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Q:
According to the text, one reason why we study ethics is to see whether we can justify the beliefs we already hold.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The fossa ovalis is a remnant of the __________ of the fetus.
A. ductus arteriosus
B. ductus venosus
C. umbilical artery
D. umbilical vein
E. foramen ovale
Q:
During birth, an infant is normally stimulated to breathe by __________.
A. CO2 accumulating in the baby's blood
B. an increased O2 level in the baby's new environment
C. prostaglandins
D. surfactant
E. being spanked by the doctor
Q:
Which of the following organ systems shows the greatest anatomical change in the transitional period after birth?
A. Muscular system
B. Integumentary system
C. Skeletal system
D. Circulatory system
E. Nervous system
Q:
Infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS) is caused by __________.
A. production of very thick respiratory mucus
B. deficiency of pulmonary surfactant
C. underdeveloped respiratory epithelium
D. pulmonary edema
E. overinflated alveoli
Q:
Oxygenated blood reaches the fetus through the __________.
A. umbilical vein
B. umbilical arteries
C. maternal vein
D. maternal arteries
E. placental sinus
Q:
Which of the following is not considered an embryonic membrane?
A. Yolk sac
B. Placenta
C. Allantois
D. Chorion
E. Amnion
Q:
__________ pass(es) from the maternal blood to the fetal blood. Fetal __________ pass(es) the other way.
A. Carbon dioxide and oxygen; wastes
B. Carbon dioxide; nutrients
C. Wastes; nutrients and oxygen
D. Wastes and nutrients; oxygen and carbon dioxide
E. Oxygen and nutrients; wastes
Q:
The digital rays of a fetus give rise to __________.
A. arms and legs
B. ribs and intercostal muscles
C. fingers and toes
D. extensor digitorum muscles
E. radial muscles of the iris
Q:
The first 6 weeks of postpartum life constitute the __________ period.
A. transitional
B. premature
C. neonatal
D. senescence
E. infancy
Q:
The first body cavity is called the __________.
A. coelom
B. amniotic cavity
C. yolk sac
D. somite
E. chorion
Q:
By the end of 8 weeks, the individual is considered a fetus because __________.
A. all the primary germ layers are formed
B. the amniotic cavity has formed
C. all of the organ systems are present
D. the neural tube and yolk sac have formed
E. the mesoderm has formed
Q:
The __________ completely encloses the embryo and provides it with a stable environment.
A. yolk sac
B. amnion
C. chorion
D. chorionic villus
E. allantois
Q:
The __________ encloses all the rest of the membranes and the embryo.
A. chorion
B. allantois
C. yolk sac
D. amnion
E. zona pellucida
Q:
The __________ is an embryonic membrane that serves as the origin of the first blood and germ cells.
A. yolk sac
B. allantois
C. chorion
D. amnion
E. placenta
Q:
As it implants, the conceptus is nourished by means of __________.
A. trophoblastic nutrition
B. uterine milk
C. nutrient diffusion from the endometrium
D. placenta
E. umbilical nutrition
Q:
The _________ begins to develop about 11 days after conception, and is the sole source of fetal nutrition from the end of week 12 until birth.
A. yolk sac
B. placenta
C. amnion
D. trophoblast
E. blastocyst
Q:
In fetal circulation, the __________ bypasses the liver and the __________ bypasses the lungs.
A. ligamentum venosum; ligamentum arteriosum
B. foramen ovale; ductus venosus
C. ductus arteriosus; ductus venosus
D. ductus venosus; ductus arteriosus
E. ligamentum arteriosum; foramen ovale
Q:
In fetal circulation, blood bypasses the lungs by flowing through the __________.
A. umbilical vein and umbilical arteries
B. fossa ovalis and umbilical arteries and vein
C. foramen ovale and ductus arteriosus
D. ductus venosus and ductus arteriosus
E. ligamentum venosum and ligamentum arteriosum
Q:
Which of the following major events of prenatal development happens first?
A. The eyes are fully open
B. The body is covered with lanugo
C. Bone calcification begins
D. The central nervous system begins to form
E. Meconium accumulates in the intestines
Q:
During implantation, the trophoblast divides into a deep layer called the _________, which is composed of individual cells.
A. chorion
B. amnion
C. syncytiotrophoblast
D. cytotrophoblast
E. embryoblast
Q:
During implantation, the trophoblast divides into a superficial layer called the __________, which is composed of a multinucleate mass of cytoplasm.
A. chorion
B. embryoblast
C. amnion
D. syncytiotrophoblast
E. cytotrophoblast
Q:
By the time the conceptus arrives in the uterus, it consists of at least __________ or more cells.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
E. 32
Q:
Out of the 300 million ejaculated sperm, only about __________ reach the vicinity of the egg.
A. 20 to 30
B. 200 to 300
C. 2000 to 3000
D. 20,000 to 30,000
E. half
Q:
Prior to ejaculation, __________ in the plasma membrane of the sperm prevents premature release of __________.
A. cholesterol; acrosomal enzymes
B. protein; acrosomal enzymes
C. carbohydrates; prostaglandins
D. hyaluronic acid; prostaglandins
E. acrosin and hyaluronidase; acrosomal enzymes
Q:
Which of the following is not a derivative of ectoderm?
A. Salivary glands
B. The nervous system
C. The epidermis
D. Cutaneous glands
E. The dermis
Q:
In the fast block to polyspermy, binding of sperm opens up __________ channels, which depolarizes the egg membrane and __________.
A. Na+; prevents the entrance of any more sperm
B. Na+; prevents the entrance of more Na+
C. Na+; prevents the entrance of Ca2+
D. Ca2+; prevents the entrance of any more sperm
E. Ca2+; prevents the entrance of more Na+
Q:
Regarding fertilization, which of the following events happens first?
A. Formation of a fertilization membrane
B. The fast block to polyspermy
C. The slow block to polyspermy
D. The cortical reaction
E. The acrosomal reaction
Q:
The optimal "window of opportunity" to conceive a child is __________.
A. a few days before ovulation to less than a day after
B. less than a day before ovulation to less than a day after
C. a few days before ovulation to a few days after
D. a few days before ovulation
E. a few days after ovulation
Q:
The spheroidal stage of early prenatal development with about 16 to 64 cells is called a(n) __________.
A. zygote
B. embryo
C. blastomere
D. morula
E. blastocyst
Q:
Twins produced when a single egg is fertilized are called __________ twins. Twins produced from two eggs ovulated at the same time are called __________ twins.
A. monozygotic; identical
B. dizygotic; nonidentical
C. monozygotic; dizygotic
D. dizygotic; monozygotic
E. nonidentical; identical
Q:
In the blastocyst, the trophoblast will become __________, whereas the embryoblast will become __________.
A. part of the placenta; the yolk sac
B. part of the placenta; the embryo
C. the embryo; part of the placenta
D. the embryo; the yolk sac
E. the yolk sac; the embryo
Q:
Primary germ layers are formed during __________
A. implantation
B. cleavage
C. conception
D. organogenesis
E. gastrulation
Q:
Mesenchyme gives rise to __________.
A. nervous tissue
B. muscle, bone, and blood
C. digestive organs and endocrine glands
D. reproductive and urinary systems
E. the integumentary system and exocrine glands
Q:
Inadequate liver function is the most common reason that premature infants suffer from multiple dysfunctions.
Q:
Teratogens usually do not cause congenital anomalies.
Q:
Senescence begins at different ages and progresses at different rates in different organ systems.
Q:
Life expectancy has steadily increased in the last century, whereas life span has not.
Q:
A person in his or her 90's can increase muscle strength by two or three times with 40 minutes of isometric exercise per week.
Q:
Which of the folllowing lists the stages or structures of prenatal development in the correct order?
A. Cleavage, zygote, morula, blastocyst, embryo, fetus
B. Zygote, morula, blastocyst, cleavage, embryo, fetus
C. Zygote, cleavage, morula, blastocyst, embryo, fetus
D. Zygote, embryo, morula, blastocyst, cleavage, fetus
E. Embryo, zygote, blastocyst, cleavage, morula, fetus
Q:
The process that makes it possible for sperm to penetrate the egg is called __________.
A. sperm migration
B. capacitation
C. the cortical reaction
D. morulation
E. cleavage
Q:
In the slow block to polyspermy, sperm penetration releases an inflow of __________, which in turn stimulates the __________.
A. Cl-; corona radiata
B. K+; zona pellucida
C. Na+; fertilization membrane
D. Ca2+; fertilization membrane
E. Ca2+; cortical reaction
Q:
During implantation, the embryoblast undergoes gastrulation.
Q:
The embryonic stage extends from 16 days through the end of week 8.
Q:
The chorion forms the fetal part of the placenta.
Q:
The placenta begins to form after week 8.
Q:
Trophoblastic nutrition refers to the nutrition of the conceptus before it implants.
Q:
Neonatal immunity depends on IgG and IgA acquired through the placenta and colostrum, respectively.
Q:
To some extent, the heat loss of the neonate is compensated for by the thermal insulation provided by brown fat.
Q:
The observation that there is a limit to how many times a cell can divide is the basis for the __________ theory of senescence.
A. autoimmune
B. free radical
C. cross-linking
D. replicative
E. abortive
Q:
Which of the following systems shows the least overall senescence?
A. Muscular system
B. Endocrine system
C. Integumentary system
D. Reproductive system
E. Urinary system
Q:
Senescence of the immune system makes older people more susceptible to cancer and infectious disease because of a decline in __________.
A. alpha and beta globulins
B. red blood cells and platelets
C. complement proteins
D. prothrombin and fibrinogen
E. antigen-presenting cells and helper T cells
Q:
Which of the following is not a known benefit of regular exercise?
A. Maintained joint mobility
B. Maintained strength
C. Decreased incidence of hypertension
D. Maintained endurance
E. Prolonged life expectancy
Q:
Which of the following is not a known cause of congenital anomalies?
A. Infectious disease in the mother during pregnancy
B. A genetic disorder
C. Exposure to teratogens during pregnancy
D. Smoking during lactation
E. Smoking during pregnancy
Q:
Sperm must travel to the distal end of the uterine tube to encounter the egg before it dies.
Q:
The slow block refers to the mechanism that prevents fertilization of another egg when one is already pregnant.
Q:
The fertilization membrane is the endometrial tissue that receives the conceptus.
Q:
Cleavage results in daughter cells containing half the number of chromosomes of the parent cell.
Q:
Only autosomal trisomies involving chromosomes 13, 18, and 21 are survivable. Why would this be?
A. These are relatively short chromosomes.
B. These are relatively long chromosomes.
C. These are relatively gene-poor chromosomes.
D. These are redundant chromosomes.
E. These chromosomes have no genes.
Q:
Urine retention is a greater problem for elderly men than for elderly women because men __________.
A. can develop benign prostatic hyperplasia
B. have larger bladders
C. have weaker urinary sphincters
D. have narrower ureters
E. have fewer glomeruli
Q:
Which of the following is not a reason muscular weakness tends to develop in old age?
A. Aged muscle has less glycogen, myoglobin, and creatine phosphate.
B. There are fewer motor neurons in the spinal cord.
C. Aged muscle fibers have fewer myofibrils.
D. There are fewer and smaller mitochondria in aged muscle.
E. The myocytes of aged muscle no longer synthesize myosin.
Q:
Older people may require lower drug doses than younger people because __________.
A. their organs are more sensitive to drugs
B. they have lower rates of renal clearance
C. they do not absorb as much drug from the small intestine
D. there is less tissue mass to treat
E. a lifetime of mutations results in unpredictable drug reactions
Q:
Which of the following statements is true regarding telomeres?
A. Telomeres are cytoplasmic enzymes involved in senescence.
B. Telomeres are antioxidants that slow the progress of senescence.
C. Telomeres are DNA segments at each end of a chromosome.
D. Telomeres are proteins that cap the ends of the chromosomes.
E. Telomeres are motor molecules that guide embryonic cells to the right destinations.
Q:
Why do pregnant women often have heartburn?
A. The mother's body is purging itself of toxins to protect the fetus.
B. Elevated levels of estrogens cause morning sickness.
C. There is reduced intestinal motility.
D. As the uterus enlarges it pushes upward on the stomach, causing gastric reflux.
Q:
Women with morning sickness tend to prefer spicy and pungent foods.
Q:
"False labor" is a result of what type of contractions?
A. Graafian
B. Masters Johnson
C. Braxton Hicks
D. Skene
Q:
When an infant suckles at its mother's breast, milk moves through the breast structures in what order?
A. Acinus - lactiferous duct - lactiferous sinus - nipple
B. Lactiferous duct - acinus - lactiferous sinus - nipple
C. Lactiferous sinus - lactiferous duct - acinus - nipple
D. Lactiferous sinus - acinus - lactiferous duct - nipple
Q:
How is colostrum different than breast milk?
A. It has one-third less protein.
B. It has one-third less lactose.
C. It has one-third less fat.
D. It has one-third the number of immunoglobulins.
Q:
Which of the following is not a benefit of breast feeding?
A. It is more easily digested and absorbed than cow's milk.
B. It helps clear meconium from the baby's intestine.
C. It reduces the incidence of jaundice in neonates.
D. It prevents colonization of the neonatal intestine with beneficial bacteria.
Q:
Which of the following organ systems faces the greatest physiological challenge in the transitional period after birth?
A. Muscular system
B. Integumentary system
C. Respiratory system
D. Circulatory system
E. Nervous system
Q:
A teratogen is most likely to cause __________.
A. a deformity of the limbs
B. aneuploidy
C. trisomy
D. nondisjunction
E. a mutation
Q:
Which of the following does not have potentially teratogenic effects?
A. Smoking
B. Alcohol
C. Infectious diseases
D. Sunlight
E. X-rays
Q:
Down syndrome (trisomy-21) results from _________.
A. a mutagen
B. nondisjunction
C. a teratogen
D. a sex-linked mutation
E. an autosomal recessive allele
Q:
The most likely outcome of nondisjunction is the production of a gamete receiving __________.
A. no chromosomes
B. 46 chromosomes
C. 44 chromosomes
D. 23 chromosomes
E. 22 chromosomes
Q:
The ovary receives blood from which artery/arteries?
A. Ovarian
B. Uterine
C. Ovarian and uterine
D. Broad
E. Ovarian and broad
Q:
During climacteric, women secrete __________.
A. less estrogen and progesterone
B. more estrogen and progesterone
C. less estrogen and more progesterone
D. more estrogen and less progesterone
Q:
Which of the following is true of the female sexual response?
A. Women do not have a refractory period and may quickly experience additional orgasms.
B. The engorged clitoris can swing upward away from the body like the penis.
C. The vagina has a high concentration of sensory nerve endings.
D. The uterus tilts forward over the urinary bladder during excitement.
Q:
During __________, the uterus is tented (erected) and the cervix is withdrawn from the vagina. Typically, the clitoris is engorged and the labia are bright red to violet due to hyperemia.
A. excitement
B. detumescence
C. orgasm
D. resolution
E. pregnancy
Q:
In early pregnancy, what hormone stimulates growth of the corpus luteum?
A. Human chorionic gonadotropin
B. Follicle-stimulating hormone
C. Human chorionic somatomammotropin
D. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
E. Progesterone
Q:
Pregnancy kits test for the presence of what hormone?
A. Progesterone
B. Human chorionic gonadotropin
C. Estrogen
D. Leutinizing hormone
E. Follicle-stimulating hormone