Q&A Hero

Q: Where are the stretch receptors known as volume receptors located?a. atria of the heart b. kidneys c. bladderd. carotid arteries

Q: How would the body respond to a systemic capillary pressure of 22 mm Hg?a. In response to the elevated pressure, fluid would leak into the tissue spaces lowering the blood volumeb. In response to the decreased pressure, fluid would be absorbed from the interstitial spaces to increase blood volumec. In response to the elevated pressure, fluid would be absorbed from the interstitial spaces to increase blood volumed. 22 mm Hg is the normal systemic capillary prressure so no changes in blood volume would occur

Q: What is the normal systemic capillary pressure?a. 17 mm Hg b. 35 mm Hg c. 5 mm Hgd. 25 mm Hg

Q: When the extracellular fluids become too alkaline, how do the kidneys respond?a. They excrete HCO3- into the urineb. They excrete HCO3- into the bloodc. They add PCO2 into the bloodd. They trigger the respiratory centers to hyperventilate

Q: When the pH of extracellular fluids is aciditic, how will the kidneys respond?a. They will excrete H+ into the urine.b. They will retain H+c. They will excrete more HCO3- into the urined. The kidneys have no role in H+ regulation.

Q: Which of the following are functions of the renal system in acid base balance?I. Regulate excretion of H+II. Regulate reabsorption of bicarbonate ionsIII. Regulate excretion of PCO2a. I and II only b. I, II, and III c. I onlyd. II only

Q: How are elevated levels of calcium, magnesium or phosphate ions regulated by the kidneys?a. increased levels result in decreased reabsorption and elimination into the urineb. increased levels result in increased reabsoption and stimulation of ADHc. increased levels result in increased reabsoption and stimulation of aldosteroned. increased levels result in decreased reabsorption and stimulation of the respiratory centers in the medulla

Q: What effect does an increased K+ level have on the adrenal cortex?a. stimulates increased aldosterone secretion from the adrenal cortexb. inhibits aldosterone secretion from the adrenal cortexc. stimulates increased ADH secretion from the adrenal cortexd. inhibits ADH secretion from the adrenal cortex

Q: What is the normal extracellular potassium concentration?a. 3.5 - 5 mEq/L b. 1.5 - 3 mEq/L c. 4 - 6.5 mEq/Ld. 5-7.5 mEq/L

Q: How do kidneys control an elevated sodium level in the extracellular fluid?a. by increasing the secretion of ADH and stimulating thirstb. by decreasing the secretion of ADH and stimulating thirstc. by increasing the secretion of aldosterone and stimulating thirstd. by increasing the secretion of aldosterone and decreasing the secretion of ADH

Q: Which ions account for over 90% of the positively charged ions in extracellular fluid?a. Na+ b. K+ c. Ca+d. Mg+

Q: What is the normal range for specific gravity of urine?a. 1.003 - 1.030 b. 1.030 - 1.30 c. 1.012-1.033d. 1.00 -1.002

Q: Which structures produce and release ADH?a. hypothalamus and pituitary gland b. pituitary gland and adrenal glands c. hypothalamus and adrenal glandsd. medulla and pituitary gland

Q: What substance regulates the permeability of the collecting ducts?a. ADH b. K+ c. Mg+d. phosphate

Q: What is the approximate osmolality of the juxtamedullary nephrons?a. 1200 mOsm/L b. 300 mOsm/L c. 150 mOsm/Ld. 600 mOsm/L

Q: What is the normal osmolality of glomerular filtrate?a. 300 mOsm/L b. 1200 mOsm/L c. 150 mOsm/Ld. 600 mOsm/L

Q: Approximately what percentage of the nephrons are juxtamedullary nephrons?a. 20% b. 80% c. 60%d. 10%

Q: What are the most important substances transported into the tubules by means of secretion?a. H+ and K+ b. H+ and Na+c. Na+ and K+ d. glucose and water

Q: Which substance is reabsorbed by osmosis in the proximal tubule?a. water b. glucose c. H+d. K+

Q: Which substance is reabsorbed by active transport by the proximal tubule?a. glucose b. water c. H+d. K+

Q: What portion of the urea in glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed by the blood?a. 50% b. 99% c. 100%d. <1%

Q: What percentage of the amino acids in glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed into the blood?a. 100% b. 99% c. 50%d. < 1%

Q: What is the net filtration pressure in the glomeruli?a. 10 mm Hg b. 30 mm Hg c. 55 mm Hgd. 75 mm Hg

Q: What is the average adult's urine output in an hour?a. 60 mL b. 30 mL c. 15 mLd. 90 mL

Q: On the average, how many liters of fluid are filtered by the glomeruli each day in the adult?a. 180 b. 125 c. 60d. 30

Q: What volume of fluid is filtered per minute by the glomeruli?a. 125 mL/min b. 60 mL/min c. 30 mL/mind. 15 mL/min

Q: Under normal conditions, what is the osmotic pressure of the plasma?a. 30 mm Hg b. 55 mm Hg c. 15 mm Hgd. 5 mm Hg

Q: What is the approximate hydrostatic pressure in the glomerular capillary?a. 55 mm Hg b. 15 mm Hg c. 30 mm Hgd. 5 mm Hg

Q: Where does the filtrate go after leaving the glomerular capillaries?a. Bowman's capsule b. loop of Henle c. renal pelvisd. minor calyces

Q: Where does urine formation begin?a. renal corpuscle b. renal pelvis c. collecting ductd. loop of Henle

Q: What structure is formed from the interlobar vein?a. renal vein b. arcuate vein c. interlobular veinsd. peritubular capillaries

Q: What structure is formed from the interlobular veins?a. arcuate vein b. renal vein c. peritubular capillariesd. interlobar vein

Q: Into which vessels do the efferent arterioles branch?a. peritubular capillaries b. interlobular arteries c. arcurate arteriesd. interlobar arteries

Q: Into what vessels do the interlobular arteries branch?a. afferent arterioles b. efferent arterioles c. peritubular capillariesd. arcuate arteries

Q: Into what vessels do the interlobar arteries divide at the base of the renal pyramids?a. arcuate arteries b. interlobular arteries c. afferent arteriolesd. peritubular capillaries

Q: Into what vessels does the renal artery divide?a. interlobar arteries b. interlobular arteries c. arcuate arteriesd. afferent arterioles

Q: After waste products leave the renal pelvis, what is the next structure they enter?a. ureter b. urethra c. bladderd. major calyces

Q: Into what structure does the distal convoluted tubule empty?a. collecting duct b. decsending limb of loop pf Henle c. ascending limb of loop of Henled. ureter

Q: From which structure does the descending limb of the loop of Henle originate?a. proximal convoluted tubule b. renal pyramid c. collecting ductd. peritubular capillary

Q: In which portion of the kidney are the proximal convoluted tubules located?a. cortex b. medulla c. hilumd. renal pelvis

Q: What is the approximate number of nephrons in an adult kidney?a. 1 million b. 300,000 c. 3 milliond. 100,000

Q: Which structures compose the renal corpuscle?a. glomerulus and Bowman's capsule b. glomeruls and Bachmann's capsule c. medulla and Bowman's capsuled. medulla and Bachmann's capsule

Q: Which of the following are components of the nephron?I. GlomerulusII. Papillary ductsIII. Loop of HenleIV. Distal tubulea. I, III, and IV only b. I, II, III, and IV c. I and III onlyd. III and IV only

Q: What are the functional units of the kidneys called?a. nephron b. glomerulus c. medullad. cortex

Q: What is the first subdivision of the renal pelvis called?a. major calyx b. minor calyx c. papillary ductd. renal pyramid

Q: What is the funnel shaped structure formed within the kidney from the expansion of the ureter?a. renal pelvis b. hilum c. medullad. renal papillae

Q: .What effect does late stage septic shock and decreased PCO2 have on SVR?a. Both would increase SVRb. Both would decrease SVRc. Late stage septic shock would increase SVR and decreased PCO2 would not affect SVRd. Decreased PCO2 would decrease SVR while late stage septic shock would increase SVR

Q: Which would the SVR equal (dynes x sec x cm-5) if MAP equals 90 mm Hg, CVP is 8 mmHg, and CO is 4.5 L/min?a. 1457 b. 1227 c. 1640d. 1170

Q: Which hemodynamic meausrement would be most increased when a pulmonary embolism is present?a. mean pulmonary pressure b. SVR c. PCWPd. LVSWI

Q: How is PVR affected by acidemia, hypercapnia, and alveolar hypoxia?a. They cause PVR to increaseb. They cause PVR to decreasec. Hypoxia increases PVR while acidemia and hypercapnia decrease PVRd. Acidemia and hypercapnia increase PVR while hypoxia decreases PVR

Q: Which measurement reflects the afterlaod of the right ventricle?a. PVR b. RVSWI c. SVRd. LVSWI

Q: What impact would dobutamine and dopamine have on LVSWI?a. Both would increase itb. Both would decrease itc. dobutamine would increase it while dopamine would decrease itd. dopamine would increase it while dobutamine would decrease it

Q: Which hemodynamic parameter would be most decreased when hypovolemia is present?a. CVP b. PVR c. SVRd. CVP and PVR

Q: What would the LVSWI index equal if SVI is 42 mL/beat/m2, MAP is 105 mm Hg, PCWP is 12 mm Hg?a. 53 g m/ m2 b. 42 g m/ m2 c. 73 g m/ m2d. 64g m/ m2

Q: Which hemodynamic parameter is a reflection of the contractility of the left ventricle?a. LVSWI b. cardiac output c. CId. stroke volume

Q: Which hemodynamic parameters would be decreased if a lung collapsed?I. CVPII. COIII. SVIIV. PVRa. II and III only b. I, II, III, and IV c. I and IV onlyd. I, II, and III only

Q: What effect would hypovolemia and CHF have on the RVSWI?a. Both would decrease itb. Both would increase itc. CHF would decrease it and hypovolemia would not affect itd. Hypovolemia would decrease it and CHF would increase it

Q: Which hemodynamic value reflects the amount of work required by the right ventricle to pump blood?a. RVSWI b. SV c. SVId. RAP

Q: In COPD, which hemodynamic parameter is most increased?a. mean pulmonary artery pressure b. PCWP c. SVRd. cardiac output

Q: What effect do propranolol and isoproterenol have on CI?a. Propranolol will decrease CI; isoproterenol will increase CIb. Propranolol will increase CI; isoproterenol will decrease CIc. Both will increase CId. Both will decrease CI

Q: Which hemodynamic value is derived by dividing cardiac output by BSA?a. CI b. SVI c. HRd. SV

Q: What effect would myocardial infarction and pulmonary emboli have on SVI?a. They would decrease SVIb. They would increase SVIc. MI would decrease SVI and pulmonary emboli would have no effect on SVId. Pulmonary emboli would decrease SVI and myocardial infarction would increase SVI

Q: What value is derived when SV is divided by BSA?a. SVI b. CI c. RVSWId. LVSWI

Q: Which hemodynamic parameter is most significantly impacted by CHF?a. PCWP b. CVP c. RVSWId. SVR

Q: Which of the hemodynamic parameters are most affected by cor pulmonale?a. CVP and RAP b. CO and CI c. SV and SVId. PVR and SVR

Q: What effect would epinephrine have on CI and RVSWI?a. both would increaseb. both would decreasec. CI would increase but RVSWI would decreased. CI would decrease and RVSWI would increase

Q: What effects would late stage septic shock and CHF have on SV and CO?a. The SV and CO would both decreaseb. The SV and CO would both increasec. SV would decrease but CO would increased. SV would increase but CO would decrease

Q: What effect would early septic shock and hyperthermia have on stroke volume?a. both would increase the stroke volumeb. both would decrease the stroke volumec. hyperthermia would increase the stroke volume but early septic shock would lower itd. early septic shock would increase the SV but hyperthermia would lower it

Q: Which of the following agents are considered to be negative inotropic drugs?I. PropranololII. DobutamineIII. IsoproterenolIV. Atenolola. I and IV only b. I. II, III. and IV c. I, III, and IV onlyd. I only

Q: What is "best PEEP"?a. The PEEP level that has the least hemodynamic compromise and the maximum total oxygen deliveryb. The PEEP level that has the lowest effect on PaCO2c. The PEEP level that delivers the highest PaO2 with the least hemodynamic compromised. The PEEP level that delivers the highest cardiac output

Q: What primary therapeutic effect does nitroprusside have on hemodynamic parameters?a. It lowers afterload b. It elevates afterload c. It lowers preloadd. It elevates preload and afterload

Q: If a patient has a heart rate of 70 beats/min and a cardiac output of 4.9 L/min, what would the SV equal?a. 70 mL/beat b. 0.7 L/beat c. 343 mL/beatd. 34.3 mL/beat

Q: What does CO divided by HR equal?a. SV b. SVI c. CId. SVR

Q: What is the normal adult BSA?a. 1.5 - 2 m2 b. 1.1-1.49 m2 c. 2.1-2.49 m2d. 2.5-3 m2

Q: In a healthy adult at rest, what is the normal range for SVR in dynes x sec x cm-5 ?a. 800 - 1500 b. 20-120 c. 120-500d. 500-800

Q: In a healthy adult at rest, what is the normal range for PVR in dynes x sec x cm-5 ?a. 20-120 b. 800 - 1500 c. 120-500d. 500-800

Q: In a healthy adult at rest, what is the normal range for left ventricular stroke work index ?a. 40-60 g m/m2 b. 2-19 g m/m2 c. 20-39 g m/m2d. 61-80 g m/m2

Q: In a healthy adult at rest, what is the normal range for right ventricular stroke work index ?a. 7-12 g m/m2 b. 0-7 g m/m2 c. 13 - 15 g m/m2d. 16-18 g m/m2

Q: In a healthy adult at rest, what is the normal range for cardiac index?a. 2.5-4.2 L/beat/m2 b. 0.5-2.4 mL/beat/m2 c. 4.3 - 5.8 mL/beat/m2d. 5.9-6.4 mL/beat/m2

Q: In a healthy adult at rest, what is the normal range for stroke volume index?a. 30-65 mL/beat/m2 b. 60-130 mL/beat/m2 c. 20-120 mL/beat/m2d. 40-80 mL/beat/m2