Accounting
Anthropology
Archaeology
Art History
Banking
Biology & Life Science
Business
Business Communication
Business Development
Business Ethics
Business Law
Chemistry
Communication
Computer Science
Counseling
Criminal Law
Curriculum & Instruction
Design
Earth Science
Economic
Education
Engineering
Finance
History & Theory
Humanities
Human Resource
International Business
Investments & Securities
Journalism
Law
Management
Marketing
Medicine
Medicine & Health Science
Nursing
Philosophy
Physic
Psychology
Real Estate
Science
Social Science
Sociology
Special Education
Speech
Visual Arts
Medicine
Q:
When a public health issue, such as an Escherichia coli outbreak from contaminated food, makes the news, what organization is responsible for investigating and minimizing such threats to society?
a. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services
b. Agency for Health Care Research and Quality
c. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
d. Health Resources and Services Administration
Q:
Which one of the following is mandated by law for hospitals to operate?
a. Certification
b. Accreditation
c. Registration
d. Licensure
Q:
To which entity is the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services responsible?
a. Office of Management and Budget
b. Department of Health and Human Services
c. American Hospital Association
d. Office of Inspector General
Q:
Which one of the following is the mechanism by which a health care organization is recognized as having met the Conditions of Participation because it is accredited by the Joint Commission?
a. Deemed status
b. Licensure
c. Reciprocity
d. Participant certified
Q:
An epidemic of viral infection in the United States would most likely be reported and tracked by the
a. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services.
b. Agency for Health Care Research and Quality.
c. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
d. Health Resources and Services Administration.
Q:
In the federal government, which is a major research center composed of numerous departments, such as the National Institute on Aging and the National Center for Nursing Research?
a. Food and Drug Administration
b. National Institutes of Health
c. Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration
d. Institute of Medicine
Q:
Which Department of Health and Human Services agency was established by Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act in 1989 for supporting scientific research?
a. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
b. Social Security Administration
c. Agency for Health Care Research and Quality
d. Health Resources and Services Administration
Q:
Which federal branch of the government is charged with the health and welfare of the U.S. people, including numerous regulatory programs?
a. Department of Health and Human Services
b. Department of Defense
c. Department of Justice
d. Institute of Medicine
Q:
What did the Tax Equity and Fiscal Responsibility Act of 1982 mandate?
a. The Medicaid program
b. The prospective payment system
c. Managed care services
d. Conditions of Participation
Q:
Where are the Conditions of Participation regulations that govern the Medicare Program printed?
a. AHA Guide to the Health Care Field
b. Comprehensive Accreditation Manual for Hospitals
c. Federal Register
d. Medicare Handbook
Q:
Which one of the following organizations is currently responsible for the accreditation of health care organizations?
a. American Health Association
b. Commission on Accreditation for Health Informatics and Information Management Education
c. Department of Health and Human Services
d. Joint Commission
Q:
Which publication communicates the goals and objectives for promoting health and preventing disease in the United States?
a. Conditions of Participation
b. Medicare Handbook
c. Healthy People: 2010
d. Flexner Report
Q:
Each of the following has been an influential factor in how health care has been delivered in the United States except
a. Increasing cost of health care.
b. Growing geriatric population.
c. Advances in technology.
d. Demand for jobs by health professionals.
Q:
Which amendment to the Social Security Act of 1935 established the Medicare program?
a. Hill-Burton Act
b. Health Insurance for the Aged Act
c. Kerr-Mills Medical Assistance Program
d. Tax Equity and Fiscal Responsibility Act
Q:
Which one of the following was the impetus for the accreditation of medical schools initiated by the American Medical Association?
a. Flexner Report
b. Papyri documents
c. Hippocratic oath
d. Hospital standardization program
Q:
Which organization was responsible for establishing the hospital standardization program in the early 1900s?
a. American College of Surgeons
b. American Medical Association
c. American Osteopathic Association
d. Joint Commission
Q:
Which officer in a health care organization is primarily responsible for its fiscal
integrity?
a. COO
b. CFO
c. CEO
d. CIO
Q:
The CEO is employed by and is directly responsible to the
a. Governing body.
b. Joint conference committee.
c. Medical staff organization.
d. Executive committee.
Q:
The full legal authority in a hospital rests with which organization entity?
a. CEO
b. Governing body
c. Medical staff
d. Executive committee
Q:
Which one of the following departments is considered to be an ancillary department in the hospital organization?
a. Clinical laboratory services
b. Dietary services
c. Nursing services
d. Social services
Q:
Which one of the following medical staff committees would negotiate with the governing board regarding the purchase of an expensive piece of equipment?
a. Utilization review
b. Credentials
c. Joint conference
d. Planning and finance committee
Q:
In which of the following is permission granted to practitioners by the governing board to provide well-defined patient care services?
a. Medical staff membership
b. Board certification
c. Licensure
d. Clinical privilege
Q:
Which one of the following statements describes the primary objective of the medical staff?
a. Minimize risk of medical malpractice.
b. Maintain proper standards of medical care.
c. Develop policies regarding performance improvement.
d. Contain costs for providing medical care.
Q:
Of the following health care practitioners, which one is least likely to be eligible for medical staff membership?
a. Podiatrist
b. Doctor of osteopathy
c. Nurse midwife
d. Dietetic technician
Q:
Which one of the following officers in a health care organization manages the financial, administrative, and clinical information systems of the hospital?
a. CEO
b. COO
c. CFO
d. CIO
Q:
Which one of the following officers in a health care organization is responsible for developing a strategic plan for supporting the mission and goals of the organization?
a. CEO
b. COO
c. CFO
d. CIO
Q:
Which one of the following officers in a health care organization serves as a liaison between the medical staff and the governing board?
a. CEO
b. COO
c. CFO
d. CIO
Q:
All the following activities are a legitimate function of a hospital governing board except
a. Delineation of clinical privileges.
b. Financial stability of organization.
c. Appointment of the president of the medical staff.
d. Legal responsibility for the care provided.
Q:
Which one of the following legislative acts led to a rapid increase in the construction of new hospitals, purchase of equipment, and renovation of existing hospitals?
a. Hill-Burton Act
b. Tax Equity and Fiscal Responsibility Act
c. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act
d. Patient Self-Determination Act
Q:
Which one of the following statements is true about the organization of community hospital governing boards?
a. The membership is composed of employees who are empowered to conduct business on behalf of other employees.
b. Members are salaried individuals who have a legal responsibility for the quality of care.
c. The membership is composed of a diverse group, each of whom has a skill that is of value to the function of the board.
d. The membership is composed largely of individuals who have a medical background.
Q:
In addition to psychiatric care, what is the primary focus of health care in a psychiatric facility?
a. Clinical laboratory and pathology services
b. Restorative and adjustive services
c. Psychological and social services
d. Occupational and rehabilitative services
Q:
How would a facility be classified by the American Hospital Association if the length of stay for its inpatients averaged 4.8 days?
a. Long-term care
b. Acute care
c. Tertiary care
d. Trauma care
Q:
Which one of the following is most likely to be a state-financed health care facility?
a. Public health service hospital
b. Long-term psychiatric institution
c. District hospital
d. Veterans Administration hospital
Q:
How would the ownership of a community hospital be classified by the American Hospital Association?
a. Local, government-owned
b. Voluntary, for-profit
c. Voluntary, not-for-profit
d. Investor-owned
Q:
Which type of health insurance program would a retired army general be eligible for?
a. Tricare
b. Medicaid
c. CHAMPUS
d. Merchant Seaman Health Care
Q:
Which classification of hospitals is organized for profit according to the American Hospital Association?
a. State owned
b. Federally owned
c. Proprietary
d. Voluntary
Q:
Name a few features of new technologies that have the potential for generating major political change.
Q:
What is citizen journalism? How is it different from traditional journalism?
Q:
What are some possible negative consequences of media fragmentation and specialization?
Q:
What is the objectivity norm? Where did it come from and what is the justification for it? What are some of the news content related consequences of the objectivity norm? On the whole, do you think the objectivity norm is a helpful thing or a harmful thing? Why?
Q:
What are some ways the Internet has transformed journalism?
Q:
Link the various information biases or structural biases we have learned about this term to the commercially oriented media system we have in the United States. Does our media system lead to the pervasiveness of such biases? How? What does all this together mean for what we get in our political news? Are there any solutions?
Q:
What are some of the areas most in need of reform when it comes to federal regulation of broadcast media?
Essay
Q:
Whats more common, partisan news bias, affective news bias, or informational news bias? Which of these is most harmful from a democratic perspective? Why? What is the origin of this kind of bias? How could it be curbed?
Q:
Do journalists and gatekeepers do a good job in selecting the types of news and entertainment they cover? Do they allot appropriate time and space to each of these categories? If not, what should they do differently? If so, is there room for improvement?
Q:
The government agency regulating communication technologies is ______.
A. FEC
B. FCC
C. SEC
D. none of these
Q:
How is content from the blogosphere different from traditional news content? Are the differences important? Why or why not? What advice might you offer citizens who utilize blogs as a source of political information?
Q:
Journalists report which of the following as the biggest problem facing journalism overall? A. partisan cable news B. broken business model C. audience disinterest D. all of these E. none of these
Q:
What should citizen-relevant news contain? What kinds of information do democratic citizens need for effective participation in governance? To what extent does our current media system provide such news?
Q:
Exhausted election news audiences reported too much coverage of candidate experience and issue stances during the 2016 campaign.
Q:
Why is it difficult to produce news content that is a mirror reflection of reality? To what extent is it a problem that news is not a perfect representation of reality? Is it a problem at all? If so, what can be fixed?
Q:
Now that audiences have a lot of choices among media outlets, trust in media is on the rise.
Q:
How are media outlets coping with the move away from the ad revenue model of journalism? How will good journalism be financed in the future? What successful models exist now?
Q:
Unbalanced coverage springs from news-making process rather than ideological bias.
Q:
News is a product of audience preference, not a mirror of society.
Q:
Economic pressure means that journalists have more competition and less time and resources to investigate and develop their stories.
Q:
Media watchers and critics have few concerns about citizen journalism and its ability to fill coverage gaps left by eroding traditional media.
Q:
Mobile audiences for news are growing rapidly.
Q:
The Internet has reduced the power and influence of traditional media, even while providing new platforms for their content.
Q:
Of the three broad categories of media bias described in the textbook, which two are the most systematic and pervasive, according to research?
A. affective and informational biases
B. partisan and ideological biases
C. partisan and affective biases
D. ideological and informational biases
E. ideological and affective biases
Q:
What is the relationship between candidate behavior and negativity in campaign news coverage?
Q:
Which of the following are worrisome possible consequences from incivility in political news?
A. public cynicism
B. inability to see credible arguments from the other side
C. distrust of government and institutions
D. none of these
E. all of these
Q:
What is a thematic news frame? Briefly describe and/or give an example. What is an episodic news frame? Briefly describe and/or give an example.
Q:
Though audiences like it, critics complain about horserace coverage because of which of the following?
A. It offers little relevant information for general election voters.
B. It persuades people to like the winning candidate.
C. It crowds more substantive stories out of the small news hole reserved for politics.
D. A and C only
Q:
What do we mean when we distinguish between supply-side media bias and demand-side media bias? Is one more problematic than the other? Why or why not? Which is more verified empirically? In your answer be sure to define both types of media bias and explain the difference before answering the second part of the question.
Q:
Which of the following do journalists most often list as the main reason people distrust the media today? A. media errors B. general mistrust of institutions C. political polarization in mass public D. belief that media is corporate puppet E. all of these
Q:
There are some positive aspects of partisan news.
Q:
The fact that audiences are active means that there is less concern about persuasive effects from partisan news.
Q:
What is the attack the frontrunner strategy?
Q:
Demand-side bias comes from catering to the preferences of audiences.
Q:
How do the routines of journalism influence the coverage and electoral advantages and disadvantages of incumbents and challengers?
Q:
The most pervasive and systematic effect from media bias is persuasion.
Q:
According to John Geer, why is there a reciprocal relationship between negative campaign ads and news coverage?
Q:
Affective news biases are, in part, a response to the human negativity bias.
Q:
Explain the recent trend which is the exception to campaign reporting free of useful information for evaluating the truth of competing claims between candidates.
Q:
Negativity and incivility are examples of information bias in news.
Q:
How does micro-targeting work? Explain the steps and assess the success and desirability or problems related to these kinds of strategic tactics.
Q:
Structural media biases are far more common than political media biases.
Q:
Describe and assess the consequences of media-dominated politics. How are media so influential? Is their role and power appropriate? Is the role of the media too powerful, not powerful enough, or just about right? Explain.
Q:
What are the three major types of media bias that have been identified by scholarship and public debate?