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Q:
What does cross-training through job rotation accomplish in a health information services department?
Q:
What was the intent of Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (as amended) and the affirmative action initiatives that followed?
Q:
The National Labor Relations Act prohibits employers from engaging in which specific unfair labor practices?
Q:
What is the primary purpose of a progressive preventive disciplinary process?
Q:
What is the name of this form?
Name: ____________________________Title: ____________________________ 1) Ensures audits are consistent with internal audit standards.
Performed Below Expectation
Performed As Expected
Performed Above Expectation Comments/Recommendations: 2) Ensures audits are timely.
Performed Below Expectation
Performed As Expected
Performed Above Expectation Comments/Recommendations: 3) Ensures audits are useful to clients.
Performed Below Expectation
Performed As Expected
Performed Above Expectation Comments/Recommendations: 4) Sets appropriate audit priorities.
Performed Below Expectation
Performed As Expected
Performed Above Expectation Comments/Recommendations: 5) Responds appropriately to changing conditions in the department and the medical center.
Performed Below Expectation
Performed As Expected
Performed Above Expectation Comments/Recommendations: 6) Interacts with and reports to clients in a consultative manner.
Performed Below Expectation
Performed As Expected
Performed Above Expectation Comments/Recommendations: 7) Nurtures high- performing team.
Performed Below Expectation
Performed As Expected
Performed Above Expectation Comments/Recommendations: 8) Encourages employees to take responsibility for their actions.
Performed Below Expectation
Performed As Expected
Performed Above Expectation Comments/Recommendations: 9) Supports employees to strive to get better at what they do.
Performed Below Expectation
Performed As Expected
Performed Above Expectation Comments/Recommendations: 10) Provides an environment that encourages motivation.
Performed Below Expectation
Performed As Expected
Performed Above Expectation Comments/Recommendations: 11) Utilizes resources efficiently.
Performed Below Expectation
Performed As Expected
Performed Above Expectation Comments/Recommendations: 12) Uses the appropriate business practices.
Performed Below Expectation
Performed As Expected
Performed Above Expectation Comments/Recommendations: OVERALL RATING
Performed Below Expectation
Performed As Expected
Performed Above Expectation Evaluated by: _________________ Title: __________________
Date: ________________
Q:
Referring to the illustration below, what is the name for this human resource planning tool?
Q:
Referring to the illustration below, what is the name for this human resource planning tool?
Date Compiled: _____________
Q:
Which of the following contains a written summary of the work to be done?
a. Job description
b. Job specification
c. Job context
d. Job ranking
Q:
When an employee refuses to follow a direct order from a supervisor, this is a direct challenge of management's right to run a health care organization. This is considered to be
a. Misconduct.
b. Poor performance.
c. Insubordination.
d. Delinquency.
Q:
When a HIM manager is using a systematic process to gather and analyze information to describe data analytic jobs, she is using
a. Strategic analysis.
b. Job evaluation.
c. Job analysis.
d. Pay structure.
Q:
A method of interviewing that ensures each interview presents exactly the same questions in the same order is a
a. Structured interview.
b. Stress interview.
c. Group interview.
d. Behavioral interview.
Q:
Which of the following is an example of disparate treatment?
a. Members of a protected group are subject to stricter attendance rules.
b. A neutral staffing practice results in discrimination against protected groups.
c. Height restrictions are set for all security guards.
d. All employees are required to take an intelligence test.
Q:
HR strategies must align with
a. Organizational strategic thinking.
b. Organizational characteristics and capabilities.
c. Both organizational strategies and the external environment.
d. Organizational tactics and a strategic lens.
Q:
Which of the following is the main goal of training?
a. Improvement in performance
b. Enrichment and more capable workers
c. Neither a nor b
d. Both a and b
Q:
Employee assistance programs (EAPs) typically deal with which of the following?
a. Alcohol and/or alcohol abuse
b. Compulsive gambling
c. Eating disorders
d. All of the above
Q:
When dealing with a poorly performing employee, a HIM manager should
a. Immediately fire the employee.
b. Refer the problem to HR.
c. Ignore the poor performance and give the employee another opportunity to succeed.
d. Begin a progressive discipline process with the employee.
Q:
Which of the following is allowed under the Family and Medical Leave Act?
a. Time off to care for an ill/elderly parent
b. Birth of a child
c. Adoption of a child
d. All of these
Q:
The 2009 Act named for Lilly Ledbetter € a retired Goodyear Tire employee € addresses which of the following issues in the workplace?
a. Equal treatment under the law
b. The statute of limitations for filing a discrimination claim under the Equal Pay Act
c. Racial and religious freedoms
d. All of these
Q:
A manager's right to require or prohibit certain actions refers to his or her
a. Authority.
b. Responsibility.
c. Power.
d. Charisma.
Q:
Which of the following are potential outcomes of a job analysis?
a. Eliminating obsolete or irrelevant job requirements
b. Providing data useful for fair compensation management
c. Identifying key employee selection criteria
d. All of the above
Q:
Which of the following BEST describes the main objective of supervisory coaching for career development?
a. To justify the transfer out of employees who just don't "fit in" the unit
b. To demonstrate that the supervisor genuinely cares about the feelings of employees
c. To assist the employee in forming realistic plans for career growth and mobility within the organization
d. To ensure that the most productive employees are retained within the unit
Q:
Of the following activities in implementing an effective in-service training program, which one should be completed first?
a. Obtain budget approval for the resources required to cover the costs of the training.
b. Conduct a formal needs assessment to determine skill, knowledge, and other deficiencies.
c. Predict regulatory, technological, and other environmental changes that should be addressed in the curriculum.
d. Establish a schedule for offering the training to accommodate the continuous workload.
Q:
Which of the following legislative acts is associated with defining and protecting employees' pension rights and other employee benefits?
a. National Labor Relations Act
b. Family and Medical Leave Act
c. Employee Retirement Income Security Act
d. Civil Rights Act of 1991
Q:
Which of the following legislative acts is associated with the concepts of reasonable accommodation and determining essential functions of the job?
a. Americans with Disabilities Act
b. Occupational Safety and Health Act
c. Title VII, Civil Rights Act
d. National Labor Relations Act
Q:
Which of the following leadership styles identified in the Blake-Mouton Leadership Grid is most appropriate when the input of followers is critical to implementing the leader's decision AND the stakes and risks associated with the decision are high?
a. Organization man management
b. Authority obedience
c. Country club
d. Team management
Q:
All the following statements are true of effective employee recruitment EXCEPT
a. Recruitment targets should be based on human resource supply and demand analysis.
b. The most cost-effective form of recruitment for any health care position is local newspaper advertisement.
c. Recruitment should be evaluated for its costs and benefits like any other human resources management function.
d. Yield analysis is one quantitative method of evaluating the relative effectiveness of various recruitment activities.
Q:
Which of the following justify the importance of employee retention as a critical management strategy?
a. The high costs of recruitment, selection, and training a new employee
b. The instability caused by high employee turnover
c. The potential adverse effects on quality of care
d. All of the above
Q:
Which of the following situations is the best example of disparate treatment?
a. A white woman with superior qualifications is hired over an African American male with marginal qualifications.
b. A female employee whose qualifications exceed all requirements for a higher-level position is promoted over a male colleague who satisfies those requirements.
c. Hispanic applicants tend to score lower than Asian Americans on a cognitive skills test written in English.
d. Female applicants are asked questions in the screening interview about child care arrangements, and male applicants are not.
Q:
Which of the following statements about the principle of progressive discipline is true?
a. Progressive discipline ensures that the punishment will fit the crime.
b. Progressive discipline suggests that the most lenient response to a disciplinary infraction should be applied.
c. Progressive discipline entails a structured process of increasingly adverse managerial responses to recurring violations of organizational policy or guidelines of employee conduct.
d. Progressive discipline should be implemented quite loosely depending on the leadership style and personality of the immediate supervisor.
Q:
Which of these functions is typically not a responsibility of human resource management?
a. Collective bargaining
b. Physician credentialing
c. Employee handbooks
d. Employee training and development
Q:
All the following fall under provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act EXCEPT
a. Overtime pay.
b. Child labor.
c. Collective bargaining.
d. Working hours.
Q:
Effective diversity management
a. Suppresses all conflicts based on racial or ethnic tensions.
b. Insures that the number of employees in the workplace are equally balanced in terms of gender, race, disability status, and sexual orientation.
c. Provides a culture in which employees and clients accept and value individual differences.
d. All of the above.
Q:
The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970, the Vocational Rehabilitation Act of 1972, and the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 are all examples of federal legislation designed to
a. Ban smoking in the workplace.
b. Ban discrimination on the basis of race, creed, or ethnic group.
c. Protect workers from sexual harassment.
d. Keep the workplace safe and accessible to workers.
Q:
The visionary, motivational, and charismatic aspects of leadership are conveyed by the term
a. Translational.
b. Transformational.
c. Transactional.
d. Traditional.
Q:
Which describes job performance standards?
a. Are the same for each position in the health information services department
b. Require a human resource professional to develop and administer
c. Must be included in the job description to be valid
d. Are related directly to the job requirements established through job analysis
Q:
Which statement best describes the concept of equal employment opportunity?
a. Equal employment opportunity is the process of promoting protected groups to achieve a balance in the workforce and correct past discriminatory practices.
b. Equal employment opportunity ensures that women have an equal chance for hiring and promotion with men.
c. Equal employment opportunity is giving all people a fair chance to succeed without discrimination that is based on factors unrelated to job performance such as sex, age, race, religion, or national origin.
d. The existence of equal employment opportunity legislation has eliminated racial discrimination and stereotyping in the workplace.
Q:
Which of the following values is NOT considered to be among the core standards for ethical behavior in health care?
a. Fairness
b. Doing good
c. Nonmaleficence
d. Generosity
Q:
A patient is claiming negligence for a fall in the hospital that resulted in a fracture of the elbow. It is not likely this patient can claim negligence unless there was evidence that the provider breached a duty.
Q:
Age of majority indicates the number of years one must be to be considered an adult under state law.
Q:
A properly executed authorization to release alcohol-related treatment information must include a description of the information to be disclosed.
Q:
Interrogatories are often a part of the pretrial discovery process.
Q:
The patient record is typically admitted into evidence as an exception to the hearsay rule.
Q:
All authorizations to release alcohol-related treatment information must include the purpose of the disclosure.
Q:
Health information can be admitted to a court proceeding as a business record.
Q:
The risk of refusing a procedure or treatment should be included in an informed consent for treatment.
Q:
A health professional has breached an implied contractual duty when he or she fails to report events required by law (such as industrial accidents, abortions, cancer cases, communicable diseases, and vital statistics) when required for his or her position.
Q:
The Patient Self-Determination Act requires that health care organizations inquire whether patients have advance directives.
Q:
The confidentiality of alcohol and drug abuse records is largely determined by state legislation.
Q:
A breach of contractual duty may possibly occur when a physician discloses health information to a close long-time friend of a patient without the patient's authorization.
Q:
By use of incident reports, nursing staff repeatedly report a physician for yelling at patients and their families. This action by the nurses may be grounds for the physician to claim that his good name is damaged or defamed.
Q:
When a health care provider divulges confidential information from a patient's record to an improper recipient without the patient's permission, a breach of confidentiality and breach of duty has occurred.
Q:
Persons who violate the patient's right to release his/her health information to another provider can be held liable.
Q:
When a surgeon promises there is no chance of disfigurement resulting from plastic surgery and disfigurement happens, a breach of guarantee has occurred.
Q:
A tort action is likely for an unconsented surgical procedure.
Q:
The doctrine of charitable immunity was repealed as a result of the Darling v. Charleston Community Memorial Hospital decision by the Illinois Supreme Court.
Q:
Once a paper-based health record has been converted onto microfilm, optical disk, or computerized storage, the information cannot be used as evidence.
Q:
Health information management professionals and their employers have a legal duty to maintain health information on the facility's patients.
Q:
Because patients volunteer information to their care providers, care providers cannot be found guilty of invasion of privacy.
Q:
In litigation, the bailiff is in charge of deciding what laws are applicable to the case.
Q:
In deciding malpractice cases against physicians in highly technical cases, the jury uses the standard of the "reasonable man."
Q:
In a malpractice action against a hospital, the hospital is the defendant.
Q:
If an order to appear in court and to bring patient records with you is defective because some key information is missing, the subpoena can be ignored.
Q:
When an adult patient is temporarily incapacitated (e.g., unconscious or extremely intoxicated), the family can have complete access to the patient's health record.
Q:
When a nursing home patient is transferred to the hospital for surgery on a broken hip sustained in a fall, the informed consent for surgery is implied in the nursing home transfer.
Q:
In setting facility policies for patient access to their health information, name the two most important sources of law that the health information management (HIM) professional should consult.
Q:
When a health information management professional receives a subpoena duces tecum, believes the order is defective in some way and the facility decides to contest the validity of that order, what sort of motion would be filed by the facility's legal counsel? _________________________
Q:
A _________________________ is a court order requiring someone to come before the court with certain records or documents.
Q:
Minors who are married, living away from home, responsible for their own support, and who the law recognizes as being able to make their own decisions and agreements are generally called ____________________.
Q:
A legal document requiring someone to come before the court and testify is called a ____________________.
Q:
The U.S. Bill of Rights is a source of ____________________ law.
Q:
An employee of health information services disclosed protected health information to a media representative disguised as a medical resident. Do you agree that the employer can be held liable for this event under the doctrine of respondeat superior in this situation? a.
Yes b.
No
Q:
Assume that at a medical malpractice trial alleging that a sponge was left in a surgical site, exactly 50% of the evidence favors the defendant surgeon, and 50% favors the plaintiff. Would you agree that the plaintiff is more likely to win the case because of the doctrine of res ipsa loquitur? a.
Yes b.
No
Q:
(Quotation marks indicate statements made while testifying.) An example of hearsay testimony is
a. "I counted the sponges before the surgeon closed the wound."
b. "The nurse told me the sponge count was correct."
c. "I saw the nurse count the sponges."
d. "The usual procedure is to count the sponges before closing the incision."
Q:
Which of the following could be categorized as a health care operations use of the medical record for which authorization by the patient is generally not required?
a. Investigation of a patient complaint by the manager of the department involved
b. Review of documentation by the facility's professional liability insurer
c. Review of the record by the patient's attorney
d. Both a and b
Q:
The principle of stare decisis is used in a judicial decision when
a. Children are involved.
b. Societal values have changed.
c. Statutory law applies to the situation.
d. The facts of the case are similar to a case that has been decided previously.
Q:
A business associate of a health care provider is a
a. Member of the covered entity's workforce.
b. Patient of the provider.
c. Volunteer who works in the surgery waiting room.
d. Company that performs a function on behalf of the provider that involves the use or disclosure of PHI.
Q:
Which is a practical criterion for determining whether information is confidential or nonconfidential?
a. Was the information exchanged through a patient-provider relationship?
b. Was the information needed to treat or diagnose the patient?
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
Q:
Certain protected health information can be disclosed to law enforcement personnel without the patient's authorization. Which of the following can be disclosed?
a. Investigating a suspicious death
b. Reporting child abuse and neglect
c. Reporting gunshot wounds
d. All of the above
Q:
Which health care organization(s) is bound by the provisions of the Privacy Act of 1974?
a. Indian Health Service facilities
b. State-owned behavioral health facility
c. Veterans Administration hospital
d. Both a and c
Q:
All of the following are considered advance directives except
a. Durable power of attorney.
b. Durable power of attorney for health care.
c. Living will.
d. Health care declaration.