Q&A Hero

Q: Which of the following best describes RAID technology? 1. The computer shuts down when a single disk fails. 2. Community clinics use a primary data storage drive. 3. RAID costs more than using one large disk drive. 4. Duplicate disks mirror copies of data.

Q: Which of the following is not a common input device? 1. Network 2. Keyboard 3. Webcamera 4. Joystick

Q: ________________________________ is defined as an electronic circuitry that executes computer instructions.

Q: What is the one byte binary code representation for the Arabic number 8? 1. 1000 2. 00001000 3. 2222 4. 11111111

Q: Which statement best describes the role of the chief privacy officer (CPO)? 1. Duties include protection of the personal health information of patients, both electronic and paper 2. Duties include strategic planning, information security, and overall management of the information system 3. Duties include assigning and monitoring system access identification codes and passwords 4. Duties include design, maintenance, and security of materials placed on the Internet, intranet, and extranet

Q: ______________________________ is the science and technology of engineering devices at the molecular level.

Q: Many workstations house clinical information systems and provide Internet access in the acute care setting. Which type of software program is most likely to be used by the health care staff providing direct patient care? 1. A programming language such as Java to access the Internet 2. A virus checker to increase security for Internet connections 3. A programming language such as COBOL to create databases 4. A programming language such as Visual Basic to enter data

Q: Research best supports the use of which ergonomic device? 1. Ergonomic mouse to reduce wrist and hand pain 2. Support brace used while typing to prevent carpal tunnel syndrome 3. Lumbar back support to maintain natural curves of the back 4. Wrist rests to support the wrists while inputting data and typing

Q: Which of these is an advantage in the use of personal digital assistants (PDAs) in the health care setting? 1. PDAs may be synchronized with any network without the use of special equipment or software. 2. PDAs minimize the chance of interception of data transmission. 3. Current medication information may be easily stored and compared to actual client data. 4. Data loss is minimized due to long battery life and ease of backups.

Q: Which of these is the most flexible and reliable secondary storage device? 1. DVD drive 2. Magnetic tape drive 3. CD-ROM drive 4. Zip drive

Q: In which instance is using a wireless device an advantage for health care provider staff? 1. More memory is needed to input data for glucose monitoring and insulin coverage. 2. Error reduction is needed to input data, such as vital signs from a client's isolation room. 3. A larger screen is needed to track data, such as medication administration times with vital signs. 4. An increase in security is needed to prevent physician orders from being intercepted on the Intranet.

Q: Which example best fits the description of a local area network (LAN)? 1. One server communicates with multiple PCs and printers 2. Office computers are connected through the use of the Internet 3. Client computers are interconnected with multiple servers 4. Internet technology is used to communicate with hospital suppliers

Q: Health care information plans include adding super users to the hospital staff. Which person is most appropriate for this role? 1. An experienced staff nurse who has been employed at the institution for three years 2. An informatics nurse specialist with a master's degree and informatics certification 3. A newly hired charge nurse who has practiced for ten years in an intensive care unit 4. A clinical nurse specialist for three departments, employed at the institution for six years

Q: Which health risk related to computer use has been best documented? 1. Miscarriage or sterility 2. Ulnar nerve syndrome 3. Carpal tunnel syndrome 4. Cataracts

Q: Which statement concerning "thin client technology" is correct? 1. System processing occurs on both the server and on the local PC. 2. A thin client consists of a display with keyboard and requires its own storage device. 3. Software exists on the server, therefore upgrades are done in one step for all clients. 4. When implemented, older PCs formerly used in networking must be replaced.

Q: Which of the following answers is the best definition of data? 1. Data are a collection of numbers, characters, or facts that are gathered according to some perceived need for analysis and possibly action at a later point in time. 2. Data are the synthesis of information derived from several sources to produce a single concept or idea. 3. The definition of data is knowledge used appropriately to manage and solve problems. 4. The general term data is used to refer to the management and processing of information with the assistance of computers.

Q: The Informatics Nurse Specialist is an integral member of the health care team with the expertise to: 1. Create a vision of what is possible in the specialty of informatics. 2. Create standardized nursing languages. 3. Create interactive web sites . 4. Create strategic plans for hardware improvement

Q: Which of the following groups have been selected to help drive the changes necessary to transform the health care delivery system, improve quality of services delivery, and improve safety? 1. Software engineers 2. Members of TIGER initiative 3. Members of the Institute of Medicine 4. Informatics nurse specialists

Q: ___________________________ fills in the educational gap between undergraduate and graduate nursing education programs in informatics.

Q: The reason that nursing lags behind in the education of nursing informatics specialists is because of which of the following? 1. The surplus of nursing informatics professionals in the hospital setting 2. The lack of qualified faculty in graduate programs 3. Too few nurses are interested in the specialty area 4. Nursing informatics is an expensive specialty with little government funding

Q: The ________________ has advanced, graduate education in nursing informatics or a related field and may hold ANCC certification.

Q: Access to patient care data and utilization of nursing research are essential components of evidence-based practice designed to increase patient safety and provide quality care. Which of the following can technology cannot be employed to remove barriers to information and evidence-based practice? 1. Online report cards 2. Handheld devices 3. Electronic spreadsheet software to manage data 4. World Wide Web

Q: CPOE is an acronym for_____________.

Q: Technology has been useful in reducing errors by assisting the health care team to identify the patient before rendering care. The most common way for nurses to identify patients using technology is through which of the following? 1. Handheld devices 2. Use of barcodes 3. Use of computers on wheels 4. Reviewing patient monitors

Q: The Quality and Safety Education for Nursing (QSEN) project sets an agenda to improve the quality and safety of the health care delivery system. To achieve the goals set by QSEN, the Institute of Medicine (IOM) suggested the following competencies for nurses except for which of the following? 1. Patient centered care 2. Team work and collaboration 3. Informatics and evidence-based practice 4. Professional code of conduct

Q: The TIGER initiative is an acronym for which of the following? 1. Technology Information Grants Electronic Records 2. Technological Initiative Given Electronic Reform 3. Technology Informatics Guiding Education Reform 4. Technology Information Guiding Electronic Reports

Q: Nurses need to become skilled at using patient-centered IT tools to access information that can expand their knowledge in a just-in-time, evidence-based approach. Which one of these answers best indicates the nurse is functioning as a knowledge worker? 1. The nurse assumes the role of knowledge user. 2. The nurse shifts from primarily using critical thinking to also using critical synthesis. 3. The nurse assumes the roles of data gatherer and information user. 4. The nurse utilizes computerized assessment and documentation forms, including prompts.

Q: Information is defined as which of the following? 1. The management and processing of facts 2. Interpreted data 3. A collection of numbers, characters, or facts that are needed for analysis and possible action 4. A synthesis of data derived from several sources to produce a single concept or idea

Q: Which of the following examples demonstrate how nursing informatics helps to support nursing practice? Standard Text: Select all that apply. 1. Quick access to computer-archived patient data from previous encounters 2. Computer-generated client documentation including discharge instructions 3. Computer-generated nursing care plans and critical pathways 4. Tools to assist consumers in assuming greater responsibility for payment for services 5. Prompts that appear during documentation to ensure comprehensive charting

Q: Which role is only appropriate for the informatics nurse specialist (INS)? 1. Disseminating information for appropriate health care uses 2. Transforming data into information 3. Transforming information into knowledge 4. The design of nursing research protocols and databases

Q: Which of the following is not associated with information literacy? 1. Recognizing when information is needed 2. Ability to find, evaluate, and effectively use information 3. Familiarity with the use of personal computers and software 4. Understanding ethical issues surrounding the use of information

Q: Nursing informatics employs information and computer technology to support all aspects of nursing practice, including research. Which is an example of supporting research? 1. Development of a standardized nursing language 2. Identifying evidence of best clinical nursing practices 3. Familiarity with spreadsheets and statistics software and analysis 4. Housing collected client data within automated record systems

Q: The American Nurses Credentialing Center (ANCC) incorporated the foundation provided by the American Nurses Association (ANA) in its definition of nursing informatics and scope and standards of practice. Applicants for the Informatics Nurse credentialing examination are required to meet which of the following minimum criteria? Standard Text: Select all that apply. 1. Advanced graduate education in nursing informatics (or related field) 2. Equivalent of two years of full-time professional practice 3. Professional clinical practice for at least 500 hours 4. Baccalaureate or higher degree in nursing (or relevant field baccalaureate) 5. Current, active license as a professional nurse

Q: Knowledge management is a structured process for the generation, storage, distribution, and application of what kind of knowledge in the organization? Standard Text: Select all that apply. 1. Chronological knowledge 2. Redundant knowledge 3. Tacit knowledge (personal experience) 4. Generational knowledge 5. Explicit knowledge (evidence)

Q: There are no available nursing informatics programs including doctoral degrees; therefore, nurses prepare for advanced practice through medical informatics curriculum. This answer is false because of which of the following reasons? 1. There are a number of accredited advanced nursing education programs in informatics in the United States. 2. Advanced degrees in nursing informatics are available only online in the United States. 3. There is limited interest in advanced education in nursing informatics. 4. There are advanced degrees available in nursing informatics, however, with technology experience there is no need for advanced theoretical education.

Q: The best estimate of the number of informatics nurses needed over the next few years is which of the following? 1. 500 to 1500 2. 6000 to 12,000 3. 2000 to 5000 4. 15,000 to 25,000

Q: Over the next few years, nursing informatics and other health informatics disciplines will crisscross, resulting in more interdisciplinary projects. This statement is true because of which of the following reasons? 1. Nurse informatics specialists will work collaboratively with other disciplines to develop user-friendly systems. 2. Nurse informatics specialists will work with other disciplines in an attempt to gain control over the use of the health care technology. 3. Nurse informatics specialists understand all of the disciplines and are able to effect changes in technology. 4. Nurse informatics specialists are knowledgeable about the needs of the typical consumer of technology.

Q: The role of the informatics nurse does not include assessing the usability of devices for health care consumers. This statement is false because of which of the following reasons? 1. The informatics nurse approves the usability of devices. 2. The development of policy regarding usability is an important part of the informatics nurse's role. 3. The informatics nurse is concerned more with the actual device than the usability. 4. The informatics nurse's role is to work only with the nursing staff and not patients.

Q: Health care consumers have all the information and tools to make health care choices because they can easily compare quality and cost of care. Which of the following is correct? 1. This statement is true because the tool has been invented. 2. The statement is false because the tool has not been developed. 3. The statement is true because most consumers have Internet access. 4. The statement is true because of the steep learning curve associated with searching the Internet.

Q: In which way does medical informatics overlap with nursing informatics? 1. Medical and nursing informatics focus on the areas of information retrieval. 2. Medical and nursing informatics focus on patients' families. 3. Medical and nursing informatics focus on hospital complications. 4. Medical and nursing informatics focus on hospital complications.

Q: A nurse manager wishes to hire a new nurse who has just graduated from nursing school. At the beginning level of informatics competencies, the nurse should be able to do which of the following? 1. Attain informatics nurse certification within six months of beginning practice. 2. Input vital signs and intake and output data in the electronic medical record. 3. Utilize the Internet to review trends in health care information technology. 4. Use an electronic spreadsheet to create staffing rotations.

Q: A disadvantage to the utilization of the electronic medical record (EMR) includes which of the following? 1. Accessibility from several different locations simultaneously and by different levels of providers 2. The intensive training in the beginning needed to prepare staff members to use the EMR 3. Less time available for client care because more time is required for documentation activity 4. Inability to incorporate diagnostic images into the EMR because of space limitations

Q: Which action indicates the nurse is functioning as a knowledge worker? 1. The nurse auscultates hypoactive bowel sounds while doing a client assessment eight hours postoperatively after abdominal surgery and documents the assessment in the electronic medical record. 2. The nurse administers four units of regular insulin to the client whose blood glucose is 240 at 11:30 a.m. per physician's sliding scale orders and documents it on the electronic medical administration record. 3. The nurse auscultates diminished breath sounds in a postoperative client the morning after abdominal surgery and encourages the client to turn, cough, and deep breathe every hour instead of every two hours. 4. The nurse obtains the client's vital signs of BP-120/82, P-112, and R-32, totals up the intake of 1040 ml and the output of 1100 ml, and records these data in the electronic medical record.

Q: Describe at least three factors in the current healthcare delivery system that drive the implementation of information technology in the acute care setting. 1. Patient safety 2. Nursing shortage 3. Evidence-based practice 4. Increased numbers of digital natives in nursing practice

Q: Which statement regarding pressures that drive the health care delivery system today is not accurate? 1. The current and projected nursing shortage may be eliminated by instituting technology enhancements in the acute care setting. 2. Evidence-based practice is supported with technology that enables the health care provider to utilize up-to-date research findings. 3. Medication errors and adverse events may be reduced with the implementation of computerized physician order entry (CPOE). 4. Managed care may utilize disease management to identify clients with chronic conditions, and treat them effectively to minimize complications and cost.

Q: Which statement indicates the appropriate level of informatics competencies to the correct nurse? 1. A nurse informatics specialist extrapolates data to develop best practice model for indwelling catheter care. 2. The novice nurse using a spreadsheet to document medication reactions. 3. An experienced staff nurse creates databases employing SNOMED. 4. A beginning nurse utilizes the Internet to integrate multidisciplinary languages.

Q: Which statement best distinguishes the difference between information literacy and computer literacy? 1. Information literacy is unnecessary in health care whereas computer literacy provides the basis for computer order entry. 2. Information literacy is the foundation of the EHR whereas computer literacy helps the nurse to access data. 3. A nurse can extrapolate data with computer literacy and not information skills. 4. Information literacy forms the basis for ongoing learning whereas computer literacy refers to a familiarity with the use of personal computers.

Q: The nurse gathers much data when caring for clients. Which is an example of the higher-level "information" useful in caring for clients? 1. The vital signs are BP of 130/70, HR of 88, RR of 24, temperature of 98.8 degrees F., and oxygen saturation of 98%. 2. Lab work results include an electrolyte panel and complete blood count with differential. 3. The client is a widowed 64-year-old black male admitted with prostatitis. 4. After receiving Rocephin (ceftriaxone sodium) 1.0 gram IV yesterday, the client reported feeling better today.

Q: Which statement by the nurse verifies that the nurse is "information literate"? 1. "I understand how to search for a website and evaluate its usefulness for health care needs." 2. "I utilize databases in the health care setting to input client information such as skin condition." 3. "I use email over the Internet to correspond with clients and provide information." 4. "I can use software applications such as word processing, spreadsheets, and presentations."

Q: The nurse understands that nursing informatics is recognized as a specialty area of practice by which statement? 1. Research priorities for nursing informatics include the development of a standard nursing language and the development of databases for clinical information. 2. A formal educational program at the master's level must be completed before a nurse is eligible to sit for the credentialing examination. 3. As a differentiated practice, nursing informatics is focused upon the client, the environment, health, and the nurse. 4. There is a need for nursing informatics interests to gain representation by work groups and organizations within the United States.

Q: On the first day of clinical rotation on an inpatient psychiatric unit, nursing student A complains of nausea, sweaty palms, and stomach butterflies. Nursing student B attempts to console student A by saying, "You just can"t take anything these clients say personally; don"t listen to a word they say." Having observed this exchange, the nursing instructor should be most concerned about:1. Student B's lack of appropriate fear towards this potentially dangerous environment.2. Student B's perception that listening to the client is unnecessary.3. Student A's fear about the psychiatric setting.4. Student A's symptoms of an impending panic attack.

Q: Following a particularly violent incident which resulted in a client being placed in four-point restraints, the nurse recognizes feeling fearful of having to work with the client again. How should the nurse handle this emotion?1. Recognize that feeling fear and getting into physical confrontations is "part of the job."2. Accept the fear, process the event with other staff, and continue working with the client.3. Ignore feelings of fear as it would impede the nurse's ability to manage the client effectively.4. Engage in debriefing with the client to clear up hard feelings.

Q: An inpatient psychiatric unit has been operating at an unusually high acuity level over the past week resulting in numerous incidents of seclusion or restraint. A review of each violent event reveals that appropriate crisis management strategies were implemented and unit policy followed. What action is most appropriate?1. No action is necessary; the staff is following policy appropriately.2. Create a rotating schedule to allow staff to leave the unit for frequent brief breaks to alleviate stress.3. Identify the characteristics of the aggressive clients so that admission criteria can be adjusted to reduce risk of violence.4. Have an expert speak to staff about seclusion and restraint reduction strategies.

Q: The mother of an 8-year-old client being treated for conduct disorder says that the child often threatens to "kung-fu" (kick and strike) the client's sister just like a favorite cartoon character does on TV. Based on behavioral theory, the nurse would suspect that the child's aggressive behavior could best be reduced by:1. Administering a medication that will increase the neurotransmitter serotonin.2. Engaging the client and sister in family therapy.3. Providing positive reinforcement when the child exhibits nonaggressive behavior.4. Identifying and reframing the negative thoughts that the child has toward the sister.

Q: A client is standing in the hallway on the phone arguing with the caller. As the client becomes increasing loud and argumentative, an appropriate action for the nurse to take would be to:1. Move the other clients away from the area providing the client privacy to continue the conversation.2. Stand next to the client and say in a calm, firm voice, "If you cannot lower your voice, you will lose your phone privileges indefinitely."3. Walk up to the client and softly say, "This conversation appears to be getting you upset, tell this person that you will talk later and come sit with me to discuss what is bothering you."4. Do nothing. The client does not pose any danger as the person the client is angry with is not physically present.

Q: A client has been placed in seclusion. Which client behavior would have warranted this intervention?1. The client is manic, has been flirtatious towards staff and refused morning medication, and has verbalized a plan to leave2. The client is psychotic, sits in the corner with hands over ears, and displays increased suspiciousness of and agitation towards others despite recently receiving 1mg risperidone (Risperdal) PRN3. The client is depressed and wants to be left alone to rest4. The client is suicidal, has been banging head against the table in the day room, and was unresponsive to staff's verbal redirection

Q: A client with paranoid schizophrenia is experiencing visual hallucinations of people jumping out of nowhere. The client keeps striking the wall. Repeated attempts by the nurse to orient the client to reality and reassure the client of safety have failed. What would be the nurse's next de-escalation approach?1. Offer the client a PRN medication2. Apply soft limb restraints on client's wrists3. Have several staff demobilize the client so that forcible injection can be administered4. Call security to assist in placing the client in seclusion

Q: The nurse manager of an inpatient psychiatric unit is providing an orientation session for new staff. Which of the following statements reflect strategies used to promote a safe, therapeutic milieu?Standard Text: Select all that apply.1. Staff should provide frequent, short, individualized contacts with clients.2. Management of potentially dangerous items such as belts, shoelaces, and electrical appliances is based on unit policy and clinical judgment.3. A nurse:client ratio of at least one nurse for every four clients is required at all times.4. Staff should take their breaks during client mealtimes because there is a lower risk of behavioral problems at this time.5. When a client is becoming disruptive, staff should intervene by engaging the client in a structured group activity.

Q: A new nurse is being oriented to work on the psychiatric unit. Which of the following statements reflect general principles for maintaining unit safety?Standard Text: Select all that apply.1. Staff should be sensitive to a client's need for privacy and personal space.2. The staff should schedule their breaks during client mealtimes.3. The nurse:client ratio should be at least one nurse for every four clients.4. Staff should lock up clients' potentially dangerous items and permit use only under direct staff supervision.5. Staff should provide frequent, short individualized contacts with clients.

Q: During the morning community meeting, a client with psychosis becomes agitated, making loud threats to no one in particular, but the other clients appear increasingly uncomfortable. What action should the nurse facilitator take?1. Address the client by name and say, "It sounds as if you are experiencing something very disturbing. Please go see the nurse who may be able to help you."2. Direct the client by saying, "You need to sit quietly and listen until it's your turn to talk."3. Accompany the client to his or her room so that the client can de-escalate.4. Say to the group, "You all appear frightened by this behavior. What should we do about it?"

Q: After a nurse addresses an agitated client by setting limits in a calm, direct manner, the client begins pacing, exhibiting a clenched jaw and fists. The nurse would evaluate the approach as ineffective because:1. The nurse lacks rapport with the client.2. The nurse lacks adequate de-escalation and limit setting skills.3. Some clients have limited control, so verbal interventions may not work, but this is not reflective of the nurse's skill.4. In some cases verbal de-escalation and limit setting will not work and the nurse should start with a more restrictive measure.

Q: A client was admitted for psychosis and aggressive behavior. The client has been noncompliant with the antipsychotic medication because the client says it makes the client's jaw tight and neck stiff. The client is becoming increasingly agitated and needs a quick-acting medication. Which medication would the nurse expect to give?1. Benztropine (Cogentin)2. Fluphenazine (Prolixin)3. Risperidone (Risperdal)4. Zolpidem (Ambien)

Q: A client who is being treated for psychosis has begun exhibiting signs of increasing agitation and has started repetitively opening and slamming the door to the client's room. Which of the following nursing interventions address and redirect the client's behavior?Standard Text: Select all that apply.1. "You need to stop slamming your door and go down the hall to the group meeting."2. "How about taking a walk with me so we can find a place for you to let go of some of your nervous energy."3. "I can see that you have some excess energy that you need to get out, but you cannot continue to slam this door."4. "You seem upset, would you like some medication to help you with your agitation?"5. "If you don"t stop slamming the door, I will lock it for the rest of the day."

Q: Staff have made several verbal attempts to de-escalate a client, however, the client's level of agitation continues to increase and it becomes necessary to administer a fast-acting pharmacological intervention. Which medication would the nurse most likely provide?1. Haloperidol (Haldol)2. Methylphenidate (Ritalin)3. Lithium carbonate (Lithobid)4. Amitriptyline (Elavil)

Q: A 15-year-old client who has been diagnosed with conduct disorder has been prescribed medication to control aggressive behavior. For which medication is the nurse likely to be providing client education?1. Methylphenidate (Ritalin)2. Amitriptyline (Elavil)3. Lithium carbonate (Lithobid)4. Buspirone (BuSpar)

Q: A manic client is pacing the halls of the inpatient unit and making disruptive comments to the other clients. The nurse overhears the client say, "I know people, so you better treat me with respect!" Which of the following therapeutic nursing interventions would the nurse implement first?1. Notify security that this client is escalating out of control and the client needs to be escorted to the client's room.2. Tell the client that the nurse would like to give a PRN injection because the behavior is disrupting others.3. Approach the client and say in firm voice, "That was inappropriate. Go to your room immediately."4. Address the client and say in a calm voice, "The staff will work hard to make sure you receive proper respect here. Let's go over here and talk."

Q: A client is being admitted to the inpatient psychiatric unit. Which actions would be appropriate for the nurse to assess the client's risk of violence?Standard Text: Select all that apply.1. Wait to assess the client's risk of violence once the psychiatric symptoms have stabilized.2. Assess history of psychotic illness as this is the most important predictor of violence potential.3. Ask the client, "What is the most violent thing you have ever done?"4. Review the client's past records and get information from the client's family.5. Avoid discussing the client's past history of violence as this could provoke the client.

Q: A client who is a construction supervisor has a history of becoming violent when the client's workers do not complete their work within the established deadline. Police have been called to the worksite multiple times for behaviors including loud shouting and destruction of property. The most appropriate expected outcome related to resolving this problem would be for the client to:1. Identify personal needs.2. Refrain from impulsive behavior.3. Refrain from self-injury and from injuring others.4. Identify alternative methods for expressing anger.

Q: A psychiatric hospital was recently purchased by a large healthcare system. The new administration's business motto is "leaner and meaner," consequently, the staff mix has been adjusted by replacing some of the highly experienced nurses with robust male mental health technicians who cost less and are able to provide physical interventions. The change that is likely to increase the risk for violence in this hospital is the:1. Change in hospital ownership.2. Advanced age of nursing staff.3. Adjustment in staff mix.4. Motto that implies staff will be mean.

Q: A client is being admitted to the inpatient unit for stabilization of psychoses. The client's mother found the client trying to drown a cat in the bathtub. The client believed it was possessed by the devil. The mother reports that the father also suffered from a mental illness and was physically abusive. Based on this information the priority nursing diagnosis is:1. Post-Trauma Syndrome.2. Disturbed Thought Processes.3. Risk for Injury.4. Risk for Violence: Other-Directed.

Q: The client on the inpatient unit who should be assessed as being at highest risk for directing violent behavior toward others is which of the following?1. A veteran who has a diagnosis of post-traumatic stress disorder who was admitted for severe sleep disturbance secondary to nightmares2. A middle-aged woman who has completed alcohol withdrawal and is participating in a rehabilitation program3. An adolescent who was admitted for suicidal ideation and was suspended from school for getting into a fight with a classmate4. A male client in his twenties who has bipolar disorder with delusions of grandeur

Q: The nurse suspects that a male client may become violent. Which verbal cue might have indicated this? The client:1. Receives news that his wife is filing for divorce and begins sobbing inconsolably.2. Demands, "Give me my medicine now or you"ll be sorry."3. Begins pacing the hall exhibiting clenched jaw and fists.4. States, "I don"t know why people seem afraid of me."

Q: Which of the following clients should be assessed as demonstrating aggression? The client who:1. Tells the nurse, "I don"t need that medication and no one can make me take it."2. Walks into the group room and says to another client, "You stole my seat. That is where I always sit. You had better move!"3. Paces back and forth in the hall singing loudly to the music the client is listening to with headphones.4. Bursts into tears when the doctor says, "I don"t think you are ready for discharge today."

Q: A client was brought in to the hospital by police after verbally threatening the staff at a homeless shelter when they turned the client away. Which would be the most appropriate response by the nurse to the client's statement, "You all better let me stay here, or the next time, I'll use a gun."1. "Do you have a gun? Are you threatening to kill someone?"2. "Sounds like you are trying to manipulate the system. We only treat people with real problems here."3. "It sounds like you are very concerned about having somewhere to stay. Can you tell me more about what you would do if you couldn"t stay here?"4. "We cannot let you stay here unless you promise not to hurt anyone."

Q: A 22-year-old client with schizophrenia was just admitted to the inpatient unit. While assessing the client, the nurse notes that the client is staring at a staff member intensely with a flat affect. The client is mumbling and the client's limbs are in constant motion (bouncing knee up and down and tapping fingers). Without further data, which observation is most indicative of the client's potential for violence?1. Intense stare2. Mumbling3. Flat affect4. Constant motion

Q: A 13-year-old client was admitted for giving a younger sister a black eye and throwing the cat out the window. Which areas of the brain could have abnormalities associated with this behavior?Standard Text: Select all that apply.1. Amygdala2. Occipital lobe3. Frontal lobe4. Hypothalamus5. Hippocampus

Q: An aspiring actor was brought in by police for psychiatric evaluation. After learning that the client did not get a callback for the role the client wanted, the client got drunk and physically attacked the director. The client has no previous history of violent behavior. Which theory best explains this client's behavior?1. Humanistic2. Psychoanalytic3. Social-interpersonal4. Behavioral

Q: A client with a history of epilepsy has recently experienced more frequent seizures, often followed immediately by episodes of aggressive behavior. Which biological abnormality is likely to be present in this client?1. A mutation on the genes that encode components of the serotonin system2. Serum toxicity resulting from chronic exposure to lead3. A deficit of gamma-aminobutyric acid4. A problem with the amygdala/temporal lobe

Q: A 13-year-old client was admitted for giving a younger sister a black eye and throwing a cat out the window. Which neurotransmitter imbalance is not likely to be associated with this behavior?1. Dopamine excess2. Serotonin deficit3. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) deficit4. Acetylcholine excess

Q: An 83-year-old male client, who was recently admitted for a dementia workup, has been striking out at nursing staff. His wife, who is terribly upset by his recent behavior, states, "I just don"t understand what has gotten into him, he used to be so kind and gentle." The nurse's best response for explaining the etiology of violent behavior is which of the following?1. The disease process associated with dementia causes a person to become violent.2. Scientists have linked violent behavior to the genetic mutation of a specific Y chromosome.3. The renowned psychoanalyst Freud says that it is instinctive for humans to express depression in aggressive ways.4. There is no simple explanation for aggressive behavior, but research suggests it is caused by a combination of biologic and psychosocial factors.