Q&A Hero

Q: What is the most commonly prescribed treatment for moderate OSA?a. CPAP b. surgery c. weight lossd. nasal decongestants

Q: Which of the following are symptoms of obstructive sleep apnea?I. Loud snoring, snorting, or nocturnal chokingII. Moodiness, irritability, or depressionIII. Excessive daytime sleepinessIV Sexual impotencea. I, II, III, and IV b. I and III only c. I, II, and IIId. I, II, and IV

Q: Approximately what percent of American women have obstructive sleep apnea?a. 2% b. 4% c. 6%d. 8%

Q: Which of the sleep disturbances is usually hereditary?a. narcolepsy b. transient insomnia c. PLMDd. RLS

Q: What is the term for sleep periods of excessive depth or duration?a. hypersomnia b. cataplexy c. sleep apnead. sleep paralysis

Q: What is the average duration of short term insomnia?a. 1-3 weeks b. less than 1 week c. 3-4 weeksd. 1-3 months

Q: What is the most common sleep disorder?a. insomnia b. hypersomnia c. narcolepsyd. sleep apnea

Q: Which of the following factors enhance sleep?I. Elevated body temperatureII. Frequent work shift changesIII. Caffeine ingestionIV. Moderate exercisea. IV only b. I, II, III, and IV c. II and IVd. III and IV

Q: How much sleep is required by the older adult?a. 6-8 hours per day b. 8-10 hours per day c. 10-12 hours per dayd. 12-14 hours per day

Q: What portion of an adolecent's sleep time is spent in REM?a. 20% b. 30% c. 40%d. 50%

Q: How many hours of total sleep time per day are required by most two year olds?a. 14 hours b. 12 hours c. 10 hoursd. 16 hours

Q: What percent of a newborn's total sleep time is spent in REM?a. 50% b. 40% c. 30%d. 20%

Q: What is the term for the total of all nights of lost sleep?a. sleep debt b. sleep latency c. exhaustion quotientd. sleepiness quotient

Q: At what frequency do Circadian rhythms occur?a. once about every 24 hours b. once per week c. once every 28 daysd. once every calendar month

Q: What are the primary functions of sleep?a. to restore and repair the body and conserve energyb. to hardwire memories and conserve energyc. to allow time for the medulla and pons to be passive and inactived. to allow the cerebral cortex and cerebellum to be passive and inactive

Q: In a young adult, how many awakening occur during a normal night's sleep?a. 1-2 b. 3-5 c. 5-6d. 7-9

Q: During a young adult's normal night's sleep, how many sleep cycles would occur?a. 4-6 cycles b. 1-2 cycles c. 3-5 cyclesd. 7-10 cycles

Q: What does a sleep latency of less than 5 minutes indicate?a. excessive sleepiness b. emotional stress c. illness or paind. medication overuse

Q: Which daytime diagnostic test objectively tests sleepiness by monitoring sleep latency?a. MSLT b. MWT c. PSGd. MSG

Q: What is the term for the duration of time required to fall asleep?a. sleep latency b. drowsiness c. lights out timed. sleep delay time

Q: During which sleep stage would hypnic myoclonia be most likely to occur?a. Stage N1 b. Stage N2 c. Stage N3d. REM

Q: In which sleep phase do the majority of dreams occur?a. REM sleep b. Stage 3 c. Stage 2d. Stage 1

Q: Which sleep phase is called paradoxic sleep?a. REM b. Stage 3 c. Stage 2d. Stage 1

Q: In which sleep phase does brain metabolism increase by up to 20%?a. REMb. Stage 3c. Stage 2d. Stage 1

Q: During which sleep stage are night terrors and sleepwalking most likely to occur?a. Stage N3 Deep Sleep b. Stage N3 Slow Wave Sleep c. Stage N2d. stage N1

Q: How long after the onset of Stage N1 does Stage N3 Slow Wave Sleep begin?a. 20-25 minutes b. 10-12 minutes c. 35-40 minutesd. 40-55 minutes

Q: Which sleep stage accounts for 40-50% of total sleep time?a. Stage N2 b. Stage N1 c. Stage N3d. REM

Q: Which is the average duration of Stage N1?a. 10-12 minutes b. 4-6 minutes c. 14-16 minutesd. 20-22 minutes

Q: 3Which sleep stage is the transitional stage between drowsiness and sleep?a. Stage N1 b. Stage N2 c. Stage N3d. Eyes Closed- Wake

Q: When do sawtooth waves appear?a. Eyes Open Wake and REM b. Eyes Open Closed and REM c. REM and N1d. Eyes Open Wake and N1

Q: In which sleep stage(s) would sleep spindles appear?a. N2 and N3 b. N1 c. Stage Wd. REM

Q: In which sleep stage(s) would K complexes commonly appear?a. N2 and N3 b. N1 c. Stage Wd. REM

Q: Which waves commonly appear toward the end of Stage N1?a. vertex b. delta c. sawtoothd. sleep spindles

Q: Which waves are known as deep sleep waves and are predominantly seen in Stage N3?a. delta b. beta c. thetad. alpha

Q: Which EEG waveform is called the "drowsy wave" and has a low voltage and low amplitude and is predominant in N2?a. theta b. beta c. alphad. delta

Q: Which EEG waveform is called the "relaxed wave", have a high voltage, and are often seen in the drowsy patient?a. alpha b. beta c. thetad. delta

Q: Which EEG waveform is called "busy waves" and are often seen when the patient is awake with eyes open?a. beta b. alpha c. thetad. delta

Q: In which sleep stage do alpha waves comprise more than 50% of the EEG?a. Eyes Closed -Wake b. Eyes Open-Wake c. REMd. Stage N 1

Q: Which sleep stage is characterized by beta waves with high frequency, low amplitude activity and sawtooth waves?a. Eyes Open - Wake b. Eyes Closed Wake c. N1d. N2

Q: What are the two major types of sleep?a. NREM and REM b. W and REM c. W and NREMd. Drowsy and REM

Q: Which agency offers a credentialing exam for the Sleep Disorder Specialist?a. NBRC b. AARC c. CoARCd. CAAHEP

Q: During a 6 hour sleep study period, approximately how many 30 sec epochs would be recorded?a. 720 b. 120 c. 240d. 480

Q: During a sleep study, which of the following monitors the exhaled carbon dioxide ?a. capnography b. thermistor c. co-oximeterd. oximeter

Q: During a sleep study, which of the following monitors oxygen saturation?a. oximeter b. thermistor c. co-oximeterd. ETCO2

Q: During a sleep study, which of the following monitors electrical activity of the heart?a. ECG b. EEG c. EOGd. EMG

Q: During a sleep study, which of the following monitors muscle activity?a. EMG b. EEG c. EOGd. ECG

Q: During a sleep study, which of the following monitors movements of the eyes?a. EOG b. EEG c. EMGd. ECG

Q: During a sleep study, which of the following monitors electrophysiologic changes in the brain?a. EEG b. EOG c. EMGd. ECG

Q: What term is described as "a recorded measurement of time during a sleep study of multiple physiologic variables"?a. epoch b. critical incident c. circadian cycled. time cycle

Q: What is the acronym for a sleep study?a. PSG b. SS c. SPGd. PMG

Q: How many hours of sleep a day does an average newborn require?a. 17 hours b. 20 hours c. 14 hoursd. 9 hours

Q: Which condition is described as "a state of unconsciousness from which one cannot be awakened by even the most forceful stimuli"?a. coma b. sleep c. lethargyd. deep sleep

Q: What is the term for the condition described as "a partial state of unconsciousness from which one can be awakend by stimulation"?a. sleep b. coma c. lethargyd. lassitude

Q: What is the term for the middle two-third of the kidney?a. medulla b. cortex c. calcyxd. pelvis

Q: What is the term for the outer one-third of the kidney?a. cortex b. medulla c. pelvisd. calyx

Q: Where do the ureters exit from the kidneys?a. from the hilumb. from the superior portion of the kidneysc. from the inferior portion of the kidneysd. from the posterior portion of the kidneys

Q: What is the average length and width of kidney in an adult?a. 12 cm long and 6 cm wide b. 6 cm long and 12 cm wide c. 12cm long and 3 cm wided. 6 cm long and 3 cm wide

Q: Approximately what percent of persons with chronic renal failure develop pericarditis?a. 50% b. 40% c. 20%d. 10%

Q: What percent of patients with chronic renal failure experience platelet abnormalities and bleeding disorders?a. 20% b. 40% c. 10%d. 5%

Q: How are RBC levels affected by chronic renal failure?a. Erythropoietin production is reduced and the toxic waste accumulation suppresses bone marrow's ability to produce RBCsb. The electrolyte abnormalities breakdown the RBCs and cause anemiac. The renal acidemia breaks down the RBCs and the fragments impair the bone marrow's ability to produce new RBCsd. The level of erythropoietin level is stimulated from the chronic hypoxemia so polycythemia results

Q: Which hormone is produced in the kidneys to stimulate bone marrow to produce RBCs?a. erythryopoietin b. aldosterone c. ADHd. ANP

Q: Which acid base abnormality can result from elevated plasma Cl- ion levels?a. hyperchloremic acidosis b. hyperchloremic alkalosis c. hypochloremic acidosisd. hypochloremic alkalosis

Q: How does advanced renal failure affect K+ ion and H+ ion levels?a. Both are increasedb. Both are decreasedc. K+ is decreased and H+ is increasedd. H+ is decreased and K+ is increased

Q: How does fluid sequestration impact the kidneys?a. Fluid sequestration leads to hypovolemia leading to a sharp reduction in urine output and prerenal failureb. Fluid sequestration leads to fluid retention resulting in an increase in urine output resulting in prerenal failurec. Fluid sequestration leads to an elevated BP, increases urine output, and leads to prerenal failured. Fluid sequestration leads to fluid retention causing a drop in ADH release, an increased urine output, and prerenal failure

Q: How does positive pressure ventilation affect urinary output?a. It impedes venous return which stimulates ADH release and decreases urinary outputb. It enhances venous return which stimulates ADH release and increases urinary outputc. It impedes venous return which stimulates aldosterone release and decreases urinary outputd. It enhances venous return which stimulates alsosterone release and increases urinary output

Q: What effect, if any, does negative pressure ventilation have on renal function?a. It increases urinary outputb. It decreases urinary outputc. It enhances renal calculi formationd. It increases the incidence of renal bacterial infections

Q: Which of the following are classified as postrenal abnormalities?I. Ureteral calculiII. Bladder outlet obstructionIII. Fluid sequestrationa. I and II only b. I, II, and III c. I onlyd. III only

Q: Which of the following are classified as renal conditions?I. Acute pyelonephritisII. Ureteral obstructionIII. HypovolemiaIV. Renal ischemiaa. I and IV only b. II only c. IV onlyd. III and IV only

Q: Which of the following are prerenal abnormalities?I. Prostatic hypertrophyII. Renal ischemiaIII. SepticemiaIV. Heart failurea. III and IV only b. II, III, and IV c. I and II onlyd. I, II, III, and IV

Q: What is the general term for abnormalities that impair blood flow to the kidneys?a. prerenal conditions b. renal conditions c. postrenal conditionsd. kidney stones

Q: What percent of all cancers of early childhood can be attributed to Wilms' tumors?a. 70% b. 50% c. 35%d. 15%

Q: Cancer of the kidneys accounts for what percent of all cancers?a. 1-2% b. 5% c. 8%d. 12%

Q: Which of the following can cause kidney inflammation?I. RadiationII. DrugsIII. Altered immune responsea. I, II, and IIII and III only

Q: Which of the following are predisposing factors to urinary flow obstruction?I. CalculiII. PregnancyIII. Infection and inflammationIV.Prostatic hypertrophya. I, II, III, and IV b. I and III only c. I and IV onlyd. I, III, and IV only

Q: What are the second most prevalent bacterial infections in the United States?a. urinary tract infections b. respiratory tract infections c. skin infectionsd. bone infections

Q: Approximately what percent of newborns have life-threatening renal malformations?a. 10% b. 15% c. 3%d. 6%

Q: Which acid base abnormality would be a clinical manifestation of severe renal failure?a. metabolic acidosis b. metabolic alkalosis c. respiratory acidosisd. respiratory alkalosis

Q: What is one of the earliest clinical manifestations of prerenal failure?a. a sharp reduction in urine output b. a rapid rise in urine output c. a sudden drop in K+d. a sudden retention of HCO3-

Q: How would left ventricular failure affect renal perfusion and urine output?a. Renal perfusion and urine output would decreaseb. Renal perfusion and urine output would increasec. Renal perfusion would decrease and urine output would increased. Renal perfusion would decrease but urine output would not be affected

Q: What changes occur in the renal system when the blood volume increases?a. glomerular pressure rises and the volume of utine produced would increaseb. glomerular pressure rises and the volume of urine produced would decreasec. the glomerular pressure falls and the urine production would decreased. the glomerular pressure falls and the urine production would increase