Q&A Hero

Q: Which of the following BEST describes the events that occur during the first stage of labor? A) Rupture of the amniotic sac B) Expulsion of the fetus through the birth canal C) Expulsion of the placenta D) Thinning and dilation of the cervix

Q: During which stage of labor is the baby born? A) Primary B) First C) Second D) Third

Q: You have been called for a young female in labor. She is lying on the floor in obvious distress from the labor pains. While you are assessing her for crowning, your partner is getting a set of vital signs. She tells you that she is getting dizzy and nauseated. Vital signs are pulse rate 120, respiratory rate 22, and blood pressure 98/62. You should be concerned that she has: A) contracted food poisoning. B) supine hypotensive syndrome. C) Braxton-Hicks contractions. D) placenta previa.

Q: Supine hypotensive syndrome is easily prevented by transporting the pregnant female into which of the following positions? A) Supine, with the head lower than the hips B) Lying on her left side C) On her hands and knees with her hips elevated D) Tilted slightly onto the right side

Q: Which of the following may result from a woman in her third trimester of pregnancy lying in a supine position? A) Fetal compromise B) Maternal hypotension C) The mother's body attempting to compensate for shock D) All of the above

Q: You are called to assess a pregnant woman who is approximately 7 months pregnant. She states that her pregnancy has been uneventful but she is experiencing intermittent headaches. Her vital signs are pulse 118, respirations 22, blood pressure 138/88, and blood sugar 148. Which of the following is true regarding a pregnant woman? A) Her pulse rate should be lower than normal. B) Her respirations usually remain the same during pregnancy. C) Her blood pressure is usually higher during pregnancy. D) Diabetes may be made worse during pregnancy.

Q: Your pregnant patient is in active labor. You note that her contractions are getting closer together and much stronger as the baby moves deeper into the birth canal. The muscle contraction mechanism that moves the baby toward birth is the same mechanism that moves: A) air down the bronchial tubes to the alveoli. B) fluid into and out of the cell. C) sweat to the surface of the skin. D) food from the esophagus to the stomach.

Q: By which of the following means does the fetus's blood pick up nourishment from the mother? A) Direct circulation B) Indirect circulation C) Diffusion D) Osmosis

Q: Which of the following describes the normal appearance of amniotic fluid? A) A fluid containing blood and mucus B) Thin fluid, greenish-yellow in color C) Clear and colorless fluid D) Thick fluid, greenish-black in color

Q: You are called for a women who is about to deliver. During the labor process, your patient's water breaks. She experiences a rush of warm water and an increase in uterine contractions. The purpose of the amniotic fluid is to: A) provide lubrication during the delivery of the baby. B) help maintain a constant fetal body temperature. C) allow the fetus to float during development. D) All of the above

Q: What is the temporary organ of pregnancy, which functions to supply the developing fetus with oxygen and nutrients? A) Cervix B) Uterus C) Amnion D) Placenta

Q: The muscular organ in which a baby develops during pregnancy is called the: A) fetal membrane. B) placenta. C) uterus. D) amniotic sac.

Q: The term for a baby developing inside the mother's womb after week 8 is: A) infant. B) chorion. C) fetus. D) neonate.

Q: You are assessing a pregnant woman whose chief complaint is vaginal bleeding. She is 8 months pregnant and has moderate, bright red bleeding. She says that her doctor was concerned about the location of the placenta. This condition is known as: A) placenta disruption. B) abruptio placenta. C) unstable placenta. D) placenta previa.

Q: The condition in which the placenta separates from the uterine wall is known as which of the following? A) Abruptio placentae B) Placenta previa C) Ectopic pregnancy D) Preeclampsia

Q: Which of the following BEST describes placenta previa? A) The placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall. B) The pregnancy is lost before the 20th week of gestation. C) The umbilical cord is the presenting part. D) The placenta is implanted over the opening of the cervix.

Q: Which of the following describes a breech presentation? A) The infant presents buttocks first. B) The infant presents with both feet first. C) The infant presents face first. D) Both A and B

Q: Which of the following BEST describes the term crowning? A) Complete dilation of the cervix B) Presenting part of the baby being visible at the vaginal opening C) Delivery of the head during a breech birth, completing delivery D) Discharge of bloody mucus

Q: Which of the following describes the condition of having an abnormally high body temperature? A) Hyperthermia B) Septic shock C) Hyperdynamic state D) Heat shock

Q: Your patient is a 24-year-old man who smoked a cigarette dipped in formaldehyde and then went outside with no shoes on and walked in the snow for about an hour. He has deep local cold injuries to both feet. Which of the following should be included in your management of this patient? A) Break blisters before wrapping both feet in sterile dressings. B) Have the patient sit with his feet lower than the rest of his body. C) Gradually rewarm both feet. D) Massage the feet briskly.

Q: Which of the following should the EMT do during the treatment of localized cold injury? A) Encourage the patient to use the affected part. B) Rub the affected area with snow. C) Massage the affected area. D) Gradually warm the affected area.

Q: The term blanching, used to describe localized cold injury, means the tissue has turned to which of the following colors? A) White or lighter B) Blue or purple C) Red D) Black

Q: Which of the following BEST describes a localized cold injury with a clear line of demarcation of its limits? A) Early frostnip B) Late frostbite C) Immersion foot D) Deep frostnip

Q: Localized cold injury occurs due to vasoconstriction and: A) chemical imbalance in the tissues. B) blood clots. C) ice crystal formation in the tissues. D) loss of calcium.

Q: The term gangrene means tissue: A) damage. B) discoloration. C) infection. D) death.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a classification of localized cold injury? A) Hypothermia B) Frostbite C) Frostnip D) All of the above

Q: In a patient with extreme hypothermia who appears to be in cardiac arrest, you should assess the pulse for how long? A) 30 to 45 seconds B) 20 to 30 seconds C) 5 to 10 seconds D) 15 to 20 seconds

Q: Rough handling of a patient with severe hypothermia may result in which of the following? A) Ventricular fibrillation B) Seizures C) Heart attack D) Rewarming shock

Q: You arrive on the scene and find an unresponsive homeless man lying in the alleyway clutching a wine bottle. He is wearing a long-sleeved shirt, but does not have pants on. His skin feels cold to the touch. The week's temperatures have not been above 50F. Which of the following should you do immediately after ensuring the patient has an adequate airway? A) Apply the AED. B) Provide manual stabilization of the cervical spine. C) Begin passive rewarming. D) Check the pulse.

Q: In a hypothermic patient the coldest blood is found in what part of the patient's body? A) Intestines B) Heart and lungs C) Head D) Extremities

Q: In cases of extreme hypothermia, you will find the patient unconscious, with no discernible vital signs, and skin cold to your touch with stiff joints as if they appear dead. What is the emergency care for these patients? A) Contact medical control for input into the best treatment for this patient. B) Call the coroner as indications are the patient is cold and deceased, which is a definitive sign of death. C) Check distal CSM, apply warming packs to the extremities, and transport the patient. D) Assess the carotid pulse for 30 to 45 seconds; if there is no pulse, start CPR immediately and prepare to apply the AED.

Q: You respond to the scene of a 14-year-old patient. He is unresponsive and hypothermic. Emergency Medical Responders have moved the patient inside and secured the airway prior to your arrival. What is your next action? A) Vigorously rub the patient to increase the body temperature. B) Actively rewarm the patient. C) Passively rewarm the patient. D) Assess for signs of frostbite and treat immediately.

Q: You respond to a landing zone to pick up a skier who was lost in the woods for 36 hours and found by the search and rescue helicopter. Your patient is a 19-year-old male patient. He is alert and oriented to time, person, place, and event. He is covered in blankets and shivering. He complains of not being able to feel his fingers. Physical exam reveals that the fingers of both extremities have a waxy appearance and feel "frozen" on the surface. After treating the patient for potential hypothermia and rapid transport, your next action is to: A) bandage the digits. B) actively rewarm the digits. C) gently warm the digits by slowly massaging them. D) keep the digits frozen on ice until they can be properly rewarmed at the hospital.

Q: You are on a stand-by at a local high school football game. One of the football players comes over to the ambulance and complains that his face feels numb and that he has a burning sensation in his fingers. You notice that the patient's cheeks and fingers are bright red. How should you treat the patient? A) Allow the patient to warm up inside the ambulance by passive rewarming measures. B) Place the patient inside the ambulance and begin active rewarming measures. C) Warm the affected areas with gentle rubbing. D) Tell the patient that his condition is superficial and allow him to return to the game.

Q: When resuscitating a hypothermic patient in cardiac arrest, resuscitation attempts must continue until the patient has: A) been ventilated for at least 30 minutes with an oropharyngeal airway (OPA) in place. B) developed rigor mortis. C) been defibrillated a total of nine times. D) been rewarmed.

Q: Why is it important to keep patients at rest when they are hypothermic? A) Since the blood is warmest in the extremities, exercise or unnecessary movement could quickly circulate the warm blood and raises the core body temperature. B) Since the blood is coldest in the extremities, exercise or unnecessary movement could quickly circulate the cold blood and drop the blood pressure. C) Since the blood is coldest in the extremities, exercise or unnecessary movement could quickly circulate the cold blood and lower the core body temperature. D) None of the above

Q: To assess skin temperature for a possibly hypothermic patient, the EMT should place the back of his hand against which part of the patient's body? A) Forehead B) Cheek C) Abdomen D) Inner wrist

Q: The technique for central rewarming requires the application of heat to which of the following areas of the patient's body? A) Chest, back, neck, and armpits B) Lateral chest, neck, armpits, and groin C) Head, neck, chest, and back D) Head, neck, chest, and groin

Q: When actively rewarming a frostbitten extremity in warm water, you should change the water when the temperature falls below ________ F. A) 115 to 120 B) 100 to 105 C) 85 to 95 D) 80 to 90

Q: Which of the following is acceptable when actively rewarming a hypothermic patient? A) Encouraging the patient to exercise B) Giving coffee or brandy to drink C) Warming the patient as quickly as possible D) Applying humidified oxygen

Q: Allowing a patient's body temperature to increase by preventing further heat loss is referred to as which of the following? A) Core rewarming B) Passive rewarming C) Active rewarming D) Natural rewarming

Q: Why is it important to remove constricting items such as rings before thawing a frozen extremity? A) Because thawed areas often swell B) To prevent damage to the property such as rings and watches C) Because thawing leaves clots behind in the veins D) All of the above

Q: Which of the following would you expect to see in a patient with severe hypothermia? A) Irrational behavior B) Loss of muscle tone C) Rapid respirations D) Tachycardia

Q: Which of the following signs would you NOT expect to see in a patient suffering from severe hypothermia? A) Numbness B) Shivering C) Drowsiness D) Skin cool to touch

Q: Who is the most susceptible to hypothermia? A) 21-year-old near-drowning patient on a warm spring day B) 55-year-old male patient who sprained his knee snow skiing C) 76-year-old male patient involved in a vehicle accident on icy roads D) 80-year-old male patient on the ground who slipped and has a hip fracture

Q: Why are infants and young children more prone to hypothermia than adults? A) Their immune system is not fully developed. B) They are unable to recognize how cold they are. C) They shiver more than adults. D) They have less fat than adults.

Q: For which of the following reasons are newborns, infants, and the elderly more readily affected by the heat than other age groups? A) Faster metabolism B) Increased body mass C) Inadequate salt intake D) Poor ability to regulate body temperature

Q: Which of the following does NOT make infants and children more prone to hypothermia? A) Inefficient metabolism B) Large body surface area C) Small muscle mass D) Little body fat

Q: Which of the following terms describes the temperature of the surrounding air? A) Wind chill index B) Shell temperature C) Core temperature D) Ambient temperature

Q: When the body is in water, how many times faster does it lose heat than when it is in still air? A) 2 B) 100 C) 10 D) 25

Q: Most radiant heat is lost through which part of the body? A) Hands and feet B) Head C) Buttocks D) Torso

Q: Which of the following is the most significant way in which the body cools itself? A) Respiration B) Perspiration C) Radiation D) Vasoconstriction

Q: In which of the following ways does the body produce heat in response to being cold? A) Excreting more urine B) Burning fewer calories C) Shivering D) Increasing the respiratory rate

Q: A patient who is lying on cold ground is losing the most amount of heat by what mechanism? A) Radiation B) Convection C) Conduction D) Shivering

Q: Applying an external source of heat to the patient's body to rewarm him is called ________ rewarming. A) central B) active C) endogenous D) peripheral

Q: Which of the following is the process in which heat is lost from the body as wind passes over it? A) Convection B) Hydrodynamic cooling C) Exposure D) Condensation

Q: In which of the following situations would a person lose heat by conduction? A) Sitting on cold metal bleachers at a football game B) Wearing wet clothing in windy weather C) Breathing D) Going outside without a coat during a cold but calm day

Q: Reducing the pain of a marine animal sting can be accomplished by rinsing the affected area with which of the following? A) Sterile saline solution B) Gasoline or kerosene C) Cold water D) Vinegar

Q: Which of the following types of snake is NOT a pit viper? A) Water moccasin B) Rattlesnake C) Coral snake D) Copperhead

Q: Which of the following could worsen the effects of a snake bite? A) Application of ice B) Cutting and suctioning out the venom C) Constricting bands above and below the bite D) Having the patient lie still

Q: Of the following venomous snakes, which one usually has the highest incidence of a "dry bite?" A) Coral snake B) Water moccasin C) Mississauga rattlesnake D) Copperhead

Q: The purpose of a constricting band after a venomous snake bite is to impede the flow of which of the following? A) Lymph B) Arterial blood C) Venom D) Both A and C

Q: Where should a constricting band be placed to reduce lymphatic flow after a venomous snake bite? A) 2 inches above the bite B) 2 inches below the bite C) 2 inches above and 2 inches below the bite D) None of the above

Q: You respond to a farm for a possible snake bite. You find a 36-year-old male patient seated against a tree. Bystanders state the patient was bitten on the arm by a rattlesnake and is "really sick." As you approach, you notice that the patient appears in obvious distress, diaphoretic, and holding his right wrist. Which of the following is your highest priority? A) Perform a primary assessment and identify any potential life threats. B) Confirm the type of snake and contact medical control for specific instructions. C) Immediately apply a constricting band to minimize the spread of the venom. D) Confirm the location and status of the snake.

Q: You respond to the scene of a local campground. Your patient is a 15-year-old female patient who was stung in the arm by a bee. The patient is anxious and hyperventilating at 28 times a minute. The patient is alert and oriented to time, place, person, and event. Lung sounds are clear bilaterally. The left arm is swollen and the stinger is not present. Blood pressure is 118/72 and pulse is 110. The patient's mother states she is allergic to bee stings and has an epinephrine auto-injector. She called 911 because she was afraid the patient would stop breathing. Which of the following is the best treatment plan? A) Place a constricting band around the arm to minimize the spread of the venom. B) Assist the patient in administering her epinephrine auto-injector. C) Monitor the patient for shock and transport. D) Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position.

Q: Which of the following is acceptable in the management of a patient stung by a honey bee? A) Soak the affected area in warm water. B) Pull the stinger out using tweezers. C) Remove jewelry from any affected limbs. D) Elevate the affected site above the level of the heart to reduce swelling.

Q: Which of the following spiders can cause a characteristic wound with a bite that is often painless? A) Brown recluse spider B) Sheet web spider C) Argiope spider D) Black widow spider

Q: To rescue someone who has fallen through the ice, which of the following is the safest device to use? A) Jet-ski B) Flat-bottomed aluminum boat C) Ladder D) Ring buoy

Q: You are enjoying some time at the beach on your day off when you hear a swimmer crying for help. As you spot the swimmer about 30 feet from shore, she cries out again but appears to be getting weaker. Although there is no lifeguard on duty, there is a rowboat and a ring buoy available. Assuming you do NOT know how to swim or consider yourself a poor swimmer, which of the following should you do first? A) Row the boat out to the swimmer. B) Use the buoy to float out to the swimmer. C) Find someone who can swim to try to swim out and save the swimmer. D) Call for help and try to throw the buoy to the swimmer.

Q: You respond to a boat dock for a diving injury. You find a 22-year-old female patient unresponsive with frothy blood in the mouth and lung sounds absent on the right side. The patient is breathing 28 times a minute. The patient's friends state they were diving when she unexpectedly came out of the water complaining of chest pains and then collapsed. The nearest hospital is 25 minutes away and the nearest specialty resource center with a hyperbaric chamber is 30 minutes away. What is the best decision when determining transport? A) Transport the patient by ground to the specialty center. B) Transport the patient by air medical to the specialty center. C) Transport the patient to the nearest facility. D) Transport the patient by air medical to the nearest facility.

Q: You arrive on the scene to find a scuba diver on board a boat slumped over in the captain's chair with frothy blood in his mouth. The captain states that the diver was down no more than 15 feet when he ascended rapidly and called for help. Which of the following is most likely? A) Decompression sickness B) The bends C) Air embolism D) Caisson's disease

Q: Which of the following increases a scuba diver's risk of decompression sickness? A) Taking cold or sinus medications before a dive B) Flying within several hours after a dive C) Diving on a full stomach D) Breathing 100% oxygen before a dive

Q: Which of the following is caused by trapped nitrogen gas in the tissues due to a rapid ascent from a scuba dive? A) "Squeeze" injuries of the ear and sinuses B) Pulmonary embolism C) Decompression sickness D) Nitrogen narcosis

Q: Which of the following occurs when gases leave a damaged lung in a diving accident and enter the bloodstream? A) Arterial thrombosis B) Arterial blood gases C) Hyperbaric arterial injury D) Arterial gas embolism

Q: You respond to a boat dock for a diving injury. You find a 24-year-old male patient unresponsive with frothy blood in the mouth and lung sounds absent on the right side. The patient is breathing 28 times a minute. The patient's friends state they were diving when he unexpectedly came out of the water complaining of chest pains and then collapsed. What is your first action? A) Insert an oropharyngeal airway. B) Place the patient on high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask. C) Place the patient on high-concentration oxygen by bag-valve mask. D) Suction the airway.

Q: You have responded to a local pool for a drowning patient. Lifeguards have pulled the patient out of the pool prior to your arrival. You find the 16-year-old patient unresponsive with agonal respirations and a weak carotid pulse. What is your first action? A) Apply high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask. B) Apply high-concentration oxygen by bag-valve mask. C) Insert a Combitube. D) Insert an oropharyngeal airway.

Q: You respond to a boat dock for a diving injury. You find a 24-year-old male patient unresponsive with frothy blood in the mouth and lung sounds absent on the right side. The patient's friends state they were diving when he came out of the water complaining of chest pains and then collapsed. What condition do you suspect? A) Myocardial infarction B) Decompression sickness C) Air embolism D) Near drowning

Q: You have responded to a local pool for a drowning patient. Lifeguards have pulled the patient out of the pool prior to your arrival. You find a 22-year-old male patient unresponsive with agonal respirations and a weak carotid pulse. Bystanders state the patient was not using the diving board and was found in the shallow end. Why are cervical spine precautions necessary? A) The patient may have suffered a spinal injury by jumping in shallow water. B) The patient may have suffered a cervical spine injury when pulled out of the water. C) The patient may have been using the diving board after all and injured his cervical spine. D) The patient may have hit his head on the side wall while swimming laps.

Q: Which of the following is often associated with water-related emergencies? A) Hypothermia B) Cardiac arrest C) Alcohol use D) All of the above

Q: Regarding drowning in adults, which of the following statements is true? A) Colder water improves survival chances in saltwater drowning but not in freshwater drowning. B) Water temperature makes no difference in the chances of survival in either saltwater or freshwater drowning. C) The colder the water, the better the chances of survival in either saltwater or freshwater drowning. D) The warmer the water, the better the chances of survival in saltwater drowning.