Q&A Hero

Q: What is the space between the true vocal cords called?a. rima glottidis b. vestibule c. valleculad. choana

Q: Which of the laryngeal cartilages are paired?I. CuneiformII. ArytenoidIII. CorniculateIV. Cricoida. I, II, and III only b. I, II, III, and IV c. I, II, and IV onlyd. II, III, and IV only

Q: Which laryngeal cartilage is shaped like a signet ring and forms a large portion of the posterior laryngeal wall?a. cricoid b. cuneiform c. corniculated. epiglottis

Q: Which laryngeal cartilage is primarily responsible for preventing food, liquids, and foreign bodies from entering the lower airways?a. epiglottis b. thyroid c. cricoidd. corniculate

Q: To what structure does the upper portion of the thyroid cartilage attach by a membrane?a. hyoid bone b. tongue c. epiglottisd. mandible

Q: Which of the cartilages of the larynx are unpaired?a. thyroid, epiglottis, and cricoidb. thyroid, cricoid, and cuneiformc. artyenoid, cuneiform, and corniculated. thyroid, epiglottis, and arytenoid

Q: Which of the following are functions of the larynx?I. Passageway for gasII. Protects against aspirationIII. Generation of sounds for speechIV.Warming and filtration of inspired gasa. I, II, and III only b. I and II only c. I and III onlyd. I, III, and IV only

Q: Which structure extends from the base of the tongue to the upper end of the trachea?a. larynx b. laryngopharynx c. thyroid glandd. rima glottidis

Q: What is a common site for misplacement of endotracheal tubes during emergency intubation?a. esophagus b. left mainstem bronchus c. stomachd. left upper lobar bronchus

Q: Which type of epithelium lines the laryngopharynx?a. stratified squamous b. pseudostratified squamous c. pseudostratified ciliated columnard. cuboidal

Q: What structure is located between the glossoepiglottic folds in the posterior oropharynx?a. vallecula epiglottica b. lingual tonsils c. palatine tonsilsd. rima glottidis

Q: What type of epithelium is found in the oropharynx?a. stratified squamous b. pseudostratified squamous c. pseudostratified ciliated columnard. cuboidal

Q: Which structure extends from the soft palate to the base of the tongue?a. oropharynx b. nasopharynx c. laryngopharynxd. uvula

Q: What is the most frequent cause of hearing loss in young children?a. otitis media b. sinusitis c. tonsillitisd. pharyngitis

Q: What is another name for the pharyngotympanic tubes?a. auditory b. adenoids c. fauciald. conchae

Q: What is another name for pharyngeal tonsils?a. adenoids b. palatine tonsils c. lingual tonsilsd. faucial tonsils

Q: Which epithelium is present in the nasopharynx?a. pseudostratified ciliated columnar b. cuboidal c. stratified squamousd. pseudostratified squamous

Q: Which structure extends from the posterior nares to the superior portion of the soft palate?a. nasopharynx b. oropharynx c. tongued. palatine tonsils

Q: What is another name for the palatine tonsils?a. faucial b. pharyngeal c. linguald. adenoids

Q: To what structure is the uvula attached?a. soft palate b. hard palate c. palatopharyngeal archd. palatoglossal arch

Q: Which epithelium lines the oral cavity?a. stratified squamous b. cuboidal c. pseudostraified ciliated columnard. pseudostratified squamous

Q: What is the name of the structure that secures the tongue to the floor of the mouth?a. lingual frenulum b. extrinsic lingual muscles c. instrinsic lingual musclesd. uvula

Q: In the oral cavity, what is the term for the space between the teeth and lips?a. vestibule b. vallecula c. vibrissaed. ventricle

Q: Which of the following can cause sinusitis?I. Upper respiratory infectionII. Dental infectionIII. Air travelIV. Scuba divinga. I, II, III, and IV b. I and II only c. I, II, and III onlyd. I, II, and IV only

Q: Approximately what portion of the sense of taste is reliant upon the sense of smell?a. 80% b. 60% c. 40%d. 20%

Q: Among pediatric patients, in which age range is epistaxis most prevalent?a. 2-10 years b. newborn -2 years c. 8-16 yearsd. 10-14 years

Q: What effect, if any, would be expected from the topical application of phenylephrine on the nasal mucosa?a. vasoconstriction b. vasodilation c. bronchospasmd. no known effect

Q: Which of the following sinuses are considered to be paranasal sinuses?I. MaxillaryII. FrontalIII. EthmoidIV. Sphenoida. I. II. III, and IV b. I, II, and III only c. I. III, and IV onlyd. I and II only

Q: Where is the olfactory region located in the nasal cavity?a. superior and middle turbinates b. middle and inferior turbinates c. choanad. vestibule

Q: What is another term for conchae?a. turbinates b. choana c. vestibuled. alae

Q: What type of epithelium is present in the posterior two-thirds of the nasal cavity?a. pseudostratified ciliated columnar b. cuboidal c. stratified squamousd. pseudostratified squamous

Q: In which structure would vibrissae normally be found?a. nasal cavity b. oropharynx c. laryngopharynxd. trachea

Q: What type of epithelium lines the anterior third of the nasal cavity?a. stratified squamousb. pseudostratified ciliated squamousc. pseudostratified ciliated columnard. cuboidal

Q: What is the term for the openings created by the alae nasi and septal cartilage?a. nares b. glottis c. vestibuled. choana

Q: Which structures form the posterior section of the floor of the nasal cavity?I. Nasal bonesII. Cribriform plate of the ethmoid boneIII. Palatine process of maxillaIV. Superior portion of soft palatea. IV only b. III and IV only c. II, III, and IV onlyd. 1, II, III only

Q: Which of the following structures form the anterior nasal septum?I. Septal cartilageII. VomerIII. Perpendicular plate of ethmoid boneIV. Frontal process of maxillaa. I only b. I and II only c. II, III, and IV onlyd. I, II, and III only

Q: What is the term for widening of the nostrils that can occur during respiratory distress?a. nasal flaring b. alar collapse c. retractionsd. grunting

Q: Which structure form the lower two-thirds of the nose?I. Lateral nasal cartilageII. Lesser and greater alar cartilagesIII. Septal cartilageIV. Fibrous fatty tissuea. I, II, III, and IV b. I, II, and III only c. I, II, and IV onlyd. I. III, and IV only

Q: Which structures form the upper third of the nose?I. Nasal bonesII. Frontal process of maxillaIII. Lateral nasal cartilageIV. Greater alar cartilagea. I and II only b. I , II, and III only c. I. II, and IV onlyd. I, II, III, and IV

Q: Which of the following are functions of the upper airway?I. Conduction of gas to lower airwayII. Prevent foreign materials from entering lower airwayIII. Warm, filter, and humdify inspired gasIV. Aid in speech and smella. I, II, III, and IV b. I, II, and III only c. I, III, and IV onlyd. I, II, and IV only

Q: Which of the following is NOT a primary function of the nose?a. conduct gas and food to lower airwayb. humidfy inspired gasc. filter the inspired gasd. warm the inspired gas

Q: Which of the following are primary components of the upper airway?a. nose, oral cavity, pharynxb. larynx, trachea, and bronchic. nose, oral cavity, larynx and trachead. nose, oral cavity, pharynx, larynx, and trachea

Q: What percentage of Schizophrenic clients abuse drugs? a. 32% b. 39% c. 42% d. 47%

Q: L-alpha-acetylmethadol or LAAM has properties similar to methadone, yet only needs to be administered three times per week.

Q: Topamax and Campral may be helpful in reducing craving and days of abstinence for those who drink.

Q: Antabuse is better used with a steady drinking patient, while ReVia is better to use with a patient who binges.

Q: The painful feeling of withdrawal involves an increase in dopamine 3 receptor sites seeking dopamine.

Q: Typically those seeking arousal use drugs that increase arousal like cocaine and stimulants.

Q: Behavioral activities themselves can produce chemical changes in the brain similar to those produced by exogenous drugs.

Q: A co-occurring, or dual occurring exists when those with an Axis I or II disorder abuse chemicals.

Q: Once obtaining history, determining the nature and use of substance abuse is easy.

Q: As many as 83% of those with a Personality Disorder may abuse drugs.

Q: Sixty-one percent of those with a Bipolar diagnosis typically abuse chemicals.

Q: Historically, ________ has been used to calm anxious, impulsive patients: a. Buspar b. Wellbutrin c. Neurontin d. all of these

Q: Typically, SSRIs are used for which of the following cluster(s)? a. Cluster "a" only b. Cluster "b" only c. Clusters "a" and "b" d. Clusters "b" and "c"

Q: Cluster "a" symptoms include: a. Impulsive, depressive, angry and labile symptoms. b. Paranoid, eccentric, thought disordered, dissociative. c. Anxious, inhibited, and avoidant. d. Fussy, demanding, neurotic symptoms.

Q: What percentage of personality disorders may have a genetic factor? a. 40-60% b. 50-70% c. 60-80% d. none of these

Q: Which of the following was found in the literature to be contributing factors in impulsive and violent behaviors? a. head trauma b. toxic substances c. low serotonin levels d. all of the above

Q: Which of the following is not a typical therapeutic approach used in the treatment of personality disorders: a. psychodynamic b. cognitive c. dialectical d. REBT

Q: What percentage of the general population have personality disorders? a. 3-5% b. 7-9% c. 10-23% d. 24-27%

Q: Neuroimaging studies have demonstrated differences in the frontal lobe functioning of patients with schizotypal personality disorder.

Q: Antipsychotic medications may be needed to treat the symptoms of patients in "cluster A."

Q: In patients demonstrating the "cluster B" symptoms, the use of antidepressants like the SSRIs are often helpful.

Q: There are currently eight medications that are FDA approved for treating personality disorders.

Q: Current research suggests that biological factors may account for about 40-60% of all cases.

Q: Current research and evidence suggests that personality disorders are a biopsychosocial entity caused by complex interactions of psychosocial and biological factors.

Q: Experts once believed that the use of medications in the treatment of personality disorders interfered with psychotherapy.

Q: Approximately 7% of the general population have a personality disorder.

Q: Which of the following, while sedating, may actually interfere with sleep cycles in the short run? a. antidepressants b. benzodiazepines c. Imidazopyridine d. barbiturates

Q: Which does not belong with the others: a. Halcion b. ProSom c. Restoril d. Ambien

Q: Narcolepsy is typically treated with stimulants and often ________. a. Prozac b. Ambien c. Provigil/ Nuvigil d. Risperdol

Q: Sleepwalking and night terror are typically seen in approximately what percentage of the child population. a. 10% b. 15% c. 18% d. 22%

Q: A mask-like devise is used by patients with OSA. It is called a ______ machine. a. splint b. CPAP c. EEG d. none of these

Q: We spend about ____% of our sleep time in stages three and four. a. 10 b. 15 c. 25 d. none of these

Q: In the study mentioned in the text, what percentage of the patients with middle of the night insomnia also reported daytime fatigue? a. 34% b. 39% c. 43% d. 67%

Q: For patients with only occasional problems with sleep, they should consider: a. warm milk b. an OTC sleep aide like Tylenol PM or Sominex c. Benedryl d. any of the above

Q: A typical dose of Restoril would be about: a. 2 mg. b. 7.5 mg. c. 25 mg. d. 50mg.

Q: Which of the following is not considered a benzodiazepine: a. Doral b. Klonopin c. ProSom d. Sonata

Q: GHB or Xyrem has been shown to improve sleep cycles.

Q: Long-term usage of melatonin may worsen a patient's depression.