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Networking
Q:
Newer Trojans listen at a predetermined port on the target computer so that detection is more difficult.
Q:
The signature of a normal FTP connection includes a three-way handshake.
Q:
An atomic attack is a barrage of hundreds of packets directed at a host.
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All devices interpret attack signatures uniformly.
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Describe the three-way handshake.
Q:
Describe the TTL field in an IP packet header.
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What is CIDR? Give an example.
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Discuss variable length subnet masking.
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List three reasons an administrator would want to use subnetting.
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What are the three private IP address ranges and their associated subnet masks?
Q:
List the three classes of IP address that can be assigned to network devices and their corresponding first octet range of values.
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Briefly describe Network Address Translation and how it makes a network more secure.
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List the seven layers of the OSI model.
Q:
a. broadcast f. unicastb. datagram g. stateless autoconfigurationc. fragmentation h. network identifierd. multicast i. Multicast Listener Discoverye. scopes j. Network Address Translation 1. a discrete chunk of information; each datagram contains source and destination addresses, control settings, and data 2. unicast addresses used in IPv6 to identify the application suitable for the address 3. the part of an IP address that a computer has in common with other computers in its subnet 4. a process by which internal hosts are assigned private IP addresses and communicate with the Internet using a public address 5. a transmission used for one-to-many communication, in which a single host can send packets to a group of recipients 6. a transmission in which one packet is sent from a server to each client that requests a file or application 7. enables IPv6 routers to discover multicast listeners on a directly connected link and to decide which multicast addresses are of interest to those nodes 8. a communication sent to all hosts on a specific network 9. a feature of IPv6 in which a computer can connect to a network by determining its own IP address based on the addressing of neighboring nodes 10. the division of packets into smaller sizes to accommodate routers with frame size limitations
Q:
The ____________ command shows current sessions with associated port numbers.
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________________ IPv6 addresses are used for one-to-one or one-to-many communication.
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The _____________ field in an IP header is a 3-bit value indicating whether a datagram is a fragment.
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The ______________________ is the part of the IP address that is the same among computers in a network segment.
Q:
DNS operates at the _________________ layer of the OSI model.
Q:
Which of the following is the IPv6 loopback address?a. 000:000:: b. 1000:127:0:0:1 c. ::1d. ::FFFF
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Which of the following is a valid IPv6 address?a. 5BA4:2391:0:0:4C3E b. 1080::8:800:200C:417A c. 24::5B1A::346Cd. 5510:ABCD::34:1::2
Q:
What feature in ICMPv6 replaces ARP in IPv4?a. Multicast Listener Discovery b. Neighbor Discovery c. Echo Requestd. Authentication Header
Q:
Which IPv6 header field is known as the priority field?a. Version b. Flow Label c. Hop Limitd. Traffic Class
Q:
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of IPv6 versus IPv4?a. larger address space b. built-in security c. supports static configurationd. NAT is unnecessary
Q:
How large is the IPv6 address space?a. 32 bits b. 128 bits c. 64 bitsd. 168 bits
Q:
What should you do when configuring DNS servers that are connected to the Internet in order to improve security?a. disable zone transfers b. delete the DNS cache c. disable DNS buffersd. setup DNS proxy
Q:
What does a sliding window do in a TCP packet?a. ensures all packets are delivered b. provides packet security c. provides flow controld. ensures transmission reliability
Q:
Which of the following is the first packet sent in the TCP three-way handshake?a. RST b. SYN c. ACKd. PSH
Q:
Which of the following is a reason that UDP is faster than TCP?
a. it doesn"t use port numbers c. the header is smaller
b. it has a higher priority on the network d. it doesn"t guarantee delivery
Q:
What is the TCP portion of a packet called?a. frame b. data c. segmentd. header
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Which field in the IP header is an 8-bit value that identifies the maximum amount of time the packet can remain in the network before it is dropped?a. TTL b. Fragment Offset c. ECNd. Options
Q:
Which of the following is considered a flooded broadcast IP address?a. 200.15.6.255 b. 10.255.255.255 c. 255.255.255.255d. FFFF.FFFF.FFFF
Q:
Which of the following is the broadcast address for subnet 192.168.10.32 with subnet mask 255.255.255.240a. 192.168.10.63 b. 192.168.10.47 c. 192.168.10.23d. 192.168.10.95
Q:
If you are subnetting a class B network, what subnet mask will yield 64 subnets?a. 255.255.252.0 b. 255.255.64.0 c. 255.255.224.0d. 255.255.192.0
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Which of the following is NOT a reason for subnetting a network?a. controlling network traffic b. increasing network security c. planning for growthd. making larger groups of computers
Q:
Which of the following addresses is a Class B IP address?a. 126.14.1.7 b. 224.14.9.11 c. 189.77.101.6d. 211.55.119.7
Q:
How are the two parts of an IP address determined?a. network identifier b. subnet mask c. host identifierd. routing table
Q:
Which protocol is responsible for automatic assignment of IP addresses?a. DNS b. DHCP c. FTPd. SNMP
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In which OSI model layer will you find the OSPF protocol?a. Application b. Session c. Transportd. Network
Q:
IPv4 and IPv6 headers are interoperable.
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The TCP protocol uses a three-way handshake to create a connection.
Q:
Fragmentation of IP packets is normal and doesn"t present any networking problems.
Q:
The IP address 172.20.1.5 is a private IP address.
Q:
The Transport layer of the OSI model includes the RIP protocol.
Q:
What is virus scanning and how does it work?
Q:
Discuss defense in depth.
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What are the three primary goals of information security? Describe them.
Q:
Discuss scripting and how it relates to network security.
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What is malicious port scanning and how can you defend against it?
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What is social engineering?
Q:
Compare and contrast virus and worm.
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What is a script kiddie?
Q:
List and describe two motivations attackers have to attack a network.
Q:
a. auditing f. portb. biometrics g. RBACc. DMZ h. signaturesd. DDoS attack i. sockete. packet filters j. worm1/ An attack in which many computers are hijacked and used to flood the target with so many false requests that the server cannot process them all, and normal traffic is blocked2/ The process of recording which computers are accessing a network and whatresources are being accessed, and then recording the information in a log file3/ Signs of possible attacks that include an IP address, a port number, and thefrequency of access attempts; an IDPS uses signatures to detect possible attacks4/ An area in random access memory (RAM) reserved for the use of a program that "listens" for requests for the service it provides5/ A semitrusted subnet that lies outside the trusted internal network but is connected to the firewall to make services publicly available while still protecting the internal LAN6/ A network connection consisting of a port number combined with a computer's IP address7/ An access control method that establishes organizational roles to control access to information8/ A method of authenticating a user using physical information, such as retinalscans, fingerprints, or voiceprints9/ Computer files that copy themselves repeatedly and consume disk space orother resources10/ Hardware or software tools that allow or deny packets based on specifiedcriteria, such as port, IP address, or protocol.
Q:
________________ events usually track the operations of the firewall or IDPS, making a log entry whenever it starts or shuts down.
Q:
______________________ is the capability to prevent a participant in an electronic transaction from denying that it performed an action.
Q:
A ______________ is reserved for a program that runs in the background to listen for requests for the service it offers.
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______________ do not require user intervention to be launched; they are self-propagating.
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__________________ are spread by several methods, including running executable code, sharing disks or memory sticks, opening e-mail attachments, and viewing infected or malicious Web pages.
Q:
With which access control method do system administrators establish what information users can share?a. discretionary access control b. mandatory access control c. administrative access controld. role-based access control
Q:
What tool do you use to secure remote access by users who utilize the Internet?a. VPN b. IDS c. DMZd. DiD
Q:
Which security tool works by recognizing signs of a possible attack and sending notification to an administrator?a. DiD b. DMZ c. VPNd. IDPS
Q:
Which type of firewall policy calls for a firewall to deny all traffic by default?a. permissive policy b. perimeter policy c. restrictive policyd. demilitarized policy
Q:
Which of the following is NOT information that a packet filter uses to determine whether to block a packet?a. checksum b. port c. IP addressd. protocol
Q:
What is the name of a storage area where viruses are placed by antivirus software so they cannot replicate or do harm to other files?a. firewall b. recycle bin c. quarantined. demilitarized zone
Q:
In which form of authentication does the authenticating device generate a random code and send it to the user who wants to be authenticated?a. basic b. challenge/response c. biometricsd. signature
Q:
Which security layer verifies the identity of a user, service, or computer?a. authentication b. repudiation c. physical securityd. authorization
Q:
Defense in depth can best be described as which of the following?a. a firewall that protects the network and the servers b. a layered approach to security c. antivirus software and firewallsd. authentication and encryption
Q:
Which of the following is NOT one of the three primary goals of information security?a. confidentiality b. integrity c. impartialityd. availability
Q:
Why might you want your security system to provide nonrepudiation?a. to prevent a user from capturing packets and viewing sensitive information b. to prevent an unauthorized user from logging into the system c. to trace the origin of a worm spread through emaild. so a user can"t deny sending or receiving a communication
Q:
What is a VPN typically used for?a. secure remote access b. detection of security threats c. block open portsd. filter harmful scripts
Q:
What can an attacker use a port scanner to test for on a target computer?a. invalid IP addresses b. SYN flags c. open socketsd. ping floods
Q:
Which type of attack causes the operating system to crash because it is unable to handle arbitrary data sent to a port?a. RPC attacks b. ICMP message abuse c. malicious port scanningd. SYN flood
Q:
Which type of attack works by an attacker operating between two computers in a network and impersonating one computer to intercept communications?a. malicious port scanning b. man-in-the-middle c. denial of serviced. remote procedure call
Q:
Which term is best described as an attack that relies on the gullibility of people?a. malicious code b. script kiddie c. back doord. social engineering
Q:
Which of the following is a type of script that automates repetitive tasks in an application such as a word processor but can also be programmed to be a virus?a. worm b. macro c. back doord. Trojan
Q:
What is a program that appears to do something useful but is actually malware?a. virus b. logic bomb c. Trojand. back door
Q:
Malware that creates networks of infected computers that can be controlled from a central station is referred to as which of the following?a. botnet b. Trojan c. logic bombd. packet monkey
Q:
A hactivist can best be described as which of the following?a. an unskilled programmer that spreads malicious scripts b. consider themselves seekers of knowledge c. use DoS attacks on Web sites with which they disagreed. deface Web sites by leaving messages for their friends to read
Q:
With discretionary access control, network users can share information with other users, making it more risky than MAC.