Q&A Hero

Philosophy

Q: __________ have 46 chromosomes, whereas __________ have 23. A. Spermatids; spermatozoa B. Primary spermatocytes; spermatids C. Secondary spermatocytes; primary spermatocytes D. Spermatogonia; primary spermatocytes E. Type A spermatogonia; type B spermatogonia
Q: A sperm count any lower than __________ million sperm per mL of semen is usually associated with infertility (sterility). A. 250 to 500 B. 200 to 250 C. 100 to 200 D. 50 to 100 E. 20 to 25
Q: Dilation of the __________ causes the lacunae to fill with blood and the penis to become erect. A. helicine arteries B. internal pudendal (penile) arteries C. dorsal arteries D. dorsal veins E. deep arteries
Q: The orgasm-emission phase of the male sexual response is stimulated by __________. A. efferent sympathetic signals from the sacral region of the spinal cord B. efferent sympathetic signals from the lumbar region of the spinal cord C. efferent parasympathetic signals from the sacral region of the spinal cord D. efferent parasympathetic signals from the lumbar region of the spinal cord E. efferent somatic signals from the thoracic region of the spinal cord
Q: Changes called male climacteric are a consequence of a(n) __________. A. increased secretion of estrogens B. increased secretion of progesterone C. decreased secretion of testosterone D. increased secretion of FSH and LH E. increased secretion of GnRH
Q: The haploid result of meiosis I is called a __________. A. spermatogonium B. secondary spermatocyte C. primary spermatocyte D. spermatid E. sperm
Q: By volume, most of the semen is produced in the __________. A. testes B. penis C. prostate gland D. seminal vesicles E. bulbourethral glands
Q: Which of the following are not found in or around the seminiferous tubules? A. Interstitial (Leydig) cells B. Germ cells C. Sustentacular (Sertoli) cells D. Spermatids E. Corpus cavernosum cells
Q: The penile urethra is enclosed by the __________. A. corpus cavernosum B. corpus spongiosum C. trabecular muscle D. prepuce E. frenulum
Q: Men have only one __________. A. bulbourethral gland B. prostate gland C. ejaculatory duct D. seminal vesicle E. corpus cavernosum
Q: Why would an enlarged prostate gland interfere with urination? A. It inhibits urine production. B. It develops calcified deposits that block the urethra. C. It produces thicker prostatic secretions that block the urethra. D. It inhibits the micturition reflex. E. It compresses the urethra.
Q: The penis is innervated by the __________ nerve. A. internal pudendal B. obturator C. penile D. ventral E. external pudendal
Q: Which of the following does not play a role in thermoregulation of the testes? A. The bulbospongiosus muscle B. The cremaster muscle C. The pampiniform plexus of veins D. The countercurrent heat exchanger E. The dartos muscle
Q: When do the testes start secreting testosterone? A. In the first trimester of fetal development B. In the first trimester after birth C. In the first three years after birth D. In the first three years of adolescence E. After the first ejaculation
Q: Which of the following hormones directly stimulates the development of male secondary sex characteristics? A. Estrogen B. Inhibin C. Luteinizing hormone D. Follicle stimulating hormone E. Testosterone
Q: Which of the following is an androgen? A. Estrogen B. Progesterone C. Testosterone D. Luteinizing hormone (LH) E. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Q: __________ stimulates the interstitial cells of the testes to secrete __________. A. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH); LH B. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH); androgen-binding protein (ABP) C. Luteinizing hormone (LH); androgen-binding protein (ABP) D. Luteinizing hormone (LH); testosterone E. Luteinizing hormone (LH); estrogen
Q: Which hormone suppresses spermatogenesis without affecting testosterone secretion? A. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) B. Testosterone itself C. Inhibin D. Luteinizing hormone (LH) E. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Q: The __________ has/have no androgen receptors and do/does not respond to it. A. germ cells B. muscular tissue C. sustentacular cells D. hypothalamus E. pituitary gland
Q: Which of the following is inhibited by testosterone? A. Libido B. Development of secondary sex organs C. Development of secondary sex characteristics D. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) secretion E. Sperm production
Q: Which of the following is true regarding the blood-testis barrier? A. It prevents antibodies in the blood from getting to the germ cells. B. It prevents heat loss from the testes. C. It prevents blood from getting to the testes. D. It maintains testis temperature at 35 C. E. It maintains testis temperature at 37 C.
Q: Which of the following is a secondary sex organ? A. Testis B. Ovary C. Vagina D. Facial hair E. Distribution of body fat
Q: Gonads begin to develop __________ weeks after fertilization. A. 2 to 3 B. 5 to 6 C. 8 to 9 D. 20 to 24 E. 36 to 38
Q: Whether an organism will be genetically male or female is determined by __________. A. hormonal, genetic and environmental factors B. prenatal hormone exposure C. the egg D. the sperm E. the egg and sperm equally
Q: The gene that codes for the testis-determining factor (TDF) is found in or on the __________. A. Y chromosome B. X chromosome C. gonadal ridges D. fetal testes E. mesonephros
Q: The penis is homologous to the __________. A. labia minora B. mons pubis C. urethra D. vagina E. clitoris
Q: The __________ is the gonad and the __________ is the gamete. A. testis; ovary B. testis; semen C. testis; sperm D. sperm; semen E. semen; sperm
Q: Descent of the testes is stimulated by the __________. A. presence of Y chromosome B. presence of the X chromosome C. absence of the X chromosome D. presence of testosterone E. presence of estrogens
Q: The __________ is an example of the female external genitalia. A. scrotum B. clitoris C. uterine tube D. seminal vesicle E. vagina
Q: The __________ is the small, bilateral organ found lateral to the membranous urethra. A. seminal vesicle B. urethra C. bulbourethral gland D. prostate gland E. ejaculatory duct
Q: The golf-ball sized structure found inferior to the urinary bladder, and surrounding the most proximal portion of the urethra, is called the __________. A. seminal vesicle B. urethra C. bulbourethral gland D. prostate gland E. ejaculatory duct
Q: The __________ is the site of sperm maturation and storage. A. spermatic cord B. epididymis C. rete testis D. seminiferous tubules E. ductus (vas) deferens
Q: The deep region of the penis, surrounding the urethra, that engorges with blood during an erection is known as the ___________. A. epididymis B. corpus spongiosum C. corpus cavernosum D. scrotum E. ductus (vas) deferens
Q: Which of the following is the correct pathway of sperm cells from their formation to ejaculation? A. Seminiferous tubule, epididymis, rete testis, urethra, ejaculatory duct, ductus deferens B. Seminiferous tubule, epididymis, rete testis, ejaculatory duct, ductus deferens, urethra C. Seminiferous tubule, epididymis, rete testis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra D. Seminiferous tubule, rete testis, epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra E. Seminiferous tubule, rete testis, epididymis, ejaculatory duct, urethra, ductus deferens
Q: When it is cold, the __________ contracts and draws the testes closer to the body to keep them warm. A. cremaster muscle B. pampiniform plexus C. corpus spongiosum D. perineum E. corpus cavernosum
Q: The countercurrent heat exchanger that prevents arterial blood from overheating the testes is the __________. A. rete testis B. epididymis C. pampiniform plexus of veins D. blood-testis barrier E. scrotal portal system
Q: Which of the following are primary sex organs? A. Ova B. Uterine tubes C. Breasts D. Ovaries E. Scent glands
Q: The presence of the Y chromosome guarantees the development of male secondary sex organs.
Q: The mechanism that keeps the testes cooler than the body's core temperature is called descent of the testes.
Q: The scrotum contains the testes and spermatic cords.
Q: Sperm travels to the ampulla of the ductus deferens before reaching the spermatic cord.
Q: Sustentacular cells secrete inhibin, which regulates the rate of sperm production.
Q: Testosterone stimulates development of the secondary sex characteristics, spermatogenesis, and libido.
Q: Erectile dysfunction prevents ejaculation in most cases.
Q: At early puberty, follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulate enlargement of the testes.
Q: Spermiogenesis is the last stage of meiosis.
Q: Sperm make up just 10% of semen volume.
Q: Only germ cells undergo meiosis, which produces four haploid cells with 23 chromosomes each.
Q: Sympathetic nerve fibers trigger the secretion of nitric oxide, which dilates the deep arteries allowing blood to engorge the penis.
Q: Mental state does not affect metabolic rate.
Q: The first haploid stage of spermatogenesis is prophase II.
Q: When a person is active, most of the body heat is generated in the brain, heart, and endocrine glands.
Q: Myotonia of skeletal muscles is characteristic of the excitement phase and refractory period.
Q: Hypothermia may be fatal if the core body temperature reaches 37 C or lower.
Q: Which of the following is generally accepted as a secondary sex characteristic? A. The enlargement of the breasts B. The presence of testes C. The prostate gland D. The uterus E. The vagina
Q: Sexual reproduction entails the union of two gonads to form a zygote.
Q: Where would you measure the shell temperature of a patient? A. Their skin B. Their rectum C. Their abdominal cavity D. Their thoracic cavity
Q: Body weight is stable when average daily energy intake and output are equal.
Q: Gut-brain peptides are secreted by the brain and target the gastrointestinal tract.
Q: Norepinephrine stimulates cravings for carbohydrates, whereas endorphins stimulate cravings for proteins.
Q: Aerobic respiration is more efficient than anaerobic fermentation, but the latter is oxygen-independent.
Q: Glucose in excess of the body's immediate needs is usually converted to protein.
Q: Both glycogenesis and gluconeogenesis are examples of catabolic reactions.
Q: Most body fat in overweight people is stored in the integumentary system.
Q: Consumption of excess calories during adulthood causes adipocytes to multiply.
Q: The most abundant nitrogenous waste in blood is urea, which is produced by the combination of ammonia with carbon dioxide.
Q: The absorptive state lasts about fifteen minutes after a meal.
Q: The absorptive state is regulated mainly by insulin, whereas the postabsorptive state is regulated by multiple hormones.
Q: How is the basal metabolic rate (BMR) different from the total metabolic rate (TMR)? A. The BMR includes the TMR. B. The TMR includes the BMR. C. The BMR is calculated when one is asleep. D. The BMR includes energy expenditures for muscular contractions.
Q: Which of the following is the primary source of body heat? A. Nutrient oxidation B. The sun C. Conduction D. Convection
Q: Which of the following is true regarding body temperature? A. Oral temperature is a good way to estimate core temperature. B. Adult oral temperature is typically 36.6 to 37.0 C. C. Body temperature is highest in the afternoon. D. Organs in the spinal cavity are at the shell temperature.
Q: When should the basal metabolic rate be measured? A. When a person is sleeping B. When a person first rises in the morning C. When a person has just eaten a meal of no more than 2000 kcal D. When a person is in the absorptive state E. When a person is engaged in normal physical activity but not strenuous exercise
Q: Which of the following does not explain why people on weight-loss diets often lose weight quickly at first, but then more slowly over time? A. Water is lost quickly but other weight is harder to lose. B. The initial weight loss is mostly fat. C. As a diet progresses, the body produces more fat even with the same caloric intake. D. The body lowers its metabolic rate when it loses weight. E. Will power often weakens as the diet progresses.
Q: Fats should account for about __________ percent of the daily caloric intake. A. 5 B. 10 C. 30 D. 60 E. 80
Q: Glycogenesis is stimulated by __________, whereas glycogenolysis is stimulated by __________. A. insulin; glucagon and epinephrine B. insulin; aldosterone C. growth hormone; glucagon and epinephrine D. growth hormone; cortisol E. growth hormone; insulin
Q: Approximately what percentage of the energy in a glucose molecule winds up in ATP with the rest lost as body heat? A. 10 B. 20 C. 40 D. 80 E. 98
Q: During periods of fasting, why is fat said to have a protein-sparing effect? A. The body oxidizes its spare protein before it depletes its fat reserves. B. The body metabolizes fats and proteins through the same metabolic pathways. C. The body must have an adequate fat intake in order to absorb and metabolize proteins. D. The body must have an adequate protein intake in order to absorb and metabolize fats. E. The body does not oxidize its proteins unless it has consumed its fat reserves first.
Q: A nude body at a room temperature of 21 C (70 F) loses most of its heat by which process? A. Evaporation B. Conduction C. Convection D. Radiation E. Forced convection
Q: Which of the following enhances loss of body heat by conduction? A. Radiation B. Evaporation C. Nonshivering thermogenesis D. Shivering thermogenesis E. Convection
Q: What is the quickest physiological mechanism for achieving moderate heat loss? A. Convection B. Cutaneous vasoconstriction C. Nonshivering thermogenesis D. Cutaneous vasodilation E. Diaphoresis
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