Q&A Hero

Q: The nurse is working on parenting skills with a group of mothers. Which style of parenting tends to produce adolescents who tend to be self-reliant and socially competent? 1. Authoritarian 2. Permissive 3. Indifferent 4. Authoritative

Q: The community health nurse is making an initial visit to a family. The most effective and efficient way for the nurse to assess the parenting style in use is to: 1. Ask the parents, "What rule is hardest for your child to obey?" 2. Ask the children what happens when they break the rules. 3. Ask the parents, "How often do you hug or kiss your children?" 4. Observe the parent interacting with the child for five minutes.

Q: The community health nurse is assessing several families for various strengths and needs in regard to afterschool and backup child care arrangements. The family type that typically will benefit most from this assessment and subsequent interventions is the: 1. Traditional nuclear family. 2. Extended family. 3. Binuclear family. 4. Single-parent family.

Q: During assessment of a child's biological family history, it is especially important that the nurse asking the mother for information uses the term "child's father" instead of "your husband" in the situation of a: 1. Traditional nuclear family. 2. Two-income nuclear family. 3. Traditional extended family. 4. Heterosexual cohabitating family.

Q: A seven-year-old client tells you, "Grandpa, Mommy, Daddy, and my brother live at my house." The nurse identifies this family type as a(n): 1. Extended family. 2. Traditional nuclear family. 3. Binuclear family. 4. Heterosexual cohabitating family.

Q: While working on the pediatric unit, the nurse recognizes a neighbor whose child has been admitted to the hospital pediatric intensive care. Out of curiosity, the nurse visits the PICU and reviews the child's chart for information about the child's diagnosis. This nurse: 1. Has violated HIPAA laws. 2. Was working within the legal limitations of his/her job. 3. Was not guilty of violating HIPAA laws unless the nurse shares the information with someone outside the hospital. 4. Was working as a member of the health care team to provide family-centered nursing.

Q: A 14-month-old child is admitted to the hospital. During the admission process, the nurse determines that the child and family are visiting this country from a foreign country. The nurse is unaware of the cultural traditions and values of that country. How can the nurse best provide culturally competent health care? 1. Read about that country on the internet. 2. Ask the family members how care would be provided in their own country. 3. Ask a nurse who has visited the child's home country about life in that country. 4. Ask a coworker who comes from the same region about customs and cultures in their country.

Q: The rationale for nurses utilizing nursing intervention classifications (NICs) when developing a nursing care plan for a child on the unit is to: 1. Improve communication among nurses working with the child. 2. Assist medical records in documenting care provided for insurance purposes. 3. Aid the nursing supervisor in evaluating the nursing staff. 4. Coordinate medical orders with nursing orders.

Q: A registered nurse has been asked to join the ethics committee of the hospital. In considering this appointment, the nurse would recognize that the committee might be considering ethical situations including: Standard Text: Select all that apply. 1. Issuance of a "Do Not Resuscitate" (allow natural death) order on a child who has been determined brain dead against the wishes of the parents. 2. Determining if a minor child who disagrees with the parents about the treatment plan can make an informed decision. 3. Determining if a non-salvageable newborn can be used as an organ donor. 4. Investigating a medication error. 5. Consulting and intervening when parents are not in agreement on decisions of health care for their child.

Q: The nursing supervisor is observing the staff on the pediatric unit. Which nurse is providing family-centered care? 1. The nurse who delays morning care until after the family has visited the child 2. The nurse who suggests the mother take a break and get breakfast while the nurse changes the child's dressings 3. While admitting a new client, the nurse explains the visitation rules of the unit to the parents and grandparents. 4. During discharge planning, the nurse recognizes the mother is unable to perform wound care on the client, so the nurse works with the family to determine which family member will be available to meet this child's health care needs.

Q: While changing the diaper on a newborn in the presence of the mother, the nurse notes a belly binder wrapped around the umbilical cord. When questioned, the mother states this is the way the umbilical area is cared for in her culture. The nurse should: 1. Accept this practice as a cultural variation and allow the mother to care for the umbilicus. 2. Explain to the mother the risks associated with belly binders and encourage her to remove it. 3. Remove the belly binder and discard it. 4. Replace the belly binder with a coin as a safer cultural practice.

Q: Following a traumatic birth, an infant is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit. When the grandparents arrive at the hospital, they question the nurse caring for the baby about its condition and plan of care. The nurse who provides this information without permission from the parents would be committing: 1. Negligence 2. A breach of privacy 3. Malpractice 4. A breach of ethics

Q: The pediatric nurse's best defense against an accusation of malpractice or negligence is that the nurse: 1. Is a nurse practitioner or clinical nurse specialist. 2. Met the Society of Pediatric Nurses standards of practice. 3. Was acting on the advice of the nurse manager. 4. Followed the physician's written orders.

Q: A supervisor is reviewing the documentation of the nurses in the unit. The documentation that most accurately and correctly contains all the required parts for a narrative entry is the entry that reads: 1. "1630 catheterized using an 8 French catheter, 45 ml clear yellow urine obtained, specimen sent to lab, squirmed and cried softly during insertion of catheter. Quiet in mother's arms following catheter removal. M. May RN" 2. "1/9/05 2 p.m. g-tube accessed, positive air gurgle over stomach: 5 ml air injected, 10 ml residual stomach contents returned to stomach, PediaSure formula hung on Kangaroo pump infusing at 60 ml/hr for 1 hour. Child grunting intermittently throughout procedure. K. Earnst RN" 3. "Feb. '05 Portacath assessed with Huber needle. Blood return present. Flushed with NaCl sol., IV gamma globulins hung and infusing at 30 ml/hr. Child smiling and playful throughout the procedure. P. Potter, RN" 4. "4:00 Trach dressing removed with dime-size stain of dry serous exudate. Site cleansed with normal saline. Dried with sterile gauze. New sterile trach sponge and trach ties applied. F. Luck RN"

Q: A nurse is working with pediatric clients in a research facility. The nurse recognizes that federal guidelines are in place to delineate which pediatrics clients must give assent for participation in research trials. Based upon the client's age, the nurse would seek assent from which children? Standard Text: Select all that apply. 1. The 13-year-old client beginning participation in a research program for ADHD treatments 2. The precocious four-year-old starting as a cystic fibrosis research study participant 3. The 10-year-old starting in an investigative study for clients with precocious puberty 4. The seven-year-old leukemia client electing to receive a newly developed medication being researched

Q: All of the following adolescents are in the emergency room for treatment. Which adolescent would be an emancipated minor? 1. The 15-year-old adolescent who disagrees with the parents in regard to the medical plan of care 2. The 14-year-old adolescent who understands the risks and benefits of treatment 3. The 17-year-old adolescent who is self-supporting and maintains her own apartment 4. The 16-year-old adolescent who ran away from home and is living with a friend

Q: A 12-year-old child is being admitted to the unit for a surgical procedure. The child is accompanied by two parents and a younger sibling. The level of involvement in treatment decision making for this child is: 1. That of a mature minor. 2. That of an emancipated minor. 3. That of assent. 4. None.

Q: A child is being prepared for an invasive procedure in the presence of the child's babysitter. The single mother of the child has legal custody but is not present. After details of the procedure are explained, the legal informed consent for treatment on behalf of a minor child will be obtained from: 1. The divorced parent without custody. 2. The babysitter with written proxy consent. 3. A grandparent who lives in the home with the child. 4. The cohabitating unmarried boyfriend of the child's mother.

Q: A 12-year-old pediatric client is in need of surgery. The health care member who is legally responsible for obtaining informed consent for an invasive procedure is the: 1. Nurse. 2. Social worker. 3. Unit secretary. 4. Physician.

Q: Despite the availability of the Children's Health Insurance Program (CHIP), families often fail to obtain coverage for eligible children because: 1. They do not see the importance of insurance coverage. 2. Families do not have adequate time to complete the enrollment process. 3. They do not know their child is eligible. 4. Parents do not value medical interventions for their children.

Q: With regard to infant mortality statistics, which nursing intervention would be most effective in decreasing post-neonatal mortality? 1. Teaching parents about "baby-proofing" their home 2. Educating parents on acceptable feeding techniques 3. Providing support for first-time mothers 4. Educating parents on the importance of positioning the baby on his back whenever sleeping

Q: With regard to child mortality statistics, which nursing intervention would be most effective in decreasing mortality from unintentional injury? 1. Teaching children about dangers of contact sports 2. Encouraging parents to obtain genetic counseling 3. Educating parents about the benefits of immunizations 4. Teaching parents about proper use of vehicle restraint seats

Q: When discussing injury prevention with the parents of a toddler, which statement indicates teaching has been successful? "The leading cause of death in children is: 1. Unintentional injury." 2. Infectious disease." 3. Congenital anomalies." 4. Cancer."

Q: The telephone triage nurse at a pediatric clinic knows that each call is important. However, recognizing that infant deaths are most frequent in this group, the nurse must be extra attentive during the call from the parent of an infant who is: 1. Between six and eight months old. 2. Of a Native American family. 3. Of a non-Hispanic black family. 4. Younger than three weeks old.

Q: A 7-year-old child has been admitted for acute appendicitis. The parents are questioning the nurse about expectations during the child's recovery. Which information tool would be most useful in answering a parent's questions about timing of key events? 1. Healthy People 2020 2. National clinical practice guidelines 3. Child mortality statistics 4. Critical clinical pathways

Q: The role of the registered nurse as a nurse educator is to: 1. Provide primary care for healthy children. 2. Assist the family in making informed decisions by providing information about the pros and cons of the treatment plan. 3. Assist the primary care nurse with procedures requiring advanced practice skills. 4. Communicate with the hospitalized school-aged child's classroom teacher to assist the child in achieving classroom goals.

Q: A nurse is examining different nursing roles. Which best illustrates an advanced practice nursing role? 1. A clinical nurse specialist with whom other nurses consult for her expertise in caring for high-risk children 2. A clinical nurse specialist working as a staff nurse on a medical-surgical pediatric unit 3. A registered nurse who is the circulating nurse in surgery 4. A registered nurse who is the manager of a large pediatric unit

Q: Despite the availability of Children's Health Insurance Programs (CHIP), many eligible children are not enrolled. The nursing intervention that can best help eligible children to become enrolled is: 1. Educating the family about the need for keeping regular well-child visit appointments. 2. Assessing details of the family's income and expenditures. 3. Limiting costly, unnecessary duplication of services through case management. 4. Advocating for the child by encouraging the family to investigate CHIP eligibility.

Q: The nurse in a pediatric acute care unit is assigned the following tasks. Based on recognition that the action defined requires training beyond the preparation of a registered nurse, the nurse would refuse to: 1. Diagnose a six-year-old with diversional activity deficit related to placement in isolation. 2. Listen to the concerns of an adolescent about being out of school for a lengthy surgical recovery. 3. Diagnose an eight-year-old with acute otitis media and prescribe an antibiotic. 4. Provide information to a mother of a newly diagnosed four-year-old diabetic about local support group options.

Q: A client with terminal cancer is experiencing mild pain. What analgesic should the nurse provide for this client? 1. NSAID 2. Codeine 3. Morphine 4. Hydrocodone

Q: A client is nearing death and begins to cry. What should the nurse do to provide emotional care to this client? 1. Stay physically close 2. Offer the client privacy 3. Remove all noxious odors 4. Move the bed near the window

Q: A client with a terminal illness is in the depression stage of the grieving process. What should the nurse do to help this client? 1. Offer support and reassurance to family 2. Encourage client to talk when ready to do so 3. Remain with client and share on a nonverbal level 4. Assist with contacting spiritual counselor or hospital chaplain

Q: The nurse reviews palliative care with a client experiencing a chronic illness. Which client statement indicates that teaching has been effective? 1. "I can be on palliative care for 6 months." 2. "The expected outcome of palliative care improved quality of life." 3. "Palliative care neither slows down nor speeds up the dying process." 4. "Palliative care supports the philosophy that death is an integral part of the life cycle."

Q: The nurse suspects that a new widow is demonstrating a morbid reaction to grief. What did the nurse observe to come to this conclusion? 1. Will not eat 2. Continually cries 3. Has not slept for several days 4. Has the deceased spouse's symptoms

Q: After learning of having cancer a client begins to demonstrate psychological symptoms of grief. What did the nurse most likely assess in this client? 1. Crying 2. Insomnia 3. Anorexia 4. Gastrointestinal disturbances

Q: The nurse educator is reviewing Elisabeth Kubler-Ross's stages of grief with a group of oncology nurses. In which order should the nurse review these stages? 1. Anger 2. Denial 3. Depression 4. Acceptance 5. Bargaining

Q: The spouse of a recently deceased client is observed crying and expressing anger to anyone who asks if any help is needed. In which stage of grieving is this spouse? 1. Resolution 2. Restitution 3. Idealization 4. Developing awareness

Q: The nurse recognizes the client's death is impending when which assessment finding is noted? 1. Extremities appear mottled and cyanotic 2. Client requests a meeting with spiritual counselor 3. Heart rate and blood pressure increases 4. Increased appetite

Q: The nurse is providing care for a client with terminal breast cancer. The client's children ask if their mother will exhibit any signs and symptoms prior to death. When responding to the family, which statements regarding the expected clinical manifestations of impending death will the nurse include? Standard Text: Select all that apply. 1. "Your mother's jaw may sag." 2. "Your mother may have difficulty speaking." 3. "Your mother may have trouble swallowing." 4. "Your mother may feel hot to the touch." 5. "Your mother may begin to breathe only through her nose."

Q: The nurse is providing care to a client who is diagnosed with a terminal illness. When meeting the physiological needs of this dying client, which items will the nurse include in the assessment process? Standard Text: Select all that apply. 1. Determine if the client has advance directives. 2. Determine if the client is experiencing any physiological signs of impending death. 3. Ask questions to determine ways to support the client and family. 4. Ask the family if they want to view the body after death. 5. Provide adequate pain control.

Q: Immediately after a client dies, who is the nurse responsible for notifying? 1. Family 2. Primary care provider 3. Funeral home 4. Coroner, if indicated

Q: The nurse is caring for a client who has just died. When performing postmortem care, which nursing actions are appropriate for this client? Standard Text: Select all that apply. 1. Positing the client in a supine position 2. Placing the client's arms crossed over the chest 3. Closing the client's eyes 4. Inserting the client's dentures in the mouth 5. Pulling the top linens to the client's shoulder.

Q: The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with a terminal illness and experiencing a great deal of pain. After administration of IV analgesia, the client continues to complain of severe pain. Which action by the nurse is the most appropriate in this situation? 1. Explain to the client the need to wait for further medication to prevent overdosage complications. 2. Ask the family to help divert the client from the discomfort. 3. Call the health care provider, if necessary, to request an order for additional analgesia. 4. Wait an hour for the medication to take effect.

Q: When delegating postmortem care to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), it is essential that the nurse inform the UAP of which piece of information? 1. The tubes or other medical devices to be left in place 2. The disposition of the body after postmortem care is completed 3. The method to contact the family 4. The information to be documented in the medical record

Q: Which role is the nurse least likely to perform when working with families of dying clients? 1. Providing financial support 2. Providing emotional support 3. Assisting with connecting families with available resources 4. Assessing families' coping and grieving process

Q: The nurse is providing postmortem. For which reason should the nurse elevate the client's head? 1. Preventrigor mortis 2. Prevent facial discoloration 3. Algor mortis 4. Post mortis

Q: A client in the intensive care is prescribed every 1 hour serum electrolyte levels and arterial blood gases every 2 hours. What should be done to prevent this client from developing nosocomial anemia? 1. Use a blood conservatory process 2. Place blood obtained in cups of ice 3. Increase intravenous fluids by 50 mL/hr 4. Provided one half of the blood required for each test

Q: A client is being evaluated for arterial line placement. What should the nurse do after compressing both arteries at the client's right wrist? 1. Count the client's radial pulse rate 2. Instruct the client to flex and extend the forearm several times 3. Instruct the client to clench and unclench the fist several times 4. Have unlicensed assistive personnel measure the blood pressure

Q: A client in the intensive care unit is having an arterial line inserted. For what should the nurse anticipate using this client's line? Select all that apply. 1. Analyze acid-base status 2. Determine respiratory status 3. Evaluate treatment for alterations in arterial blood gases 4. Easy access to blood sampling for arterial blood gases and other lab values 5. Continuous measurement of the systolic, diastolic, and mean arterial pressures

Q: The nurse is preparing to take hemodynamic measurements on a client but notices the sign "do not inflate" on the transducer. What should this information indicate to the nurse? Select all that apply. 1. Blood returns from the balloon lumen 2. Catheter moved from original position 3. No resistance on the balloon when inflated 4. Syringe plunger failed to retract spontaneously 5. Stopcock on the transducer needs to be replaced

Q: The nurse is analyzing a client's tracing for a pulmonary arterial wedge pressure. For which characteristic should the nurse analyze this tracing? 1. Dicrotic notch 2. Wandering baseline 3. Premature ventricular contractions 4. Higher and more pronounced pressure waveform,

Q: The nurse notes that the transducer for a client's hemodynamic monitoring catheter is above the level of the right atrium. What effect should the nurse expect because of the location of the transducer? 1. Lower readings 2. Higher readings 3. Monitor tracings will be flat lined 4. Inability to adequately zero the device

Q: A client in intensive care has a multi-lumen, balloon-tipped, flow-directed catheter in place. What hemodynamic measurements should the nurse expect from this catheter? Select all that apply. 1. Right atrial pressure 2. Mean arterial pressure 3. Pulmonary artery pressure 4. System vascular resistance 5. Pulmonary arterial wedge pressure

Q: The nurse is documenting care for a ventilated client. Which items are appropriate for the nurse to include in the documentation? Standard Text: Select all that apply. 1. Assignment of suctioning to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) 2. Client response to ventilator changes 3. Pertinent laboratory values, such as arterial blood gas results 4. Physical assessment findings 5. Pain rating using an appropriate pain rating scale

Q: When weaning a client from the ventilator, what should the nurse document in addition to routine assessments performed for any client requiring mechanical ventilation with an artificial airway in place? 1. The details and length of the weaning trial 2. The client's oxygen saturation 3. The client's breath sounds 4. The client's respiratory rate

Q: The nurse is caring for a client being weaned from the ventilator. When performing a spontaneous breathing trial, which item is not a priority assessment?1. Mental status2. Oxygen saturation3. Vital signs4. Ability to speak

Q: Immediately after moving the oral endotracheal airway to the other side of the client's mouth, the low pressure alarm sounds. What should the nurse do first? 1. Providing oral care 2. Suctioning the airway 3. Checking for correct tube placement 4. Checking tube cuff inflation

Q: The nurse is providing care for a client requiring mechanical ventilation. When the nurse enters the room at the beginning of the shift, the client's monitor displays a heart rate of 64 and oxygen saturation of 88%. Which nursing action is the priority? 1. Increasing the oxygen concentration and quickly assessing the client 2. Removing the client from the ventilator and hyperoxygenating and hyperventilating the client 3. Assessing the client for airway obstruction 4. Checking ventilator settings

Q: Which task could the nurse safely delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?1. Changing ventilator settings according to the primary care provider's order2. Moving the location of the endotracheal tube from one side of the mouth to the other side3. Measuring airway cuff pressure4. Assist with repositioning a client

Q: The nurse working in the intensive care unit is assigned a client requiring mechanical ventilation. When responding to the ventilator alarm, the nurse sees a high-pressure alarm. Which nursing action is the priority? 1. Silencing the alarm 2. Removing the client from the ventilator and using a bag-valve device to oxygenate the client until the respiratory therapist can be summoned 3. Emptying the collected water from the ventilator tubing 4. Assessing the client

Q: The nurse caring for a client requiring mechanical ventilation. Which action by the nurse would be inappropriate when providing care to this client? 1. Confirming airway placement by auscultating the lungs and checking the length marking of the tube at the lip 2. Assuring that tube cuff inflation is no greater than 15 cm H2O, and that there is no audible air leak 3. Assuring ventilator tubing is secured and does not pull on the client's airway 4. Verifying correct ventilator settings

Q: The nurse is caring for a client with atelectasis. Which prescription from the health care provider should the nurse anticipate to correct this problem? 1. Increase oxygen concentration 2. Increase flow rate 3. Increase tidal volume 4. Set PEEP at 6 cm H2O

Q: The nurse working with a student nurse is providing care for a client requiring mechanical ventilation. The student nurse asks the meaning of assist control. Which response by the nurse is the most appropriate? 1. "Assist control is a means of delivering ventilation that delivers a preset volume and/or pressure each time the client begins an inspiration." 2. "Assist control allows the client to breathe independently, but supplies a breath if the client does not begin an inhalation in a specified period of time." 3. "Assist control is used when weaning a client from the ventilator because the client must exercise the muscles of respiration in order to get a full breath." 4. "Assist control is often used when a client is receiving a paralytic agent."

Q: The nurse determines that a client's intracranial pressure waveform is normal. What did the nurse observe to make this clinical determination? 1. Three pressure peaks 4. Absence of pressure peaks 3. Synchronization with heart rate 2. Synchronization with respiratory rate

Q: A client's ventriculostomy catheter has stopped draining. What should the nurse do? 1. Notify the health care provider 2. Inject heparin through the drain 3. Aspirate the drain with a 10 mL syringe 4. Flush the drain with sterile normal saline

Q: The nurse is caring for a client with a traumatic brain injury who has questionable cerebral cortex activity. Which finding is a definitive diagnosis for brain death? 1. Apnea 2. No gag reflex 3. No corneal reflex 4. No response to noxious stimuli

Q: The nurse wants to assess consciousness, agitation, anxiety, sleep, and ventilatory synchrony in a client with a traumatic brain injury. Which scale should the nurse use for this assessment? 1. Ramsay Sedation 2. Riker Sedation-Agitation 3. AACN Sedation Assessment 4. Richmond Agitation-Sedation

Q: The nurse decides to use the Un-Responsiveness (FOUR) Score Coma Scale to determine a client's level of consciousness. What client finding caused the nurse to make this decision? 1. Deafness 2. Fractured left leg 3. Prescribed opioid analgesics 4. Wears prescription eyeglasses

Q: The nurse notes that a client has an elevated cholesterol level. Which health problem is this client at risk for developing? 1. Osteoarthritis 2. Ischemic stroke 3. Hemorrhagic stroke 4. Traumatic brain injury

Q: The nurse is planning care for a client with increased intracranial pressure. Which intervention should the nurse add to this client's care plan? 1. Keep the head of the bed flat 2. Provide with opioid analgesic for pain 3. Administer hypertonic saline as prescribed 4. Hyperventilate with 100% oxygen every 2 hours

Q: The nurse suspects that a client with a brain tumor is experiencing increasing intracranial pressure. What findings did the nurse use to make this clinical determination? Select all that apply. 1. Extreme thirst 2. Projectile vomiting 3. Weak left hand grasp 4. Unresponsive right pupil 5. Blood pressure 180/48 mm Hg

Q: A client with increased intracranial pressure caused by a traumatic brain injury is in a coma. What approach should the nurse use to assess this client's impaired consciousness? 1. Glasgow Coma Scale 2. Determine degree of brainstem reflexes 3. Assess pupillary response to light and accommodation 4. Use the Un-Responsiveness (FOUR) Score Coma Scale

Q: A client has a history of normal pressure hydrocephaly. What physiological function most likely occurs to maintain this client's intracranial pressure within normal limits? Select all that apply. 1. Displacing of brain tissue 2. Administer osmotic diuretics 3. Reducing the amount of cerebral oxygen 4. Compressing the cerebral venous system 5. Shunting of cerebrospinal fluid to the lumbar space

Q: A client is demonstrating manifestations of increased intracranial pressure. Which finding supports that this increased pressure is being caused by an increase in brain tissue? 1. Oxygen saturation 86% 2. Mass in the parietal lobe 3. Subarachnoid hemorrhage 4. Fractured thoracic vertebrae

Q: The nurse is concerned that a client is experiencing an increase in intracranial pressure. Which anatomical structures most likely are affecting this pressure? Select all that apply. 1. Brain tissue 2. Lymph drainage 3. Venous integrity 4. Cerebrospinal fluid 5. Cerebral blood volume

Q: A client recovering from a head injury has a blood pressure of 158/90 mm Hg and an intracranial pressure reading of 17 mm Hg. What is this client's cerebral perfusion pressure?

Q: A client's blood pressure is 180/120 mm Hg. How will the client's neurologic system adapt to this increase in blood pressure? 1. Arteries in the brain dilate 2. Cerebrospinal fluid increases 3. Arteries in the brain constrict 4. Cerebrospinal fluid decreases

Q: A client, recovering from a motor vehicle crash, has no damage to the neurologic system despite being thrown from the car. What anatomical feature most likely protected this client's neurologic system? 1. Cervical vertebrae 2. Cerebrospinal fluid 3. Intervertebral cartilage 4. Thoracic and lumbar spinal curves

Q: The nurse is caring for clients on a medical-surgical care area. Which client observation should the nurse suspect is being caused by a metabolic disorder? 1. New onset of confusion 2. Poor appetite for breakfast 3. Pain rated as a 5 on a scale from 0 to 10 4. Increased sputum production in the morning

Q: During an assessment the nurse suspects that a client is experiencing a disorder of the cerebellum. What did the nurse assess to make this clinical determination? 1. Tremors 2. Auditory hallucinations 3. Loss of short-term memory 4. Poor hand-eye coordination