Q&A Hero

Q: While staffing an emergency services dispatch center, an Emergency Medical Dispatcher (EMD) receives a call from someone who is very upset and screaming that her friend was just shot. Which of the following would the EMD need to do in this situation? A) Determine the location of the shooter. B) Ask the caller for her phone number. C) Provide the caller with information on local hospitals. D) Notify the victim's family of the incident.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the Emergency Medical Dispatcher? A) Prioritizing calls that come in B) Providing medical direction to the responding units C) Coordinating with other public safety agencies D) Providing emergency instructions to the caller

Q: The medical acronym EMD stands for which of the following? A) Emergency Medical Director B) Emergency Medical Doctor C) Emergency Medical Driver D) Emergency Medical Dispatch

Q: Which of the following fluids is NOT checked by an EMT? A) Oil B) Coolant C) Transmission D) Hydraulic

Q: Which phase of an ambulance call is characterized by receiving a report from the off-going shift and checking the functionality of equipment? A) Preparing for the ambulance call B) Receiving and responding to a call C) Transferring the patient to the ambulance D) Terminating the call

Q: Which of the following should be checked with the vehicle engine turned off? A) Dash-mounted gauges B) Windshield wiper operation C) Warning lights D) Battery

Q: Which of the following is optional equipment? A) Flashlights B) Infant oxygen masks C) Disinfectant solution D) Lubricating jelly

Q: Which of the following is a purpose for carrying sterilized aluminum foil on an ambulance? A) To control major arterial bleeding B) To keep a newborn warm C) To care for amputated parts D) None of the above

Q: Chemical cold packs are carried on the ambulance for treatment of which of the following? A) Seizures B) Musculoskeletal injuries C) Snake bites D) Abdominal pain

Q: Which of the following is NOT essential equipment on an ambulance? A) Automatic transport ventilator B) Portable oxygen tanks C) Pediatric oxygen administration devices D) Portable suction unit

Q: Occlusive dressings must be carried on an ambulance to treat which of the following injuries? A) Amputations B) Tension pneumothorax C) Impaled object in the eye D) Open pneumothorax

Q: Which of the following is the primary reason why ambulances should have two oxygen supply systems? A) To provide oxygen to two patients at one time B) To provide oxygen to the patient in the event of vehicle breakdown C) To ensure a supply of oxygen for long-distance transports D) To have a backup system in the event of failure of the primary system

Q: Because of the extra equipment now placed on ambulances for specialty rescue, advanced life support, and hazardous materials operations, their gross vehicle weight has been easily exceeded in some communities. This has necessitated introduction of a ________ truck chassis built for rugged durability and large storage and work areas. A) Type I B) Type III C) Medium-duty D) Type II

Q: The KKK standards deal with: A) ambulance safety and design. B) minimum standard medical protocols. C) training and education of field personnel. D) air evacuation of trauma victims.

Q: The U.S. Department of Transportation has issued specifications for all of the following types of ambulances except: A) Type III. B) Type I. C) Type IV. D) Type II.

Q: Which of the following statements is true regarding helicopter transport? A) Most treatment should be done prior to loading the patient. B) Helicopter transport is relatively inexpensive. C) Patient care is seldom affected during the flight. D) Pressure changes do not affect equipment such as PASG, ET tubes, and so on.

Q: What is an appropriate-sized landing zone for a helicopter? A) 25 feet by 25 feet B) 50 feet by 50 feet C) 75 feet by 75 feet D) 100 feet by 100 feet

Q: Which of the following situations may warrant the use of helicopter transport from the scene to a medical facility? A) The distance to the medical facility is 15 minutes away. B) The patient is in cardiac arrest. C) The patient is located in a remote area. D) The patient may go into shock shortly.

Q: You have transported a patient to the emergency department and are in the process of cleaning the ambulance while your partner is completing all required paperwork. At what point is the final phase of an ambulance call complete? A) As soon as you put the stretcher back in the ambulance with a clean sheet and you notify your dispatch center you are available B) As soon as your partner completes the patient care report and you are restocking the supplies used during the call C) As soon as you get back to the station and notify your dispatch center you are in quarters D) After your partner completes all required paperwork and you have the ambulance completely cleaned and restocked

Q: When heading back to quarters, on what should you place your emphasis? A) Documentation B) Beginning to reorganize the ambulance C) A safe return D) Refueling the ambulance for the next call

Q: At which point should you complete your patient care report (PCR)? A) As soon as you are free from patient duties B) En route to the hospital C) As soon as you arrive at the hospital D) At the end of your shift

Q: Which of the following is true concerning disinfection? A) A solution of 1 part household bleach to 100 parts water is an effective disinfectant for health care purposes. B) High level disinfection destroys all sources of infection. C) A low-level disinfectant will kill germs on ambulance floors and walls. D) All of the above

Q: An EMT's BEST defense against potential legal liability is: A) purchasing medical malpractice insurance. B) documenting as little as possible on the run sheet. C) relying on Good Samaritan immunity. D) practicing excellent prehospital care.

Q: Transporting a patient to the hospital against his will could place the EMT in danger of being held liable for: A) false imprisonment. B) kidnapping. C) unlawful consent. D) assault and battery.

Q: Failure to formally transfer the patient to medical staff in the emergency department could place the EMT in danger of being held liable for: A) false imprisonment. B) unlawful consent. C) abandonment. D) patient endangerment.

Q: You have transported a stable patient with complaints of having abdominal pain for the last three weeks to the hospital. On arrival, you notice the emergency department is very busy and there are no empty beds to be found. You have attempted to get the attention of a hospital staff member to transfer the patient, but all are currently helping other patients. Your partner tells you to take the patient to the waiting room and leave him since the dispatcher of your service is holding several serious calls. What could possibly happen to you if you leave the patient in this fashion? A) Nothing; there are other people who are in need of an ambulance. B) Nothing, provided that your supervisor authorizes this action. C) You could possibly be charged with abandonment. D) You could possibly be charged with false imprisonment.

Q: Which of the following is the correct order of operations when transferring a stable patient from his or her house to the ambulance? A) Package the patient for transport, select the proper patient-carrying device, move the patient to the ambulance, and load the patient into the ambulance. B) Package the patient for transport, move the patient to the ambulance, select the proper patient-carrying device, and load the patient into the ambulance. C) Select the proper patient-carrying device, move the patient to the ambulance, package the patient for transport, and load the patient into the ambulance. D) Select the proper patient-carrying device, package the patient for transport, move the patient to the ambulance, and load the patient into the ambulance.

Q: Police escorts of ambulances driving at emergency status are typically discouraged because: A) police officers are not accustomed to driving an ambulance. B) there is no guarantee that the police officer knows where the call is located. C) drivers who pull over for the police officer often pull back in front of the ambulance. D) ambulances do not move as fast as police cruisers.

Q: When deciding whether or not to drive to the hospital with lights and siren activated for any patient, the driver should consider: A) the patient's past medical history. B) potential risks of making the patient's condition worse. C) the patient's preference for lights and siren. D) how many calls are waiting for an available ambulance.

Q: When responding to an emergency in an authorized vehicle while functioning as an EMT for an authorized emergency service, the actions you take while driving are: A) covered by your service's insurance carrier. B) subject to laws that govern all drivers. C) allowable, provided you do not exceed 15 mph above the posted speed limit. D) not likely to result in an investigation in the event of a collision.

Q: Full immobilization of a trauma patient, including placing a cervical collar and securing the patient to a backboard, should take place at which of the following points in time? A) Before moving the patient to the ambulance B) Before the primary assessment C) En route to the hospital D) After checking for cervical range of motion

Q: Which of the following transport positions is indicated for the patient in shock? A) Legs raised 8 to 12 inches B) Left lateral recumbent C) Sitting D) Recumbent

Q: A patient-carrying device should have at least ________ straps to hold the patient securely. A) 3 B) 5 C) 1 D) 2

Q: The process of combining the patient and patient-carrying device into a unit ready for moving and transporting the patient is called: A) loading. B) wrapping. C) immobilizing. D) packaging.

Q: When arriving at the location of a motor vehicle collision on an interstate highway, you should position the ambulance so that: A) there is a safe area between the damaged vehicles and traffic behind the scene. B) there is a safe area beyond the damaged vehicles. C) you are nearest to the command post for easy communications with the incident commander. D) there is a fire truck between you and oncoming traffic.

Q: You are at the scene of a vehicle collision and have found that there is one patient who is in stable condition. At this point, the call can be categorized as: A) no longer a true emergency. B) triaged. C) an unfounded call. D) a non-incident.

Q: Which of the following contributes MOST significantly to the occurrence of ambulance crashes? A) Time of day B) Size of the vehicle C) Speed of the vehicle D) Weather conditions

Q: You are responding at emergency status to a vehicle collision in your ambulance. As you approach an intersection with a red light in your direction, you approach cautiously, come to a complete stop at the intersection, ensure all other drivers can see you, and slowly ease your way through the intersection. These actions describe your abilities to: A) follow state laws regarding emergency vehicle operations. B) ensure your right to proceed through a red light due to the established emergency. C) proceed with due regard for the safety of all drivers on the road. D) predict the travel path of other drivers who have the right-of-way.

Q: Operators of emergency vehicles must drive with the safety of others in mind. This is known as driving: A) with due regard. B) defensively. C) as a public servant. D) with emergency privilege.

Q: Regarding ambulance warning devices, which of the following statements is NOT true? A) Four-way flashers should not be used as emergency lights. B) The large lights on the outermost corners of the ambulance box should blink alternately. C) In most states it is illegal to drive at night with only one headlight. D) The use of strobes is controversial.

Q: After responding to the scene of a patient complaining of difficulty breathing, you and your partner determine that the patient's condition is not life threatening based on a thorough assessment. You should transport the patient to an appropriate medical facility with: A) the emergency lights on, but without activating the siren. B) the emergency lights off, but activating the siren when traffic builds. C) both lights and siren activated. D) neither lights nor siren activated.

Q: Regarding the use of emergency sirens, which of the following is false? A) Dense shrubbery may block the sound of the siren. B) The sound of the siren may increase the patient's anxiety. C) Ambulance operators are not affected by siren noise. D) EMTs should assume that other drivers cannot hear the siren.

Q: Inexperienced drivers tend to ________ when they hear a siren approaching. A) pull to the right B) stop C) speed up D) pull to the left

Q: A study of emergency collisions demonstrated that the majority of collisions occurred A) at intersections. B) at night. C) during inclement weather. D) during turning.

Q: Most state statutes allow an emergency vehicle operator to do which of the following on emergency calls? A) Drive around lowered cross-arms at a railroad crossing B) Exceed posted speed limits if life and property are not endangered C) Be exempt from liability in the event of a collision D) Pass a stopped school bus with its red flashers on

Q: Tests have shown that ________ ambulance operators tend to speed up by 10 to 15 miles per hour when the siren is sounding. A) privately employed B) younger C) inexperienced D) experienced

Q: Safety studies have shown that drivers of other vehicles do not usually see or hear ambulances or other emergency vehicles until they are within ________ feet of it. A) 50 to 100 B) 200 to 250 C) 150 to 200 D) 100 to 150

Q: You respond to a major automobile collision involving multiple patients. Which of the following patients would receive Priority 1 transport? A) 45-year-old with no vital signs B) 6-year-old with lower leg fracture and normal vital signs C) 25-year-old with abdominal bruising and signs of shock D) 68-year-old with mild respiratory distress and seat belt burns

Q: Which of the following statements is true regarding child abuse injuries of special needs patients? A) Splash burns indicate child abuse. B) Rib fractures in young children suggest child abuse. C) Shaken baby syndrome never causes death of the infant. D) Head injuries are usually the first sign in child abuse.

Q: Which of the following is a characteristic of child abusers of special need patients? A) They rarely feel guilt or remorse. B) They usually identify with the child's pain and suffering. C) Alcohol and drug abuse is uncommon. D) They usually want the child's injuries treated.

Q: Chloe was born with a cardiac problem that she will have to manage the rest of her life. This disease is considered to be: A) acquired. B) autoimmune. C) congenital. D) genetic.

Q: A condition that interferes significantly with a person's ability to engage in activities of daily living is referred to as a: A) developmental disability. B) physical handicap. C) disability. D) special need.

Q: You are transporting a resident of a nursing home to the hospital for a complaint of abdominal pain for 3 days. During your assessment, you note a tube protruding from the patient's nose, which is connected to a bag of milky-white fluid. This tube is known as a: A) gastric tube. B) nasogastric tube. C) J-tube. D) tracheal tube.

Q: You are transporting a patient who is experiencing frequent discharges of her automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD). En route to the hospital you are caring for the patient in the back of the ambulance. To protect yourself from being shocked if the defibrillator discharges, you should: A) wear protective gloves that cannot conduct electricity. B) make sure you do not touch the patient directly. C) limit direct contact with the patient. D) not worry, since the defibrillator does not pose a danger to others.

Q: Where are automatic implanted cardiac defibrillators typically placed in patients who require one? A) In the upper left chest B) In the upper right chest C) In the lower left chest D) In the lower right chest

Q: To determine the appropriate depth an EMT should insert a catheter tip into a tracheostomy tube in order to clear a blocked airway, the EMT should: A) measure from the stoma to the carina. B) measure against the length of the obturator. C) insert the catheter until the tip is no longer visible. D) multiply the internal diameter of the tracheal tube by 10.

Q: Compare the pain a patient experiences when receiving a shock from a pacemaker against the pain felt when receiving a shock from an automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD). A) Pacemakers are painless and AICDs are painful. B) Both are painful. C) Pacemakers are painful and AICDs are painless. D) Both are painless.

Q: A patient uses a home ventilator connected to his tracheostomy tube to breathe. Which of the following is the correct procedure to use when moving this patient to the ambulance? A) Ventilate the patient's tracheostomy tube via a connected bag-valve mask at a normal rate and volume while the patient is disconnected from the ventilator. B) Do nothing; there is no need to ventilate the patient between the house and the ambulance. C) Ventilate the patient with mouth-to-mask ventilations at a normal rate and volume while the patient is disconnected from the ventilator. D) Ventilate the patient's nose and mouth with a bag-valve mask at a normal rate and volume while the patient is disconnected from the ventilator.

Q: Which of the following is the correct position to use when transporting a patient who has a tracheostomy tube? A) Shock position B) Prone C) Head slightly elevated D) Supine

Q: Assessing blood pressure on a patient with an AV shunt, fistula, or graft could lead to which of the following? A) Inaccurate blood pressure readings B) Uncontrollable hemorrhage in the extremity C) Damage to the AV shunt, fistula, or graft, requiring surgery D) Nothing, as there is no need to avoid assessing blood pressure in a patient's arm with an AV fistula, shunt, or graft.

Q: Which of the following is the main advantage of peritoneal dialysis over hemodialysis? A) Peritoneal dialysis is much faster. B) Peritoneal dialysis is more effective. C) Peritoneal dialysis is likely to be done at the patient's home. D) Peritoneal dialysis is less prone to infection.

Q: During transport, where should the catheter bag be after loading the patient and stretcher into the ambulance if the patient has an indwelling urinary catheter? A) In the patient's lap, but not higher than his heart B) On the ambulance floor C) Hanging from the ceiling of the ambulance or IV pole higher than the patient D) Lower than the patient, but not on the floor

Q: During a power failure, how should the EMT verify adequate ventilations are being administered to an unresponsive patient with a tracheostomy tube using a bag-valve mask? A) Observe for improving skin color. B) Ensure a good connection between the bag-valve mask and the tracheostomy tube. C) Observe for chest rise and fall. D) All of the above

Q: While ventilating a conscious patient's tracheostomy tube with a connected bag-valve mask, the EMT should verify the patient's comfort level for which of the following? A) Ventilation volume B) Ventilation pressure C) Ventilation rate D) All of the above

Q: Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the EMT to take when caring for a patient with an AICD who goes into cardiac arrest? A) The AED should be applied and used, but CPR should not be started while on-scene or transporting the patient. B) No action beyond transport is required since the patient already has an implanted defibrillator. C) CPR and an AED should be used as indicated while on-scene and transporting the patient. D) CPR should be started, but the AED should not be used while on-scene or transporting the patient.

Q: While transporting a patient who has an indwelling Foley catheter, it is important to keep the collection bag: A) higher than the level of the patient. B) level with the patient. C) lower than the level of the patient. D) with the patient's caregiver.

Q: Which of the following situations are frequently problematic for patients who have tracheostomy tubes? A) Tracheal tears B) Mucus buildup C) Air embolism D) Tube malplacement

Q: You are on the scene of a pediatric patient who is on a specialized home monitoring system. This situation was not specifically addressed in your EMT class and your EMT partner has not encountered this situation, either. What is an advisable course of action? A) Ask the parent or caregiver what has been done in the past to correct the situation. B) Load the patient and rapidly transport the patient to the closest hospital for evaluation. C) Contact medical control and ask to speak to a specialist for advice. D) Request an advanced life support ambulance crew to respond for assistance.

Q: When preparing to move a patient that is using a specialty medical device from his house to the ambulance, which of the following questions would be appropriate to ask the family? A) What worked best for moving the patient the last time he was transported by ambulance? B) How do you normally move the patient? C) Can you carry the patient to the ambulance since you know the best way to move the patient? D) Both A and B are correct.

Q: While on the scene of an emergency call involving a patient who is dependent upon a medical device for survival, the EMT can ask which of the following individuals about the specifics of the device? A) Patient's family B) Patient C) Patient's home health aide or nurse D) All of the above

Q: At which of the following locations is an EMT likely to encounter a patient using an advanced medical device? A) Nursing home B) Specialty care center C) Private residence D) All of the above

Q: Which of the following groups of people makes up the largest portion of the homeless population? A) Females B) Veterans C) Children D) Families

Q: When transporting a patient who is morbidly obese to the hospital, it is important to monitor which of the following vital signs? A) Pulse rate B) Oxygen saturation C) Blood pressure D) Blood glucose level

Q: A body mass index (BMI) above ________ is considered obese. A) 25 B) 30 C) 35 D) 40

Q: Jarl is a male who is 5 foot 7 inches tall and weighs 250 pounds. What is Jarl's body mass index (rounded to the nearest tenth)? A) 35.2 B) 36.5 C) 38.4 D) 39.1

Q: Which of the following serious health problems is related to homelessness? A) Liver disease B) Heart disease C) Tuberculosis D) Hypertension

Q: Obesity increases the risk for which of the following health problems? A) Liver disease B) Type 2 diabetes C) Respiratory problems D) All of the above

Q: Which of the following is the easiest way for an EMT to communicate with a patient with drastic hearing loss? A) Slow down your speech so that the patient can read your lips. B) Write your questions using paper and pen. C) Use a TDD/TYY telephone. D) Speak loudly and directly into the patient's ear.

Q: Which of the following BEST describes the origins of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? A) Acquired disease B) Congenital disease C) Either a congenital or acquired disease D) Neither a congenital nor acquired disease

Q: Which of the following BEST describes a disease such as deafness? A) Acquired disease B) Congenital disease C) Either a congenital or acquired disease D) Neither a congenital nor acquired disease