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Q:
The purpose of the Notice of Privacy Practices is
1) For patients/policy holders to sign to give the covered entity permission to use and disclose their health information.
2) To communicate to patients/policy holders how covered entities will use and disclose their health information.
3) To inform patients/policy holders about their rights concerning their health information.
4) To tell patients/policy holders to whom and how they can complain when they think their rights have been abused.
a. All of the above
b. 1, 2, and 3
c. 2, 3, and 4
d. 2 and 3
Q:
Identify the portions of the medical record that may be subject to disclosure for treatment and payment.
a. All of the above
b. 1 and 2
c. 3
Q:
The purpose of the concept of the designated record set is for a covered entity to
Q:
In a given situation, it is determined that the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Regulations preempted another law. This means that the law that applies to the situation is
a. HIPAA Privacy Regulations.
b. The other law.
c. Neither HIPAA nor the other law.
d. Both HIPAA and the other law.
Q:
Which one of the following is not considered a covered entity under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act?
a. Sue's Medical Billing Service: Sue works out of her home and processes the bills for the physicians in her town.
b. Radiologist who contracts with a lawyer to interpret x-ray films for the lawyers' cases
c. The human resource department of Widget Manufacturing, which manages the employees' health care benefits; Widget Manufacturing is self-insured for the employees' health care benefits.
d. Paramedics of a rural fire department
Q:
An authorization that complies with the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act includes
a. Identification of the information to be disclosed.
b. The purpose for the disclosure.
c. The specification that the authorization is subject to revocation.
d. All of the above.
Q:
Which of the following is never considered confidential?
a. Peer review records
b. Incident reports
c. Credentialing files
d. Policies and procedures about access and disclosure of health information
Q:
Negligence action(s) include(s)
a. Assault and battery.
b. Corporate negligence.
c. Malpractice.
d. Both b and c.
Q:
Tort action(s) include(s)
a. Defamation.
b. Misrepresentation.
c. Invasion of privacy.
d. All of the above.
Q:
Dr. Snow failed to apply the standards of skill, learning, and care expected of physicians in good standing when treating his patient, Mr. Rocky States. What is the legal term for this act of omission or commission?
a. Res ipsa loquitur
b. Respondeat superior
c. Assault and battery
d. Malpractice
Q:
The statute of limitations refers to which one of these choices?
a. Those who practice direct health care
b. All licensed physicians
c. The time during which a lawsuit may be initiated
d. The time required for the retention of health records
Q:
Assume that an employee of a hospital's health information management department inappropriately releases confidential information to a patient's employer. The patient decides to sue for breach of confidentiality. All the following parties could be held liable for this breach except the
a. Patient's employer.
b. Employee.
c. Supervisors/managers of employee.
d. Hospital.
Q:
Which Act imposed new obligations on health care facilities to provide medical screening examinations on patients before transferring them to other facilities?
a. ARRA
b. EMTALA
c. FOIA
d. HIPAA
Q:
Referring to the scenario below, would you agree that the defendant is more likely to win this case because the doctrine of res ipsa loquitur probably does NOT apply here?
Assume that at a medical malpractice trial alleging postoperative infection, exactly 50% of the evidence favors the plaintiff, and 50% of the evidence favors the defendant physician and hospital. Among the defendant's evidence is some indication that the patient did not comply with postoperative care instructions, including taking antibiotics to fight infection. a.
Yes b.
No
Q:
Which is a basic element of negligence?
a. Duty
b. Breach of duty
c. Proximate cause
d. All of the above
Q:
Laws that give patients the right to access their own health information include all except
a. Confidentiality of Alcohol and Drug Abuse Patient Records.
b. Federal Privacy Act.
c. Freedom of Information Act.
d. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.
Q:
Which management input would be relevant in devising a health care facility's policy on release of health information to the media?
a. Facility legal counsel
b. Risk manager
c. Communications director or media relations manager
d. All of the above
Q:
Public health focuses on what society can do to assure healthy conditions for its citizens and concentrates on populations, not individuals.
Q:
As eligible health professionals and hospitals adopt, implement, and upgrade their EHR systems through the CMS EHR Incentive programs (Meaningful Use programs), there is an opportunity for public health agencies (PHAs) to receive health data routinely from settings other than emergency departments and urgent care centers.
Q:
HEDIS reporting combines reference data from the CDC with HEDIS data.
Q:
Clinical and public health practices can be harmonized when clinical EHR systems can automatically report certain data to authorized public health entities.
Q:
Because of agreed-upon public health measures throughout the world, international travel is no longer a reason for infectious diseases to spread.
Q:
Prevention measures such as vaccines have contributed to the decrease in infectious diseases.
Q:
The Public Health Services Act (PHSA) of 1944 was the original public health agency in the United States
Q:
Stage Two of Meaningful Use for Public Health requires public health agencies to be able to receive patient-identified data based on syndromic surveillance rules and send alerts to health care providers about public health events.
Q:
If we understood more about the causes of injuries, more could be done to prevent them.
Q:
Assuring and supporting healthy pregnancies is considered a core public health activity.
Q:
Public health provides both direct clinical services and community services.
Q:
Stage One of Meaningful Use for Public Health requires that an eligible professional successfully submit one test submission for each of these three types of data: lab data, syndromic surveillance data, and immunization data.
Q:
Mexico has more current cases of tuberculosis than the United States.
Q:
Adolescents (ages 13-15) need a booster of Tdap (tetanus-diphtheria-acellular pertussis)
Q:
Eradicating tuberculosis is an example of a _____________________goal.
Q:
To achieve public health goals and to demonstrate these goals have or are being met, public health does not need
a. Data management systems that meet local needs to collect, analyze, and monitor standardized baseline data systematically.
b. One statewide vendor to assure continuity among various entities.
c. A fully integrated, secure computer network.
d. Linkage between local and statewide data bases in both private and public sectors.
Q:
The National Electronic Disease Surveillance System (NEDSS) is a conduit for
a. Using data standards to facilitate timely, secure reporting of data.
b. Public health agencies to report disease data to the CDC.
c. Exchanging information to support the national disease surveillance system.
d. All of the above.
Q:
What CDC publication can you access to find out public health information from individual states?
a. Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report
b. Healthy People 2020
c. Onehealthport.com
d. Preventing Chronic Disease (E-journal)
Q:
Which one of the following is not a public health obligation?
a. Prevent epidemics and the spread of disease.
b. Prevent injuries.
c. Promote and encourage healthy behaviors and mental health.
d. Assure everyone has access to Obamacare.
Q:
The Healthy People 2020 goal for tobacco use for adolescents in grades 9€12 is to reduce this risk behavior from 26% to
a. 25%.
b. 23%.
c. 21%.
d. 19%.
Q:
In 2009, the average length of hospital inpatient stay for an injury was
a. 3.5 days.
b. 4.3 days.
c. 4.8 days.
d. 5.1 days.
Q:
HIM professionals can contribute to improving prevention of injuries by
a. Advocating for the required use of external use of injury coding in all hospitals and emergency departments.
b. Adding injury data to their facility's syndromic surveillance reporting.
c. Becoming knowledgeable about Joint Commission publications on external injury data.
d. Both a and c.
Q:
In 2010, how many work-related assaults required a visit to an emergency department?
a. 50,407
b. 123,102
c. 137,400
d. 143,200
Q:
Injuries and violence are the leading cause of death for individuals aged
a. 1€30 years
b. 1€44 years
c. 25€44 years
d. 45€70 years
Q:
What disease does coronavirus cause?
a. Ebola
b. Rubella
c. MERS
d. SARS
Q:
Public health officials need excellent health information systems to be able to
a. Track policy outcome measures.
b. Provide advice to individual doctors on how to treat certain diseases.
c. Lobby Congress for funding.
d. None of the above.
Q:
One Health Port services in Washington State include(s)
a. Standard mapping for the continuity of care document.
b. Physician orders for controlled substances.
c. Eligibility verifications.
d. Both a and c.
Q:
An example of public health population-based data is
a. All school-age children with the diagnosis of Hansen's disease.
b. All licensed drivers over the age of 65.
c. All deaths occurring in an acute care hospital within specified time frames.
d. All of the above.
Q:
In 2009, what injury became the leading cause of external injury deaths?
a. Automobile accidents
b. Skiing accidents
c. Drug poisonings
d. Alcohol poisonings
Q:
A HIM professional in a hospital would be supporting implementation of a syndromic surveillance system when he
a. Presents the public health benefits to the Chairman of the Medical Record Committee in preparation for a scheduled monthly meeting.
b. Works with the hospital's CIO to research and develop a secure methodology to identify and transmit de-identified hospital-specific coded health care data to the public health authority.
c. Educates ER, outpatient, and hospital HIM coders about the critical nature of syndromic surveillance.
d. All of the above.
Q:
The Healthcare Effectiveness Data and Information Set report card system aggregates data across health care plans and produces a report entitled
a. The Quality Chasm.
b. Healthy People 2020.
c. State of Health Care Quality.
d. Use Case Examples for Health Information Exchange.
Q:
This entity/group collects data about facilities that supply health care and the services rendered in the United States.
a. National Health Interview Survey
b. National Health Care Survey
c. National Center for Health Statistics
d. National Public Health Network
Q:
Which one of the following is not a core public health function?
a. Assessment
b. EHR development
c. Policy development
d. Assurance
Q:
Of the U.S. states near the Mexico border, which had the highest number of reported cases of tuberculosis (2010)?
a. Texas
b. Arizona
c. California
d. New Mexico
Q:
The top leading current cause of death in the United States as of 2007 is
a. Influenza and pneumonia.
b. Heart disease.
c. Cerebrovascular.
d. Malignant neoplasms.
Q:
The top leading cause of death in the United States in 1900 was
a. Pneumonia/influenza.
b. Heart attack.
c. Cancer.
d. Childbirth.
Q:
Females age 13-15 are encouraged to get the HPV vaccine. The target for HPV in Healthy People 2020 is 80%. The current reported level (2008) is approximately
a. 10-15%.
b. 21-25%.
c. 16-20%.
d. 26-30%.
Q:
Healthy People 2020 is sponsored by
a. NCQA.
b. CDC.
c. AHRQ.
d. ONC.
Q:
Senior citizens who die of an injury are most likely to die from
a. Motor vehicle/traffic accident.
b. Firearm.
c. Poisoning.
d. Fall.
Q:
Which age group is currently most likely to die from accidents?
a. 1-24 years of age
b. 25-44 years of age
c. 45-64 years of age
d. 65 and over
Q:
Management of data incorporates governance over architecture, analysis, design, security, quality management, and data management warehousing.
Q:
The Certified Health Data Analyst (CHDA) is a newly created credential offered by the American Cancer Society.
Q:
Federal law requires the reporting of implant problems to the Food and Drug Administration when there is a probability a device has caused a death, serious illness, or injury.
Q:
The registration and tracking of implantable medical devices by manufacturers is mandated by law.
Q:
The International Classification of Diseases for Oncology, 3rd edition (ICD-O-3) is published by the World Health Organization (WHO).
Q:
The International Classification of Diseases for Oncology, 3rd edition (ICD-O-3) serves as the basis for developing reportable cases for registry eligibility in a hospital cancer program.
Q:
The establishment of statewide cancer registries in states where population-based registries did not exist was a result of federal legislation.
Q:
The United Network for Organ Sharing (UNOS) has administered the contract for the nation€s only Organ Procurement and Transplantation Network (OPTN) since 1986.
Q:
The Surveillance, Epidemiology, and End Results (SEER) program was federally mandated.
Q:
Approved cancer programs are required to publish and distribute an annual report.
Q:
The primary goal of a hospital-based cancer registry is the improvement of care to the cancer patient.
Q:
Registries are established for different purposes and respond to different regulating bodies.
Q:
The HIM professional can participate in a variety of public health research roles including
a. Data collector.
b. Project manager.
c. Data analyst.
d. All of the above.
Q:
The major benefits of implementing an electronic death registration system include all of the following except
a. Greater efficiency and timeliness of death registration.
b. Higher quality of data with real-time edits.
c. Increased security and fraud prevention.
d. Less collaboration among providers and death registration users.
Q:
The major difference between a registry and a surveillance system is
a. A registry collects population-based data for each case, while a surveillance system may or may not collect population-based data.
b. A registry may or may not collect population-based data, while a surveillance system only collects population-based data.
c. Both a registry and a surveillance system collect only population-based data.
d. Both b and c.
Q:
Data analyses are dealing with the process of
a. Inspecting data to make sure data are appropriate.
b. Cleaning data to make sure data can be used accurately.
c. Transforming data to make sure data can be analyzed for appropriate format.
d. Modeling data to generalize useful results.
e. All of the above.
Q:
Big data are characterized with Velocity, Volume, and Variety. Velocity is talking about
a. Collecting real-time data to capture live streaming events and moments with speed or frequency of data generation.
b. A large amount of data from patient care.
c. Data structured in different formats with multiple applications.
d. Both b and c.
Q:
When health care organizations compare their organizations€ patient safety and quality indicators against peer organizations that are known for their excellence, they are using which of the following tools?
a. Benchmarking
b. Decision Support
c. Administrative Analysis
d. Consumer Assessment of Health Providers & Systems Survey (CAHPS)
Q:
Identify the function that is NOT common to all registries.
a. Case definition and eligibility criteria
b. Abstracting and entering specified data elements into a database
c. Staging of the disease process and periodic follow-up for ACS approval
d. Data reporting for use by agencies, the scientific community, and the public
Q:
Which of the following lead agencies has the primary responsibility to improve quality, safety, efficiency, and effectiveness by collecting data on published Patient Quality and Patient Safety Indicators?
a. The Leapfrog Group
b. Agency for Health Care Research and Quality
c. Texas Medical Foundation Health Quality Institute
d. Health Grades
Q:
The selection of a data element should meet which of the following criteria?
a. Can be reused in a different system if it has a different definition
b. Should be obtainable in the normal work process
c. Must be unique and clearly definable
d. Should be used to make decisions important to the organization
Q:
Identify which one of the following is NOT a core public health function.
a. Assessment and monitoring of the health of communities and populations at risk
b. Formulation of public policies designed to solve identified local and national health problems and priorities
c. Assurance that all populations have access to appropriate and cost-effective care, including health promotion and disease prevention services
d. Oversight of transplant, death, cancer, trauma, and immunization national registries
Q:
Which of the following registries would report information on the national health objectives set for the Healthy People 2020?
a. Cancer registries
b. Trauma registries
c. Immunization registries
d. Diabetes registries