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Q:
Which of the following correctly traces blood flow from the renal cortex to the renal vein?
A. Interlobular v. interlobar v. segmental v. renal v.
B. Arcuate v. interlobar v. segmental v. renal v.
C. Interlobar v. interlobular v. arcuate v. renal v.
D. Segmental v. arcuate v. interlobar v. renal v.
E. Interlobular v. arcuate v. interlobar v. renal v.
Q:
Which of the following is not a function of the kidneys?
A. They regulate osmolarity of the body fluids.
B. They fight osteoporosis by synthesizing vitamin D.
C. They help control blood pressure.
D. They release waste into the bloodstream.
E. They indirectly increase oxyhemoglobin.
Q:
Normally, the systemic arterial blood has a Po2 of ___________ mm Hg, a Pco2 of ___________ mm Hg, and a pH of ___________.
A. 40; 95; 7.4
B. 95; 40; 7.4
C. 7.4; 40; 95
D. 95; 7.4; 40
E. 40; 7.4; 95
Q:
Which of the following enzymes in an RBC breaks H2CO3 down to water and carbon dioxide?
A. Hemoglobinase
B. Carboxyhemoglobinase
C. Carbonic anhydrase
D. Bisphosphoglycerase
E. Carbaminoreductase
Q:
In one passage through a bed of systemic blood capillaries, the blood gives up about what percentage of its oxygen?
A. 5% to 10%
B. 10% to 15%
C. 20% to 25%
D. 30% to 40%
E. 70% to 85%
Q:
Which of the following is the term for a deficiency of oxygen or the inability to utilize oxygen in a tissue?
A. Apoxia
B. Hypoxia
C. Anoxia
D. Cyanosis
E. Eupnea
Q:
Congestive heart failure results in which of the following?
A. Hypoxemic hypoxia
B. Ischemic hypoxia
C. Anemic hypoxia
D. Histotoxic hypoxia
E. Idiopathic hypoxia
Q:
Which of the following is a lung disease marked by a reduced number of cilia, reduced motility of the remaining cilia, goblet cell hypertrophy and hypersecretion, and thick sputum?
A. Asthma
B. Oat-cell carcinoma
C. Atelectasis
D. Chronic bronchitis
E. Emphysema
Q:
Which of the following would lead to anemic hypoxia?
A. Sickle-cell disease
B. Emphysema
C. Squamous-cell carcinoma
D. Asthma
E. Atelectasis
Q:
Which of the following is a lung disease marked by abnormally few but large alveoli?
A. Cor pulmonale
B. Pulmonary hemosiderosis
C. Emphysema
D. Atelectasis
E. Collapsed lung
Q:
In which condition are the lungs infected with Mycobacterium and produce fibrous nodules around the bacteria, leading to progressive pulmonary fibrosis?
A. Pneumonia
B. Dyspnea
C. Pneumothorax
D. Tuberculosis
E. Rhinitis
Q:
In life threatening starvation, the kidneys synthesize glucose by __________.
A. secreting erythropoietin
B. secreting renin
C. deaminating amino acids
D. contributing to calcium homeostasis
E. producing uric acid
Q:
A byproduct of protein catabolism, __________ constitutes approximately one-half of all nitrogenous waste.
A. urea
B. creatinine
C. uric acid
D. azotemia
E. ammonia
Q:
Which organ system does not excrete waste?
A. The urinary system
B. The cardiovascular system
C. The integumentary system
D. The digestive system
E. The respiratory system
Q:
Which of the following has no effect on oxyhemoglobin dissociation?
A. Epinephrine
B. Fever
C. Thyroid hormone
D. Low pH
E. Erythrocyte count
Q:
In the air we breathe, which gas is found in the highest concentration?
A. Oxygen
B. Water vapor
C. Nitrogen
D. Carbon dioxide
E. Hydrogen
Q:
The heart indents into the __________ of the left lung.
A. oblique fissure
B. hilum
C. apex
D. cardiac impression
E. base
Q:
Each hemoglobin molecule can transport up to __________ oxygen molecules.
A. 6
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Q:
The respiratory system contains a total of five __________.
A. segmental bronchi
B. choanae
C. laryngeal cartilages
D. lobes
E. tracheal cartilages
Q:
Crude sounds are formed into intelligible speech by all of the following except the _________.
A. pharynx
B. epiglottis
C. oral cavity
D. tongue
E. lips
Q:
Which of the following cartilages is largest?
A. Corniculate cartilage
B. Epiglottic cartilage
C. Thyroid cartilage
D. Cricoid cartilage
E. Arytenoid cartilage
Q:
Which law states that the total pressure of a gas mixture is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of its individual gases?
A. Boyle's
B. Valsalva's
C. Dalton's
D. Charles's
E. Henry's
Q:
In a healthy person, which of the following will have the greatest influence on resistance to pulmonary airflow?
A. Atmospheric pressure
B. Respiratory rate
C. Bronchiole diameter
D. Quantity of surfactant
E. Contraction of the diaphragm
Q:
The amount of air in excess of tidal volume that can be inhaled with maximum effort is the __________.
A. vital capacity
B. inspiratory reserve volume
C. expiratory reserve volume
D. residual volume
E. inspiratory capacity
Q:
How is the vital capacity calculated?
A. Inspiratory reserve volume + expiratory volume
B. Inspiratory reserve volume + tidal volume
C. Expiratory reserve volume + tidal volume
D. Expiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume
E. Respiratory volume + tidal volume
Q:
Deep, rapid breathing often seen in terminal diabetes mellitus is known as what?
A. Tachypnea
B. Dyspnea
C. Orthopnea
D. Hyperpnea
E. Kussmaul respiration
Q:
Carbon dioxide is transported by all the following means except _________.
A. carbaminohemoglobin
B. carbonic acid
C. carbonate
D. bicarbonate ions
E. dissolved gas
Q:
Tom is in respiratory arrest due to an electrical shock. Why does a good samaritan have up to 4 or 5 minutes to begin CPR and save Tom's life?
A. There is reserve oxygen in Tom's lungs.
B. There is a venous reserve of oxygen in Tom's blood.
C. The ambient Po2 can support life that long.
D. The Haldane effect lasts up to 5 minutes.
E. Tom's hypoxic drive will keep him alive for up to 5 minutes.
Q:
During exercise, which of the following directly increases respiratory rate?
A. Increased H+ level in the blood
B. The Bohr effect
C. Reduced blood pH
D. Reduced oxyhemoglobin
E. Anticipation of the needs of exercising muscle
Q:
Which of the following would slow down gas exchange between the blood and alveolar air?
A. An increase in membrane thickness
B. An increase in alveolar surface area
C. An increase in respiratory rate
D. A decrease in membrane thickness
E. A decrease in nitrogen solubility
Q:
The addition of CO2 to the blood generates __________ ions in the RBCs, which in turn stimulates RBCs to unload more oxygen.
A. sodium
B. potassium
C. nitrogen
D. hydrogen
E. chloride
Q:
What is the basic distinction between an alveolar duct and an alveolar atrium?
A. Their shape
B. Their size
C. Their function
D. Their epithelial type
E. The presence or absence of cilia
Q:
Which bronchus is about 5cm long and slightly narrower and more horizontal than the one on the opposite side?
A. Left segmental bronchus
B. Right segmental bronchus
C. Right lobar bronchus
D. Left main bronchus
E. Right main bronchus
Q:
Conditions around metabolically active tissues do what to the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve?
A. Shift it right
B. Shift it left
C. Decrease the slope
D. Increase the slope
Q:
Hypocapnia will lead to which of the following conditions?
A. Hypoventilation due to acidosis
B. Hypoventilation due to alkalosis
C. Hyperventilation due to acidosis
D. Hyperventilation due to alkalosis
Q:
What is the least common but most dangerous form of lung cancer?
A. Mesothelioma
B. Adenocarcinoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Small-cell carcinoma
Q:
Which of the following is not a function of the respiratory system?
A. Control of pH
B. Promotes the flow of lymph and venous blood
C. Helps regulate blood pressure
D. Assists in the synthesis of vasodilators
E. Aids in defecation
Q:
The upper respiratory tract extends from the nose through the _________.
A. trachea
B. pharynx
C. larynx
D. alveoli
E. lungs
Q:
The nose is divided into right and left halves called the __________.
A. nasal cavities
B. nasal fossae
C. nasal septa
D. nasal vestibules
E. nasal apertures
Q:
Which two ligaments extend from the thyroid cartilage to the arytenoid cartilages?
A. Vestibular and vocal
B. Laryngeal and corniculate
C. Corniculate and cricoid
D. Cricoid and arytenoid
E. Thyrohyoid and cricoids
Q:
What are the most numerous cells in the lungs?
A. Mucosal cells
B. Type I alveolar cells
C. Type II alveolar cells
D. Dust cells
E. Vibrissal cells
Q:
Each alveolus is surrounded by a web of blood capillaries supplied by the _________.
A. aorta
B. pulmonary artery
C. pulmonary vein
D. inferior vena cava
E. superior vena cava
Q:
Which of the following does not contain ciliated cells?
A. Nasal cavity
B. Trachea
C. Primary bronchus
D. Terminal bronchiole
E. Larygopharynx
Q:
Upon inspiration, what is the name of the air in the conducting division that is not available for gas exchange?
A. Alveolar dead space
B. Tracheal dead space
C. Anatomical dead space
D. Conducting dead space
Q:
The anatomical dead space is greatest in which of the following situations?
A. After eating a large meal
B. After swerving to narrowly avoid an accident while driving
C. After waking up from a long nap
D. After watching TV for an hour
Q:
Air consists of about 78.6% nitrogen, 20.9% oxygen, 0.04% carbon dioxide, and 0.5% water. At sea level, (760 mmHg) what is the PCO2?
A. 597 mm Hg
B. 159 mm Hg
C. 0.3 mm Hg
D. 3.7 mm Hg
Q:
Which law states that the total atmospheric pressure is a sum of the contributions of the individual gases?
A. Henry's
B. Charles's
C. Boyle's
D. Dalton's
Q:
How is alveolar air different than inspired air?
A. Alveolar air has a higher PN2 than inspired air.
B. Alveolar air has a lower PCO2 than inspired air.
C. Alveolar air has a higher PO2 than inspired air.
D. Alveolar air has a higher PH2O than inhaled air.
Q:
Metabolically active tissues have which of the following sets of conditions that shift the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the right?
A. PO2, PCO2, temperature, BPG
B. PO2, PCO2, temperature, BPG
C. PO2, PCO2, temperature, BPG
D. PO2, PCO2, temperature, BPG
Q:
Erythrocytes do not carry out aerobic respiration; thus, they do not consume any of the oxygen they are transporting.
Q:
Hemoglobin releases the same amount of oxygen to all the tissues regardless of variations in their metabolic rate.
Q:
Output from higher brain centers can bypass both the DRG and VRG and go directly to __________, which controls the accessory muscles of respiration.
A. the diaphragm
B. spinal integration centers
C. the cerebral cortex
D. the vagus nerve
Q:
Which of the following issues output to the VRG to adjust the respiratory rhythm?
A. DRG
B. PRG
C. NRG
D. SRG
Q:
Which center bears the primary responsibility for generating the respiratory rhythm, but is influenced by several other centers?
A. PRG
B. DRG
C. VRG
D. SRG
Q:
The pH of the cerebrospinal fluid is monitored by which of these brainstem centers?
A. PRG
B. Hypothalamic osmoreceptors
C. Medullary baroreceptors
D. Central chemoreceptors
Q:
Emotional states are integrated by the __________, which generates an output that creates such respiratory variations as laughing and crying.
A. VRG
B. PRG
C. DRG
D. SRG
Q:
If one inspires through their nose, which of the following answers has the correct order of structures the air would move through?
A. Nares Vestibule Nasal Cavity Nasopharynx Oropharynx Laryngopharynx Larynx Trachea Primary Bronchus Secondary Bronchus Tertiary Bronchus Bronchiole Respiratory Bronchiole Terminal Bronchiole Alveolar Duct Alveolar Sac Alveolus
B. Nares Nasal Cavity Vestibule Nasopharynx Oropharynx Laryngopharynx Larynx Trachea Primary Bronchus Secondary Bronchus Tertiary Bronchus Bronchiole Terminal Bronchiole Respiratory Bronchiole Alveolar Duct Alveolar Sac Alveolus
C. Nares Vestibule Nasal Cavity Nasopharynx Oropharynx Laryngopharynx Larynx Trachea Bronchiole Respiratory Bronchiole Terminal Bronchiole Primary Bronchus Secondary Bronchus Tertiary Bronchus Alveolar Duct Alveolar Sac Alveolus
D. Nares Nasal Cavity Vestibule Nasopharynx Oropharynx Laryngopharynx Larynx Trachea Primary Bronchus Secondary Bronchus Tertiary Bronchus Bronchiole Respiratory Bronchiole Terminal Bronchiole Alveolar Duct Alveolar Sac Alveolus
Q:
Your breathing rate is 14 breaths/minute; spirometric measurements reveal your tidal volume is 500 mL; your inspiratory reserve volume is 3000 mL; and your expiratory reserve volume is 1,200 mL. Your vital capacity is __________ mL.
A. 2,400
B. 3,000
C. 3,800
D. 4,700
E. 5,800
Q:
The maximum amount of air the lungs can contain is known as inspiratory capacity.
Q:
Respiratory arrest is an irreversible condition.
Q:
The pleurae and pleural fluid help prevent the spread of pulmonary infection to the pericardium.
Q:
Breathing is controlled solely by the medulla oblongata and pons.
Q:
The rate of oxygen diffusion is affected by the pressure gradient of carbon dioxide.
Q:
Gas transport is the process of carrying gases from the alveoli to the systemic tissues and vice versa.
Q:
According to the Bohr effect, a low level of oxyhemoglobin enables the blood to transport more CO2.
Q:
Scuba divers breathe a nitrogen-oxygen mixture rather than pure compressed oxygen in order to avoid what condition?
A. The bends
B. Oxygen toxicity
C. Rapture of the deep
D. Caisson disease
E. Hypoxemic hypoxia
Q:
Nitrogen bubbles can form in the blood and other tissues when a scuba diver ascends too rapidly, producing a syndrome called _________.
A. decompression sickness
B. hyperbaric disease
C. cerebral embolism
D. pulmonary barotrauma
E. pulmonary edema
Q:
The vagus and glossopharyngeal nerves carry afferent signals from peripheral chemoreceptors to a chemosensitive area in the ___________.
A. pontine respiratory group
B. dorsal respiratory group
C. ventral respiratory group
D. medulla oblongata
E. pons
Q:
Mucus plays an important role in cleansing inhaled air. It is produced by __________ of the respiratory tract.
A. squamous alveolar cells
B. great alveolar cells
C. the pleurae
D. ciliated cells
E. goblet cells
Q:
The blood transports more CO2 in the form of ___________ than in any other form.
A. carbaminohemoglobin
B. carboxyhemoglobin
C. bicarbonate ions
D. dissolved CO2 gas
E. bisphosphocarbonate
Q:
Among its other purposes, how is the Valsalva maneuver used?
A. To aid in defecation and urination
B. As part of the procedure for giving CPR to a person in respiratory arrest
C. To ventilate the lungs during eupnea
D. To expel more than the usual tidal volume from the lungs
E. To clear carbon monoxide from the body and replace it with oxygen
Q:
Blood banks dispose of blood that has low levels of bisphosphoglycerate. What would be the probable reason for doing so?
A. A low BPG level causes acidosis of blood.
B. Erythrocytes low in BPG do not unload CO2 very well.
C. Erythrocytes low in BPG do not unload O2 very well.
D. Erythrocytes low in BPG do not load O2 very well.
E. A decline in BPG level is accompanied by a decline in hemoglobin level.
Q:
Your breathing rate is 12 breaths/minute; your tidal volume is 500 mL; your vital capacity is 4700 mL; and your dead air space is 150 mL. Your alveolar ventilation rate is __________ mL/min.
A. 2,400
B. 3,600
C. 4,200
D. 5,600
E. 6,400
Q:
Most common allergies are the result of __________.
A. autoimmune diseases
B. type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity
C. type III (immune complex) hypersensitivity
D. type II (antibody-dependent cytotoxic) hypersensitivity
E. type I (acute) hypersensitivity
Q:
Beta cell destruction that causes type 1 diabetes mellitus is a(n) __________.
A. anaphylactic hypersensitivity
B. type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity
C. type III (immune complex) hypersensitivity
D. type II (antibody-dependent cytotoxic) hypersensitivity
E. type I (acute) hypersensitivity
Q:
A person who is HIV-positive and has a helper T (TH) cell count lower than __________ has AIDS.
A. 20,000 cells/mL
B. 5,000 cells/mL
C. 1,000 cells/mL
D. 200 cells/mL
E. 50 cells/mL
Q:
Autoimmune diseases are disorders in which the immune system fails to distinguish __________ from foreign ones.
A. self-immunoglobulins
B. self-antibodies
C. self-antigens
D. self-interleukins
E. self-complement proteins
Q:
Bronchoconstriction, dyspnea, and widespread vasodilation are all characteristics of __________.
A. local anaphylaxis
B. anaphylactic shock
C. autoimmune disease
D. an HIV infection
E. AIDS
Q:
Which malignancy originates in the lamina propria of the bronchi?
A. Squamous-cell carcinoma
B. Oat-cell carcinoma
C. Adenocarcinoma
D. Pulmonary edema
E. Cor pulmonale
Q:
Polio can sometimes damage the brainstem respiratory centers and result in which condition?
A. A Bohr effect
B. Adult respiratory distress syndrome
C. A pneumothorax
D. Atelectasis
E. Ondine's curse