Q&A Hero

Q: In a healthy adult at rest, what is the normal range for stroke volume?a. 60-130 mL b. 30-65 mL c. 20-120 mLd. 40-60 mL

Q: Which of the following abbreviations indicate the intermittent pressure measurement obtained when a pulmonary artery catheter is advanced into the PA and the balloon on the catheter tip is inflated?I. PCWPII. PAWIII. PAOIV. PVRa. I, II, and III only b. I, II, and IV only c. I onlyd. II, III, and IV only

Q: What is the correct catheter placement to obtain the PCWP?a. pulmonary artery b. pulmonary capillaries c. right ventricled. pulmonary veins

Q: What is the normal range for cardiac output in a healthy adult at rest?a. 4-8 L/min b. 0-8 L/min c. 4-12 L/mind. 0-12 L/min

Q: What is the normal range for right atrial pressure in a healthy adult?a. 0-8 mm Hg b. 4-12 mm Hg c. 9-18 mm Hgd. 19-24 mm Hg

Q: What is the normal range for pulmonary capillary wedge pressure in a healthy adult?a. 4-12 mm Hg b. 0-8 mm Hg c. 9-18 mm Hgd. 19-24 mm Hg

Q: What is the normal range for mean pulmonary artery pressure in a healthy adult?a. 9-18 mm Hg b. 0-8 mm Hg c. 9-18 cm H2Od. 0-8 cm H2O

Q: What is the normal range for CVP in a healthy adult?a. 0-8 mm Hg b. 0-8 cm H20 c. 9-18 mm Hgd. 9-18 cm H20

Q: Which of the following can be measured directly via a pulmonary artery catheter?I. CVPII. RAPIII. PCWPIV. PVRa. I, II, and III only b. I, II, III, and IV c. I and III onlyd. II and IV only

Q: What is the term for the study of forces that influence the circulation of blood?a. hemodynamics b. hematology c. cardiologyd. pulmodynamics

Q: Which of the following is recommended to be administered via the ET tube for stable ventricular tachycardia?a. Lidocaine b. Magnesium c. Amiodaroned. Epinephrine

Q: What is the recommended range of joules used by a biphasic defibrillator for the tretament of VF?a. 120-200 b. 60-120 c. 200-240d. 240-300

Q: What is another term for "flat-line"?a. asystole b. complete AV block c. ventricular flutterd. ventricular fibrillation

Q: When the PR interval consistently exceeds 0.20 seconds in duration and the QRS rate is 60-100, which abnormality is present?a. first degree AV block b. second degree AV block c. complete AV blockd. asystole

Q: What is the name of the abnormal condition in which the bundle of His controls the ventricles at a rate of 40-60 bpm and the atrial rate exceeds the ventricular rate?a. escape junctional pacemaker b. bradycardia c. ventricular escape mechanismd. asystole

Q: Which abnormal ventricular mechanism has a QRS rate bewteen 250 and 350 bpm?a. ventricular flutter b. ventriculary tachycardia c. ventricular fibrillationd. ventricular dysrhythmia

Q: What is the term for the occurrence of three or more PVCs in a row?a. ventricular tachycardia b. trigeminy c. ventricular flutterd. ventricular fibrillation

Q: Which of the following can produce a pulseless arrest?I. AsystoleII. Ventricular tachycardiaIII. Ventricular fibrillationIV. Pulseless electrical activitya. I, II, III, and IV b. II and III only c. II, III, and IV onlyd. I, III, and IV only

Q: What is the term for the repeating ECG pattern in which two sinus beats are followed by a PVC?a. trigeminy b. bigeminy c. trisomyd. ventricular tachycardia

Q: What is the term for the occurence of two PVCs in a row?a. paired PVCs or couplets b. bigeminy c. trigeminyd. ventricular tachycardia

Q: Which ECG abnormality is characterized by the absence of a P wave, a wide bizarre QRS, followed by a T wave of opposite polarity?a. PVC b. PAC c. Sinus blockd. Atrial flutter

Q: In atrial fibrillation, what is the approximate atrial rate?a. 300-600 bpm b. 100-300 bpm c. 200-400 bpmd. 400-800 bpm

Q: In which dysrhythmias would ff waves be present?a. atrial flutter and atrial fibrillation b. PAC and atrial tachycardia c. atrial flutter and bigeminyd. bigeminy and atrial tachycardia

Q: Which abnormal atrial mechanism is associated with anxiety, excessive ingestion of caffeine or alcohol and early stages of menopause?a. atrial tachycardia b. atrial bigeminy c. atrial flutterd. atrial fibrillation

Q: Which atrial abnormality results in an atrial rate of 130-250 bpm with a normal ventricular rate?a. atrial tachycardia c. atrial flutterb. atrial bigeminy c. atrial flutterd. atrial fibrillation

Q: Which abnormal atrial mechanism is often one of the first signs of CHF?a. atrial bigeminy b. atrial tachycardia c. atrial flutterd. atrial fibrillation

Q: Which atrial abnormality is often seen in women during the third trimester of pregnancy?a. PAC b. atrial bigeminy c. atrial tachycardiad. atrial flutter

Q: Which dysrhythmia causes a P prime wave on the ECG?a. PAC b. PVC c. sinus arrestd. sinus block

Q: Which dysrhythmia is characterized by a normal P-QRS-T complex, multiple missing P-QRS-T complexes, followed by a normal P-QRS-T complex?a. sinus arrest b. sinus block c. asystoled. trigeminy

Q: What variance in RR intervals must be present to be considered sinus arrhythmia?a. more than 10% b. more than 20% c. more than 30%d. more than 40%

Q: In a resting adult, what is the term for a heart rate between 100-160 bpm?a. sinus tachycardia b. normal heart rate c. sinus arrhythmiad. atrial flutter

Q: 3In the ACLS treatment protocols for bradycardia, what are the second-line drugs recommended for the treatment of bradycardia?a. dopamine and epinephrine b. epinephrine and atropine c. dopamine and atropined. dopamine and albuterol

Q: On an ECG, what does a variation of 0.1 seconds between the longest and shortest RR intervals indicate?a. regular rhythm b. irregular rhythm c. SA blockd. atrial bigeminy

Q: If there are 9 QRS complexes found in 2 vertical 3 second marks on an ECG, what would the rate equal?a. 90 b. 45 c. 60d. 80

Q: In the adult at rest, what is the term for a heart rate less than 60 beats/min?a. bradycardia b. tachycardia c. normal heart rated. third degree heart block

Q: How is the rate determined on an ECG when the ventricular heart rate is irregular?a. Count the number of QRS complexes in a 2 vertical marks then multiply by 10b. Count the number of QRS complexes in 3 vertical marks then multiply by 10c. Count the number of QRS complexes in a 2 vertical marks then multiply by 6d. Count the number of QRS complexes in a 3 vertical marks then multiply by 6

Q: On an ECG when the ventricular heart rate is regular, the rate can be determined by counting the number of large squares between two consecutive QRS complexes thena. dividing 300 by that number of large squaresb. dividing 200 by that number of large squaresc. dividing 400 by that number of large squaresd. dividing 600 by that number of large squares

Q: What portion of the RR interval does the QT interval normal compose?a. 40% b. 20% c. 30%d. 60%

Q: Which portion of the ECG tracing represents total ventricular activity?a. QT interval b. QRS complex c. T waved. U wave

Q: Which low voltage wave may become more prominent in the presence of electrolyte disturbances, heart disease, or certain medications?a. U wave b. Y wave c. T waved. P wave

Q: Which portion of the ECG tracing represents ventricular repolarization?a. T wave b. U wave c. QRS complexd. ST interval

Q: What does a flat ST segment usually indicate?a. ischemia b. normal ECG tracing c. disconnected electroded. hyperkalemia

Q: Which portion of the ECG tracing represents the time between ventricular depolarization and repolarization?a. ST segment b. T wave c. QRS complexd. PR interval

Q: Which portion of the ECG tracing represents ventricular depolarization?a. QRS complex b. PR interval c. P waved. T wave

Q: In a healthy adult at rest, what is the normal duration of the PR Interval?a. 0.12 - 0.20 sec b. 0.04 - 0.08 sec c. 0.08 - 0.12 secd. 0.20 - 0.26 sec

Q: Which portion of an ECG tracing represents atrial depolarization?a. P wave b. QRS complex c. T waved. U wave

Q: On an ECG tracing, what is an isoelectric line called?a. segment b. complex c. waveformd. interval

Q: What is the term for two or more waveforms together on an ECG?a. complex b. interval c. segmentd. deflection

Q: On ECG paper operating at standard speed, what is the duration of the large squares?a. 0.2 seconds b. 2 seconds c. 0.04 secd. 0.4 sec

Q: What is the standard speed at which ECG systems run?a. 25 mm/sec b. 25 cm/sec c. 2.5 mm/secd. 2.5 cm/sec

Q: Which of the following are considered to be precordial leads?I. Lead I, II, IIIII. aVR, aVL, aVFIII. V1, V2, V3, V4, V5, V6a. III only b. I and II only c. I onlyd. I, II, and III

Q: What is the correct electrode placement for the modified chest lead?a. positive electrode at V1, negative electrode on left arm or shoulderb. positive electrode at V3, negative electrode on left arm or shoulderc. positive electrode at V6, negative electrode on right shoulder or armd. positive electrode at V2, negative electrode on right shoulder or arm

Q: Which health care professionals commonly obtain the ECGs in many hopsitals across the USA?a. CRTs and RRTs b. MDs and DOs c. MAsd. MLTs

Q: Of the precordial leads, which are considered to be the lateral leads?a. V5 and V6 b. V1, V2, and V3 c. V4, V5, and V6d. V3, V4, V5 and V6

Q: Of the precordial leads, which are considered to be the anterior leads?a. V1, V2, V3, and V4 b. V1, V2, and V3 c. V4, V5, and V6d. V5 and V6

Q: Of the limb leads, which contributes the least amount of information for the 12 lead ECG interpretation?a. aVR b. aVF c. aVLd. Lead III

Q: Of the limb leads, which leads are considered to be the inferior leads?a. Leads II, III, and aVF b. Leads II, III, and aVR c. Leads I, II, III and aVRd. Leads I, II, III and aVF

Q: Which limb leads are considered to be the left lateral leads?a. I and aVL b. II and aVL c. III and aVLd. Leads I, II, and avL

Q: Which leads monitor the electrical activity in the frontal plane of the heart?I. Limb leadsII. Precordial leadsIII. Modified Chest Leada. I only b. II only c. I and III onlyd. I and II only

Q: What does the "a" represent in the unipolar limb leads?a. augmentation b. attenuation c. alterationd. abatement

Q: When electrical impulses travel toward the positive electrode, what waveform would be recorded on the ECG tracing?a. positive deflection b. negative deflection c. straight lined. equiphasic deflection

Q: When electrical impulses travel away from the positive electrode, what would be recorded on the ECG tracing?a. negative deflection b. positive deflection c. straight lined. equiphasic deflection

Q: What waveform is recorded on an ECG tracing when an electrical impulse travels perpendicular to the lead axis?a. equiphasic b. positive c. negatived. sawtooth

Q: What is the name of imaginary equilateral triangle formed by the axes of the limb leads?a. Einthoven's b. Entwhistle's c. Eiserman'sd. Entemann's

Q: Which limb leads are unipolar leads?a. aVR, aVL, and aVF b. I, II, and III c. IV, V, and VId. I, II, and aVF

Q: How many electrodes are used in a 12 lead ECG?a. 10 electrodes b. 12 electrodes c. 6 electrodesd. 16 electrodes

Q: What effect does stimulation of the parasympathetic neural fibers have on the contactility and AV conduction of the heart?a. Both contractility and AV conduction would decreaseb. Both contractility and AV conduction would increasec. Contractility would increase and AV conduction would decreased. AV conduction would decrease and contractility would not be affected

Q: What effect will stimulation of sympathetic neural fibers have on heart rate and excitability?a. both will be increasedb. both will be decreasedc. heart rate will increase and excitability will decreased. heart rate will increase and excitability will be unaffected

Q: What are indications for synchronized cardioversion?I. Unstable atrial fibrillationII. Atrial flutterIII. Atrial TachycardiaIV. ventricular fibrillationa. I, II, and III only b. I, II, II, and IV only c. IV onlyd. I and III only

Q: In a healthy adult at rest, approximately how much time is required for the entire heart to depolarize?a. 0.22 seconds b. 0.02 seconds c. 2.2 secondsd. 0.002 seconds

Q: Where does the electrical impulse travel after leaving the AV bundle?a. left and right bundle branches b. bundle of His c. Purkinje fibersd. SA node

Q: Which structure transmits the electrical impulse from the SA node to the left atrium?a. Bachmann's bundle b. AV junction c. bundle of Hisd. Purkinje fibers

Q: At what point do the internodal tracts of the right atrium merge?a. AV junction b. SA junction c. Bachmann's bundled. Purkinje fibers

Q: After the electrical impulse leaves the atrioventricular junction, where does it travel next?a. bundle of His b. bundle branches c. Purkinje fibersd. Bachmann's bundle

Q: Which portion of the conductive system is considered to be the pacemaker of the heart?a. sinoatrial node b. sinoarterial node c. atrioventricular noded. arteriovalvular node

Q: Which phase of the action potential represents the nonrefractory period?a. Phase 4 b. last half of Phase 3 c. first half of Phase 3d. Phase 5

Q: Which phase of the action potential represents the relative refractory period?a. Last half of Phase 3 b. First half of Phase 3 c. Last half of Phase 4d. First half of Phase 4

Q: Which phases of the action potential represent the absolute refractory period?I. Phase 0II. Phase 1III. Phase 2IV. First half of Phase 3V. First half of Phase 4a. I, II, III, and IV only b. I, II, and III only c. IV and V onlyd. II, III, and IV only

Q: What is the term for the time in which cells cannot respond to a stimulus?a. absolute refractory period b. relative refractory period c. nonrefractory periodd. partial resistance period

Q: What is the term for the ability of cardiac muscle fibers to shorten in response to an electrical stimulus?a. contractility b. conductivity c. automaticityd. excitability