Q&A Hero

Q: A patient calls the clinic for instructions before having a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear. The most appropriate instructions from the nurse are: a. "If you are menstruating, please use pads to avoid placing anything into the vagina." b. "Avoid intercourse, inserting anything into the vagina, or douching within 24 hours of your appointment." c. "If you suspect that you have a vaginal infection, please gather a sample of the discharge to bring with you." d. "We would like you to use a mild saline douche before your examination. You may pick this up in our office."

Q: The nurse is examining a 35-year-old female patient. During the health history, the nurse notices that she has had two term pregnancies, and both babies were delivered vaginally. During the internal examination, the nurse observes that the cervical os is a horizontal slit with some healed lacerations and that the cervix has some nabothian cysts that are small, smooth, and yellow. In addition, the nurse notices that the cervical surface is granular and red, especially around the os. Finally, the nurse notices the presence of stringy, opaque, odorless secretions. Which of these findings are abnormal? a. Nabothian cysts are present. b. The cervical os is a horizontal slit. c. The cervical surface is granular and red. d. Stringy and opaque secretions are present.

Q: During an internal examination of a woman's genitalia, the nurse will use which technique for proper insertion of the speculum? a. The woman is instructed to bear down, the speculum blades are opened and applied in a swift, upward movement. b. The blades of the speculum are inserted on a horizontal plane, turning them to a 30-degree angle while continuing to insert them. The woman is asked to bear down after the speculum is inserted. c. The woman is instructed to bear down, the width of the blades are horizontally turned, and the speculum is inserted downward at a 45-degree angle toward the small of the woman's back. d. The blades are locked open by turning the thumbscrew. Once the blades are open, pressure is applied to the introitus and the blades are inserted downward at a 45-degree angle to bring the cervix into view.

Q: The nurse is preparing for an internal genitalia examination of a woman. Which order of the examination is correct? a. Bimanual, speculum, and rectovaginal b. Speculum, rectovaginal, and bimanual c. Speculum, bimanual, and rectovaginal d. Rectovaginal, bimanual, and speculum

Q: The nurse has just completed an inspection of a nulliparous woman's external genitalia. Which of these would be a description of a finding within normal limits? a. Redness of the labia majora b. Multiple nontender sebaceous cysts c. Discharge that is foul smelling and irritating d. Gaping and slightly shriveled labia majora

Q: An 18-year-old patient is having her first pelvic examination. Which action by the nurse is appropriate? a. Inviting her mother to be present during the examination b. Avoiding the lithotomy position for this first time because it can be uncomfortable and embarrassing c. Raising the head of the examination table and giving her a mirror so that she can view the examination d. Fully draping her, leaving the drape between her legs elevated to avoid embarrassing her with eye contact

Q: During the examination portion of a patient's visit, she will be in lithotomy position. Which statement reflects some things that the nurse can do to make this position more comfortable for her? a. Ask her to place her hands and arms over her head. b. Elevate her head and shoulders to maintain eye contact. c. Allow her to choose to have her feet in the stirrups or have them resting side by side on the edge of the table. d. Allow her to keep her buttocks approximately 6 inches from the edge of the table to prevent her from feeling as if she will fall off.

Q: The nurse is preparing to interview a postmenopausal woman. Which of these statements is true as it applies to obtaining the health history of a postmenopausal woman? a. The nurse should ask a postmenopausal woman if she has ever had vaginal bleeding. b. Once a woman reaches menopause, the nurse does not need to ask any history questions. c. The nurse should screen for monthly breast tenderness. d. Postmenopausal women are not at risk for contracting STIs; therefore, these questions can be omitted.

Q: When the nurse is discussing sexuality and sexual issues with an adolescent, a permission statement helps convey that it is normal to think or feel a certain way. Which statement is the best example of a permission statement? a. "It is okay that you have become sexually active." b. "Girls your age often have questions about sexual activity. Do you have any questions?" c. "If it is okay with you, I"d like to ask you some questions about your sexual history." d. "Girls your age often engage in sexual activities. It is okay to tell me if you have had intercourse."

Q: When the nurse is interviewing a preadolescent girl, which opening question would be least threatening? a. "Do you have any questions about growing up?" b. "What has your mother told you about growing up?" c. "When did you notice that your body was changing?" d. "I remember being very scared when I got my period. How do you think you"ll feel?"

Q: A nurse is assessing a patient's risk of contracting a sexually transmitted infection (STI). An appropriate question to ask would be: a. "You know that it's important to use condoms for protection, right?" b. "Do you use a condom with each episode of sexual intercourse?" c. "Do you have a sexually transmitted infection?" d. "You are aware of the dangers of unprotected sex, aren"t you?"

Q: A married couple has come to the clinic seeking advice on pregnancy. They have been trying to conceive for 4 months and have not been successful. What should the nurse do first? a. Ascertain whether either of them has been using broad-spectrum antibiotics. b. Explain that couples are considered infertile after 1 year of unprotected intercourse. c. Immediately refer the woman to an expert in pelvic inflammatory diseasethe most common cause of infertility. d. Explain that couples are considered infertile after 3 months of engaging in unprotected intercourse and that they will need a referral to a fertility expert.

Q: A 22-year-old woman has been considering using oral contraceptives. As a part of her health history, the nurse should ask: a. "Do you have a history of heart murmurs?" b. "Will you be in a monogamous relationship?" c. "Have you carefully thought this choice through?" d. "If you smoke, how many cigarettes do you smoke per day?"

Q: Which statement would be most appropriate when the nurse is introducing the topic of sexual relationships during an interview? a. "Now, it is time to talk about your sexual history. When did you first have intercourse?" b. "Women often feel dissatisfied with their sexual relationships. Would it be okay to discuss this now?" c. "Women often have questions about their sexual relationship and how it affects their health. Do you have any questions?" d. "Most women your age have had more than one sexual partner. How many would you say you have had?"

Q: A woman states that 2 weeks ago she had a urinary tract infection that was treated with an antibiotic. As a part of the interview, the nurse should ask, "Have you noticed any: a. "Changes in your urination patterns?" b. "Excessive vaginal bleeding?" c. "Unusual vaginal discharge or itching?" d. "Changes in your desire for intercourse?"

Q: During the interview, a patient reveals that she has some vaginal discharge. She is worried that it may be a sexually transmitted infection. The nurse's most appropriate response to this would be: a. "Oh, don"t worry. Some cyclic vaginal discharge is normal." b. "Have you been engaging in unprotected sexual intercourse?" c. "I"d like some information about the discharge. What color is it?" d. "Have you had any urinary incontinence associated with the discharge?"

Q: A 52-year-old patient states that when she sneezes or coughs she "wets herself a little." She is very concerned that something may be wrong with her. The nurse suspects that the problem is: a. Dysuria. b. Stress incontinence. c. Hematuria. d. Urge incontinence.

Q: A 50-year-old woman calls the clinic because she has noticed some changes in her body and breasts and wonders if these changes could be attributable to the hormone replacement therapy (HRT) she started 3 months earlier. The nurse should tell her: a. "HRT is at such a low dose that side effects are very unusual." b. "HRT has several side effects, including fluid retention, breast tenderness, and vaginal bleeding." c. "Vaginal bleeding with HRT is very unusual; I suggest you come into the clinic immediately to have this evaluated." d. "It sounds as if your dose of estrogen is too high; I think you may need to decrease the amount you are taking and then call back in a week."

Q: During the interview with a female patient, the nurse gathers data that indicate the patient is perimenopausal. Which of these statements made by this patient leads to this conclusion? a. "I have noticed that my muscles ache at night when I go to bed." b. "I will be very happy when I can stop worrying about having a period." c. "I have been noticing that I sweat a lot more than I used to, especially at night." d. "I have only been pregnant twice, but both times I had breast tenderness as my first symptom."

Q: A patient has had three pregnancies and two live births. The nurse would record this information as grav _____, para _____, AB _____. a. 2; 2; 1 b. 3; 2; 0 c. 3; 2; 1 d. 3; 3; 1

Q: A woman is in the clinic for an annual gynecologic examination. The nurse should plan to begin the interview with the: a. Menstrual history, because it is generally nonthreatening. b. Obstetric history, because it includes the most important information. c. Urinary system history, because problems may develop in this area as well. d. Sexual history, because discussing it first will build rapport.

Q: A 54-year-old woman who has just completed menopause is in the clinic today for a yearly physical examination. Which of these statements should the nurse include in patient education? "A postmenopausal woman: a. Is not at any greater risk for heart disease than a younger woman." b. Should be aware that she is at increased risk for dyspareunia because of decreased vaginal secretions." c. Has only stopped menstruating; there really are no other significant changes with which she should be concerned." d. Is likely to have difficulty with sexual pleasure as a result of drastic changes in the female sexual response cycle."

Q: The nurse is reviewing the changes that occur with menopause. Which changes are associated with menopause? a. Uterine and ovarian atrophy, along with a thinning of the vaginal epithelium b. Ovarian atrophy, increased vaginal secretions, and increasing clitoral size c. Cervical hypertrophy, ovarian atrophy, and increased acidity of vaginal secretions d. Vaginal mucosa fragility, increased acidity of vaginal secretions, and uterine hypertrophy

Q: Generally, the changes normally associated with menopause occur because the cells in the reproductive tract are: a. Aging. b. Becoming fibrous. c. Estrogen dependent. d. Able to respond to estrogen.

Q: A woman who is 8 weeks pregnant is in the clinic for a checkup. The nurse reads on her chart that her cervix is softened and looks cyanotic. The nurse knows that the woman is exhibiting __________ sign and __________ sign. a. Tanner; Hegar b. Hegar; Goodell c. Chadwick; Hegar d. Goodell; Chadwick

Q: An 11-year-old girl is in the clinic for a sports physical examination. The nurse notices that she has begun to develop breasts, and during the conversation the girl reveals that she is worried about her development. The nurse should use which of these techniques to best assist the young girl in understanding the expected sequence for development? The nurse should: a. Use the Tanner scale on the five stages of sexual development. b. Describe her development and compare it with that of other girls her age. c. Use the Jacobsen table on expected development on the basis of height and weight data. d. Reassure her that her development is within normal limits and tell her not to worry about the next step.

Q: The uterus is usually positioned tilting forward and superior to the bladder. This position is known as: a. Anteverted and anteflexed. b. Retroverted and anteflexed. c. Retroverted and retroflexed. d. Superiorverted and anteflexed.

Q: During a speculum inspection of the vagina, the nurse would expect to see what at the end of the vaginal canal? a. Cervix b. Uterus c. Ovaries d. Fallopian tubes

Q: During an examination, the nurse observes a female patient's vestibule and expects to see the: a. Urethral meatus and vaginal orifice. b. Vaginal orifice and vestibular (Bartholin) glands. c. Urethral meatus and paraurethral (Skene) glands. d. Paraurethral (Skene) and vestibular (Bartholin) glands.

Q: During a health history, a 22-year old woman asks, "Can I get that vaccine for human papilloma virus (HPV)? I have genital warts and I"d like them to go away!" What is the nurse's best response? a. "The HPV vaccine is for girls and women ages 9 to 26 years, so we can start that today." b. "This vaccine is only for girls who have not yet started to become sexually active." c. "Let's check with the physician to see if you are a candidate for this vaccine." d. "The vaccine cannot protect you if you already have an HPV infection."

Q: The nurse is performing a digital examination of a patient's prostate gland and notices that a normal prostate gland includes which of the following characteristics? Select all that apply. a. 1 cm protrusion into the rectum b. Heart-shaped with a palpable central groove c. Flat shape with no palpable groove d. Boggy with a soft consistency e. Smooth surface, elastic, and rubbery consistency f. Fixed mobility

Q: During the taking of a health history, the patient states, "It really hurts back there, and sometimes it itches, too. I have even seen blood on the tissue when I have a bowel movement. Is there something there?" The nurse should expect to see which of these upon examination of the anus? a. Rectal prolapse b. Internal hemorrhoid c. External hemorrhoid that has resolved d. External hemorrhoid that is thrombosed

Q: During a digital examination of the rectum, the nurse notices that the patient has hard feces in the rectum. The patient complains of feeling "full," has a distended abdomen, and states that she has not had a bowel movement "for several days." The nurse suspects which condition? a. Rectal polyp b. Fecal impaction c. Rectal abscess d. Rectal prolapse

Q: While assessing a patient who is hospitalized and bedridden, the nurse notices that the patient has been incontinent of stool. The stool is loose and gray-tan in color. The nurse recognizes that this finding indicates which of the following? a. Occult blood b. Inflammation c. Absent bile pigment d. Ingestion of iron preparations

Q: During a health history of a patient who complains of chronic constipation, the patient asks the nurse about high-fiber foods. The nurse relates that an example of a high-fiber food would be: a. Broccoli. b. Hamburger. c. Iceberg lettuce. d. Yogurt.

Q: The nurse notices that a patient has had a pale, yellow, greasy stool, or steatorrhea, and recalls that this is caused by: a. Occult bleeding. b. Absent bile pigment. c. Increased fat content. d. Ingestion of bismuth preparations.

Q: Which characteristic of the prostate gland would the nurse recognize as an abnormal finding while palpating the prostate gland through the rectum? a. Palpable central groove b. Tenderness to palpation c. Heart shaped d. Elastic and rubbery consistency

Q: During a discussion for a men's health group, the nurse relates that the group with the highest incidence of prostate cancer is: a. Asian Americans. b. Blacks. c. American Indians. d. Hispanics.

Q: A 62-year-old man is experiencing fever, chills, malaise, urinary frequency, and urgency. He also reports urethral discharge and a dull aching pain in the perineal and rectal area. These symptoms are most consistent with which condition? a. Prostatitis b. Polyps c. Carcinoma of the prostate d. BPH

Q: A 40-year-old black man is in the office for his annual physical examination. Which statement regarding the PSA blood test is true, according to the American Cancer Society? The PSA: a. Should be performed with this visit. b. Should be performed at age 45 years. c. Should be performed at age 50 years. d. Is only necessary if a family history of prostate cancer exists.

Q: A 70-year-old man is visiting the clinic for difficulty in passing urine. In the health history, he indicates that he has to urinate frequently, especially at night. He has burning when he urinates and has noticed pain in his back. Considering this history, what might the nurse expect to find during the physical assessment? a. Asymmetric, hard, and fixed prostate gland b. Occult blood and perianal pain to palpation c. Symmetrically enlarged, soft prostate gland d. Soft nodule protruding from the rectal mucosa

Q: During an examination, the nurse asks the patient to perform the Valsalva maneuver and notices that the patient has a moist, red, doughnut-shaped protrusion from the anus. The nurse knows that this finding is consistent with a: a. Rectal polyp. b. Hemorrhoid. c. Rectal fissure. d. Rectal prolapse.

Q: During an assessment of a 20-year-old man, the nurse finds a small palpable lesion with a tuft of hair located directly over the coccyx. The nurse knows that this lesion would most likely be a: a. Rectal polyp. b. Pruritus ani. c. Carcinoma. d. Pilonidal cyst.

Q: A 13-year-old girl is visiting the clinic for a sports physical examination. The nurse should remember to include which of these tests in the examination? a. Testing for occult blood b. Valsalva maneuver c. Internal palpation of the anus d. Inspection of the perianal area

Q: During an assessment of the newborn, the nurse expects to see which finding when the anal area is slightly stroked? a. Jerking of the legs b. Flexion of the knees c. Quick contraction of the sphincter d. Relaxation of the external sphincter

Q: While performing a rectal examination, the nurse notices a firm, irregularly shaped mass. What should the nurse do next? a. Continue with the examination, and document the finding in the chart. b. Instruct the patient to return for a repeat assessment in 1 month. c. Tell the patient that a mass was felt, but it is nothing to worry about. d. Report the finding, and refer the patient to a specialist for further examination.

Q: The nurse is preparing to palpate the rectum and should use which of these techniques? The nurse should: a. Flex the finger, and slowly insert it toward the umbilicus. b. First instruct the patient that this procedure will be painful. c. Insert an extended index finger at a right angle to the anus. d. Place the finger directly into the anus to overcome the tight sphincter.

Q: While performing an assessment of the perianal area of a patient, the nurse notices that the pigmentation of anus is darker than the surrounding skin, the anal opening is closed, and a skin sac that is shiny and blue is noted. The patient mentioned that he has had pain with bowel movements and has occasionally noted some spots of blood. What would this assessment and history most likely indicate? a. Anal fistula b. Pilonidal cyst c. Rectal prolapse d. Thrombosed hemorrhoid

Q: The nurse is examining only the rectal area of a woman and should place the woman in what position? a. Lithotomy b. Prone c. Left lateral decubitus d. Bending over the table while standing

Q: The mother of a 5-year-old girl tells the nurse that she has noticed her daughter "scratching at her bottom a lot the last few days." During the assessment, the nurse finds redness and raised skin in the anal area. This finding most likely indicates: a. Pinworms. b. Chickenpox. c. Constipation. d. Bacterial infection.

Q: After completing an assessment of a 60-year-old man with a family history of colon cancer, the nurse discusses with him early detection measures for colon cancer. The nurse should mention the need for a(n): a. Annual proctoscopy. b. Colonoscopy every 10 years. c. Fecal test for blood every 6 months. d. DREs every 2 years.

Q: A patient who is visiting the clinic complains of having "stomach pains for 2 weeks" and describes his stools as being "soft and black" for approximately the last 10 days. He denies taking any medications. The nurse is aware that these symptoms are mostly indicative of: a. Excessive fat caused by malabsorption. b. Increased iron intake, resulting from a change in diet. c. Occult blood, resulting from gastrointestinal bleeding. d. Absent bile pigment from liver problems.

Q: A 30-year-old woman is visiting the clinic because of "pain in my bottom when I have a bowel movement." The nurse should assess for which problem? a. Pinworms b. Hemorrhoids c. Colon cancer d. Fecal incontinence

Q: A 60-year-old man has just been told that he has benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). He has a friend who just died from cancer of the prostate. He is concerned this will happen to him. How should the nurse respond? a. "The swelling in your prostate is only temporary and will go away." b. "We will treat you with chemotherapy so we can control the cancer." c. "It would be very unusual for a man your age to have cancer of the prostate." d. "The enlargement of your prostate is caused by hormonal changes, and not cancer."

Q: During the assessment of an 18-month-old infant, the mother expresses concern to the nurse about the infant's inability to toilet train. What would be the nurse's best response? a. "Some children are just more difficult to train, so I wouldn"t worry about it yet." b. "Have you considered reading any of the books on toilet training? They can be very helpful." c. "This could mean that there is a problem in your baby's development. We"ll watch her closely for the next few months." d. "The nerves that will allow your baby to have control over the passing of stools are not developed until at least 18 to 24 months of age."

Q: The nurse is caring for a newborn infant. Thirty hours after birth, the infant passes a dark green meconium stool. The nurse recognizes this is important because the: a. Stool indicates anal patency. b. Dark green color indicates occult blood in the stool. c. Meconium stool can be reflective of distress in the newborn. d. Newborn should have passed the first stool within 12 hours after birth.

Q: A 46-year-old man requires an assessment of his sigmoid colon. Which instrument or technique is most appropriate for this examination? a. Proctoscope b. Ultrasound c. Colonoscope d. Rectal examination with an examining finger

Q: The structure that secretes a thin, milky alkaline fluid to enhance the viability of sperm is the: a. Cowper gland. b. Prostate gland. c. Median sulcus. d. Bulbourethral gland.

Q: The nurse is performing an examination of the anus and rectum. Which of these statements is correct and important to remember during this examination? a. The rectum is approximately 8 cm long. b. The anorectal junction cannot be palpated. c. Above the anal canal, the rectum turns anteriorly. d. No sensory nerves are in the anal canal or rectum.

Q: Which statement concerning the sphincters is correct? a. The internal sphincter is under voluntary control. b. The external sphincter is under voluntary control. c. Both sphincters remain slightly relaxed at all times. d. The internal sphincter surrounds the external sphincter.

Q: Which statement concerning the anal canal is true? The anal canal: a. Is approximately 2 cm long in the adult. b. Slants backward toward the sacrum. c. Contains hair and sebaceous glands. d. Is the outlet for the gastrointestinal tract.

Q: A 62-year-old man states that his physician told him that he has an "inguinal hernia." He asks the nurse to explain what a hernia is. The nurse should: a. Tell him not to worry and that most men his age develop hernias. b. Explain that a hernia is often the result of prenatal growth abnormalities. c. Refer him to his physician for additional consultation because the physician made the initial diagnosis. d. Explain that a hernia is a loop of bowel protruding through a weak spot in the abdominal muscles.

Q: A male patient with possible fertility problems asks the nurse where sperm is produced. The nurse knows that sperm production occurs in the: a. Testes. b. Prostate. c. Epididymis. d. Vas deferens.

Q: Which statement concerning the testes is true? a. The lymphatic vessels of the testes drain into the abdominal lymph nodes. b. The vas deferens is located along the inferior portion of each testis. c. The right testis is lower than the left because the right spermatic cord is longer. d. The cremaster muscle contracts in response to cold and draws the testicles closer to the body.

Q: When performing a genital examination on a 25-year-old man, the nurse notices deeply pigmented, wrinkled scrotal skin with large sebaceous follicles. On the basis of this information, the nurse would: a. Squeeze the glans to check for the presence of discharge. b. Consider this finding as normal, and proceed with the examination. c. Assess the testicles for the presence of masses or painless lumps. d. Obtain a more detailed history, focusing on any scrotal abnormalities the patient has noticed.

Q: Which of these statements is true regarding the penis? a. The urethral meatus is located on the ventral side of the penis. b. The prepuce is the fold of foreskin covering the shaft of the penis. c. The penis is made up of two cylindrical columns of erectile tissue. d. The corpus spongiosum expands into a cone of erectile tissue called the glans.

Q: An accessory glandular structure for the male genital organs is the: a. Testis. b. Scrotum. c. Prostate. d. Vas deferens.

Q: The external male genital structures include the: a. Testis. b. Scrotum. c. Epididymis. d. Vas deferens.

Q: A 16-year-old boy is brought to the clinic for a problem that he refused to let his mother see. The nurse examines him, and finds that he has scrotal swelling on the left side. He had the mumps the previous week, and the nurse suspects that he has orchitis. Which of the following assessment findings support this diagnosis? Select all that apply. a. Swollen testis b. Mass that transilluminates c. Mass that does not transilluminate d. Scrotum that is nontender upon palpation e. Scrotum that is tender upon palpation f. Scrotal skin that is reddened

Q: A 55-year-old man is in the clinic for a yearly checkup. He is worried because his father died of prostate cancer. The nurse knows which tests should be performed at this time? Select all that apply. a. Blood test for prostate-specific antigen (PSA) b. Urinalysis c. Transrectal ultrasound d. Digital rectal examination (DRE) e. Prostate biopsy

Q: During a physical examination, the nurse finds that a male patient's foreskin is fixed and tight and will not retract over the glans. The nurse recognizes that this condition is: a. Phimosis. b. Epispadias. c. Urethral stricture. d. Peyronie disease.

Q: During a genital examination, the nurse notices that a male patient has clusters of small vesicles on the glans, surrounded by erythema. The nurse recognizes that these lesions are: a. Peyronie disease. b. Genital warts. c. Genital herpes. d. Syphilitic cancer.

Q: During a health history, a patient tells the nurse that he has trouble in starting his urine stream. This problem is known as: a. Urgency. b. Dribbling. c. Frequency. d. Hesitancy.

Q: During an examination, the nurse notices that a male patient has a red, round, superficial ulcer with a yellowish serous discharge on his penis. On palpation, the nurse finds a nontender base that feels like a small button between the thumb and fingers. At this point the nurse suspects that this patient has: a. Genital warts. b. Herpes infection. c. Syphilitic chancre. d. Carcinoma lesion.

Q: The nurse is providing patient teaching about an erectile dysfunction drug. One of the drug's potential side effects is prolonged, painful erection of the penis without sexual stimulation, which is known as: a. Orchitis. b. Stricture. c. Phimosis. d. Priapism.

Q: The nurse is performing a genitourinary assessment on a 50-year-old obese male laborer. On examination, the nurse notices a painless round swelling close to the pubis in the area of the internal inguinal ring that is easily reduced when the individual is supine. These findings are most consistent with a(n) ______ hernia. a. Scrotal b. Femoral c. Direct inguinal d. Indirect inguinal

Q: A 55-year-old man is experiencing severe pain of sudden onset in the scrotal area. It is somewhat relieved by elevation. On examination the nurse notices an enlarged, red scrotum that is very tender to palpation. Distinguishing the epididymis from the testis is difficult, and the scrotal skin is thick and edematous. This description is consistent with which of these? a. Varicocele b. Epididymitis c. Spermatocele d. Testicular torsion

Q: The nurse is inspecting the scrotum and testes of a 43-year-old man. Which finding would require additional follow-up and evaluation? a. Skin on the scrotum is taut. b. Left testicle hangs lower than the right testicle. c. Scrotal skin has yellowish 1-cm nodules that are firm and nontender. d. Testes move closer to the body in response to cold temperatures.

Q: When the nurse is performing a testicular examination on a 25-year-old man, which finding is considered normal? a. Nontender subcutaneous plaques b. Scrotal area that is dry, scaly, and nodular c. Testes that feel oval and movable and are slightly sensitive to compression d. Single, hard, circumscribed, movable mass, less than 1 cm under the surface of the testes

Q: When performing a genitourinary assessment on a 16-year-old male adolescent, the nurse notices a swelling in the scrotum that increases with increased intra-abdominal pressure and decreases when he is lying down. The patient complains of pain when straining. The nurse knows that this description is most consistent with a(n) ______ hernia. a. Femoral b. Incisional c. Direct inguinal d. Indirect inguinal