Medicine

Q: Good history taking includes information on the patient's presenting problem, family history, psychometric/treatment history, diagnostic assessment, and proposed treatment plan.

Q: Discontinuing most psychotropic medications, like antidepressants, may result in: a. death b. seizures c. blood disorders d. flu like symptoms

Q: Tolerance usually leads a client to: a. decrease the amount of a drug that is used/abused. b. stop using/abusing the drug. c. increase the amount of a drug used/abused. d. change to a different drug.

Q: In reading the following prescription in a medical record-Xanax .5 mg b.i.d. or p.r.n would mean: a. Xanax .5 mg with food as needed. b. Xanax .5 mg three times per day or before bedtime. c. Xanax .5 mg twice a day or before meals. d. Xanax .5 mg twice a day or as needed.

Q: Placebo effects are actually: a. not noticed with most medications b. The mind playing tricks on the patient c. Real physiologic changes to the brain and body. d. None of the above

Q: When one drug significantly enhances the action of another, this is known as: a. potentiation b. maximization c. synergism d. interaction

Q: All of the following are symptoms of drug withdrawal except: a. euphoria b. insomnia c. tremors d. seizures

Q: Introducing a higher level of a medication to obtain a desired response is known as: a. depot binding b. loading dose c. vital dose d. titrating dose

Q: Therapeutic index refers to: a. The difference between half-life and therapeutic ranges. b. The difference between side effects levels and toxicity. c. The difference between a drug's desired concentration and toxicity. d. The difference between effectiveness of two like medications.

Q: Half-life refers to: a. The average time required to eliminate one half of the drug's concentration. b. The amount of time needed to eliminate the entire drug from the body. c. The amount of time needed to notice the drug's effectiveness. d. None of the above.

Q: Routes of drug administration include all of the following except: a. oral b. Intravenous c. intranasal d. intercerebal

Q: t.i.d. stands for "twice a day."

Q: P.R.N. is a Latin abbreviation for "as needed."

Q: Synergism refers to the effect that happens when one drug cancels the other drug out.

Q: Geriatric patients and others with decreased liver enzyme activity may require lower doses of medications to avoid toxicity.

Q: Drug protein binding may hinder a drug's metabolism and cause the drug to remain longer in the circulatory system.

Q: Some gastrointestinal diseases and treatments interfere with drug absorption.

Q: Absorption of most oral medication takes place in the small intestine.

Q: Some medications like Haldol and Risperdol Consta are available as an IM preparation.

Q: Intranasal was one of the mentioned routes of administration.

Q: Pharmacodynamics is the study of how drugs affect receptor sites, send signals, and cause neurochemical changes.

Q: There were eight routes of administration discussed in this chapter.

Q: Zyprexa is available as an orally dissolving tablet.

Q: Excessive amounts of ________ may be implicated in mania. a. serotonin b. norepinephrine c. GABA d. dopamine

Q: Excessive amounts of ________ may be implicated in psychosis. a. serotonin b. norepinephrine c. GABA d. dopamine

Q: Which two of the following appear to play a major role in learning and attention? a. serotonin and dopamine b. norepinephrine and dopamine c. norepinephrine and serotonin d. GABA and acetylcholine

Q: GABA is the body's main inhibitory neurotransmitter substance, and ___________ is the excitatory substance. a. tryptophan b. calcium phosphate c. glutamate d. none of these

Q: Chronic gambling has been shown to be successfully reduced with which of the following medications? a. Anti-psychotics b. Benzos c. Neltrexone d. None of these

Q: Dietary sources of tyrosine include all of the following except: a. meat b. fish c. tofu d.. wheat

Q: Which type or school of psychotherapy has been found to be especially helpful for pain management patients. a. Psychodynamic b. Cognitive-behavioral c. Rational Emotive d. Person-centered

Q: Tyrosine is the amino acid precursor substance that is needed to produce: a. Tylenol b. serotonin c. dopamine d. GABA

Q: Research on comorbid pathology suggests that as many as ____ % of patients with bulimia also have a personality disorder. a. 40 b. 50 c. 60 d. none of these

Q: When a cell is at its resting state, the resting potential is about: a. -70 mV b. 70mV c. 170 mV d. -140 mV

Q: Patients with BED or Binge-eating Disorder tend to respond well to: a. TCAs b. SSRIs c. anti-obesity medications d. All of the above

Q: G proteins are also known as: a. monoamines b. secondary messengers c. indolamines d. peptides

Q: While the use of medication in anorexia patients has had less than promising results, the use of ___________ has been shown some success in stimulating weight and reducing concerns about size and shape. a. Nardil b. Ativan c. Wellbutrin d. Zyprexa

Q: The physical space between neurons is called: a. the intracellular space b. the extracellular space c. the cytoplasm d. the synapse

Q: All of the following have been used to treat Anorexia Nervosa except: a. antipsychotics b. benzodiazepines c. lithium d. zinc

Q: Exogenous substances include all of the following except: a. vitamins b. minerals c. herbs d. hormones

Q: It is estimated that about ____% of eating disorder patients also have a history of depression. a. 15-20% b. 29-30% c. 50-75% d. none of these

Q: Which of these is the correct progression of events. a. Action potential, exocytosis, re-uptake. b. Exocytosis, action potential, re-uptake. c. Re-uptake, action potential, exocytosis. d. None of these.

Q: The use of medications that increase both serotonin and norepinephrine are typically more effective than the medications that enhance serotonin alone.

Q: Which of the following are found in the soma? a. Terminal button and axon. b. The dendrites and the terminal buttons c. The axon and the dendrites d. The nucleus and the mitochondria.

Q: Medications tend to play more of a significant role in the maintenance/ weight restored phase of treatment.

Q: Which of the following does not fit with the others? a. norepinephrine b. dopa-decarboxylase c. serotonin d. L-dopa

Q: SSRIs work equally well for anorexic and bulimic patients.

Q: For exocytosis to occur _______ causes the docked neurotransmitter pods to release their contents: a. calcium b. MAO c. dopamine d. all of these

Q: Elavil, Effexor and Neurontin are commonly used in pain management.

Q: The body's main inhibitory neurotransmitter/neuromodulator is: a. glutamate b. L-dopa c. GABA d. tryptophan

Q: Roughly 25% of cancer and stroke patients also experience depression.

Q: A drug of a substance that facilitates the effects of a particular neurotransmitter on the post-synaptic cell is known as a/an: a. antagonist b. agonist c. G protein d. none of these

Q: It is estimated that nearly 20% of those with an eating disorder also have a history for depression.

Q: Monosodium glutamate or MSG is often found in Chinese food.

Q: There is a two-fold increase in the risk of having a depressive or anxiety disorder when the patient also has another physical illness/disease such as cancer, diabetes or HIV.

Q: Drugs that increase the availability or action of a neurotransmitter in called an antagonist.

Q: Which of the following class of medications appears to offer some hope to those with sexual addictions? a. MAOIs b. SSRIs c. Tricyclics d. Benzodiazepines

Q: G proteins are so called because they bind guanine nucleotides.

Q: Which of the following antidepressants has been approved for cigarette smoking cessation? a. Paxil b. Cymbalta c. Pristiq d. Bupropion

Q: Cells are often bombarded by many signals both excitatory and inhibitory.

Q: All of the following dopamine agonists have been used in cocaine treatment except: a. Ibogain b. Bromocriptine c. Amantadine d. Mazindol

Q: We usually refer to the resting potential as -140 mV.

Q: "Ultra rapid detox" involves which of the following medications? a. methadone b. LAAM c. ReVia d. naloxone

Q: The most common ions found in the extracellular spaces are sodium and chloride ions.

Q: Buprenorphine or Subutex is used in opioid withdrawal and has which major advantage? a. Only given once per week b. Has no withdrawal upon discontinuance c. Its agonist effects diminish at higher doses. d. Both a and b.

Q: The soma or cell body contains the vital parts of the cell including the nucleus, the mitochondria and the cytoplasm.

Q: LAAM is a longer acting analog methadone that need only be administered: a. Once per week b. Twice per week c. Three times per week d. Four times per week

Q: When the cell fires, or experiences an action potential, neurotransmitter substance is released from the dendrite.

Q: The typical daily dose of methadone for a patient on maintenance is about: a. 10-20 mg. b. 15-35 mg. c. 50-70 mg. d. none of these

Q: The synapse is the physical space between neurons.

Q: Acamprosate is known to inhibit _______. a. GABA b. dopamine c. glutamate d. serotonin

Q: There are three basic parts of a neuron.

Q: Antabuse or disulfiram is usually given to patients who are: a. study drinkers b. binge drinkers c. both aand b d. neither a nor b

Q: Within cells this communication is electrical and between cells it is chemical.

Q: Naltrexone or ReVia is usually given daily at _____ mg. a. 25 b. 50 c. 75 d. none of these

Q: Cells within the central nervous system communicate both electrically and chemically.

Q: The typical daily dose of disulfiram is about: a. 125-250 mg b. 100-175 mg. c. 50-75 mg. d. 10-15 mg.

Q: Exogenous substances include caffeine, vitamins, and herbs.

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