoxide poisoning b. botulism food poisoning c. salmonella food poisoningd. arsenic posioning

Q: Which of the following are clinical goals of hyperbaric oxygen in the treatment of decompression sickness?I. Reduction in bubble sizeII. Acceleration of bubble resolutionIII. Maintaining tissue oxygenationa. I, II, and III b. I and III onlyc. III onlyd. II and III only

Q: What is the term for an abnormal collection of air in the abdominal cavity?a. pneumoperitoneum b. pneumomediastinum c. pneumothoraxd. pneumopericardium

Q: What is the most common diving-related disorder encountered by divers?a. middle ear barotrauma b. decompression sickness c. conjuctival hemorrhagesd. gastrointestinal barotrauma

Q: What is another name for the coughing and chest pain that is associated with decompression sickness?a. the chokes (pulmonary decompression sickness)b. the bendsc. squeezesd. barotrauma

Q: Which of the following can occur with decompression sickness?I. Joint painII. Chest Pain and CoughingIII. Paresthesia and ParalysisIV. Circulatory Failurea. I, II, III, and IV b. I only c. I, II, and IVd. I and IV only

Q: What is another name for lung packing?a. glossopharyngeal insufflation b. glossotracheal insufflation c. glossolaryngeal insufflationd. glossoesophageal insufflation

Q: What was the world record time established in 2008 for the longest breath hold?a. 17 minutes + b. 14 minutes + c. 10 minutes+d. 8 minutes+

Q: Which clinical condition is most commonly associated with too rapid of an ascent from a deep dive?a. decompression sickness b. pneumothorax c. pleural effusiond. pulmonary edema

Q: Which of the following influence the volume of dissolved gas that moves into a diver's tissues during a deep dive?I. Solubility of the gas in the tissuesII. The partial pressure of the gasIII. The hydrostatic pressure in the tissuea. I, II, and III b. I and II only c. II onlyd. III only

Q: What is the first line of defense against hypoxia during deep dives?a. mammalian diving reflex b. pre-dive voluntary hyperventilation c. rapid ascentd. rapid descent

Q: Which of the following occur during the mammalian diving reflex during a breath hold deep dive?I. TachycardiaII. Decreased cardiac outputIII. Lactic acid acuumulationIV. Peripheral vasoconstrictiona. II, II, and IV only b. I, II, III, and IV c. I, II and III onlyd. II and IV only

Q: What is the term for the drop in PAO2 that occurs when a breath hold diver ascends from a deep dive?a. hypoxia of ascent b. the bends c. diving responsed. decompression sickness

Q: At what point in a breath hold deep dive would the CO2-O2 paradox occur?a. CO2 paradox occurs on descent, O2 paradox occurs on ascent.b. O2 paradox occurs on descent, CO2 paradox occurs on ascentc. both occur during descentd. both occur during ascent