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Home » Philosophy » Page 108

Philosophy

Q: Which of the following is not a vein of the lower limb? A. Popliteal vein B. Posterior tibial artery C. Medial plantar artery D. Fibular vein E. Anterior interosseous artery

Q: What is the longest vein commonly used in grafts in coronary bypass surgery? A. Inferior vena cava B. Femoral vein C. Deep femoral vein D. Great saphenous vein E. Common iliac vein

Q: What are the afferent vessels that carry blood back to the heart? A. Arteries B. Arterioles C. Veins D. Capillaries

Q: Which of the following routes of blood flow is correct? A. Heart venule medium vein large vein capillary conducting artery distributing artery arteriole heart B. Heart large vein medium vein venule capillary arteriole distributing artery conducting artery heart C. Heart distributing artery conducting artery arteriole capillary venule large vein medium vein heart D. Heart conducting artery distributing artery arteriole capillary venule medium vein large vein heart

Q: What is the most important force in venous flow? A. Cardiac suction B. The pressure generated by the heart C. The skeletal muscle pump D. The thoracic (respiratory) pump E. The one way flow due to valves

Q: Blood flow to the __________ remains quite stable even when mean arterial pressure (MAP) fluctuates from 60 to 140 mm Hg. A. hypothalamus B. adrenal gland C. stomach D. skeletal muscles E. kidneys

Q: Pulmonary arteries have __________ blood pressure compared to systemic arteries. A. similar B. a little lower C. considerably lower D. considerably higher E. a little higher

Q: How many pulmonary arteries empty into the right atrium of the heart? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 4 E. 8

Q: The lungs receive a systemic blood supply by way of which vessel(s)? A. Right pulmonary artery B. Left pulmonary artery C. Pulmonary veins D. Bronchial arteries E. Lobar arteries

Q: Which of the following is absent in humans? A. Right and left common carotid arteries B. Right and left brachiocephalic arteries C. Right and left brachiocephalic veins D. Right and left subclavian veins E. Right and left subclavian arteries

Q: Which vessel supplies 80% of the cerebrum? A. Superficial temporal artery B. Occipital artery C. Internal carotid artery D. Anterior cerebral artery E. Middle cerebral artery

Q: Which of the following best describes the cerebral arterial circle (circle of Willis)? A. An anastomosis surrounding the pituitary gland B. A portal system connecting the hypothalamus with the anterior pituitary C. A short anastomosis found in the cerebellum D. Formed by the superior and inferior sagittal sinuses E. An anastomosis circling the entire cortex

Q: What are the major branches of the abdominal aorta from superior to inferior? A. Celiac trunk, superior mesenteric artery, renal arteries, gonadal arteries, inferior mesenteric artery, and common iliac arteries B. Celiac trunk, superior mesenteric artery, gonadal arteries, renal arteries, inferior mesenteric artery, and common iliac arteries C. Superior mesenteric artery, celiac trunk, renal arteries, gonadal arteries, inferior mesenteric artery, and common iliac arteries D. Superior mesenteric artery, celiac trunk, gonadal arteries, renal arteries, inferior mesenteric artery, and common iliac arteries E. Superior mesenteric artery, inferior mesenteric artery, celiac trunk, gonadal arteries, renal arteries, and common iliac arteries

Q: Which of the following constitutes the principal venous drainage of the thoracic organs? A. The branches of the celiac trunk B. The azygos system C. The mesenteric circulation D. The hepatic portal system E. The coronary and pulmonary veins

Q: A mean arterial pressure below 60 mmHg can cause which of the following? A. Neurogenic shock B. Cardiogenic shock C. Compensated shock D. Cerebral edema E. Syncope

Q: Which of the following does not contribute to venous return? A. The difference of pressure between venules and the venae cavae B. The expansion and contraction of the thoracic cavity during ventilation C. The suction created by the atria slightly expanding during ventricular systole D. Widespread vasodilation E. Contraction of skeletal muscles of the limbs

Q: What type of shock can be produced by hemorrhage, severe burns, or dehydration? A. Anaphylactic B. Cardiogenic C. Hypovolemic D. Venous pooling E. Neurogenic

Q: What type of shock occurs when bacterial toxins trigger vasodilation and increase capillary permeability? A. Compensated B. Anaphylactic C. Neurogenic D. Cardiogenic E. Septic

Q: A bee sting can trigger a massive release of histamine, which causes __________ and a(n) __________ in arterial blood pressure. A. vasodilation; decrease B. vasodilation; increase C. vasoconstriction; decrease D. vasoconstriction; increase E. vasoconstriction; oscillation

Q: Myocardial infarction can lead to what type of shock? A. Neurogenic B. Cardiogenic C. Obstructed venous return D. Venous pooling (vascular) E. Hypovolemic

Q: Which of the following are powerful vasoconstrictors? A. Norepinephrine and antidiuretic hormone (ADH) B. Norepinephrine and atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) C. Epinephrine and angiotensin II D. Epinephrine and aldosterone E. Epinephrine and antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

Q: Which of the following does not move substances across capillary walls? A. Reabsorption B. Filtration C. Group transport D. Transcytosis E. Diffusion

Q: What is the most important force driving filtration at the arterial end of a capillary? A. Oncotic pressure B. Tissue fluid colloid osmotic pressure C. Blood colloid osmotic pressure D. Interstitial hydrostatic pressure E. Blood hydrostatic pressure

Q: What is taken up by the capillaries at their venous end? A. Waste products B. Oxygen C. Glucose D. Amino acids E. Organic nutrients

Q: What is the most important force driving reabsorption at the venous end of a capillary? A. Oncotic pressure B. Tissue fluid colloid osmotic pressure C. Blood colloid osmotic pressure D. Interstitial hydrostatic pressure E. Blood hydrostatic pressure

Q: Which of the following does not lead to edema? A. Obstruction of lymphatic vessels B. Liver disease C. Famine D. Hyperproteinemia E. Hypertension

Q: Which of the following would decrease capillary filtration? A. Increased permeability of lymphatic capillaries B. Dehydration C. Increased capillary permeability D. Dietary protein deficiency E. Obstructed venous return

Q: In people who stand for long periods, blood tends to pool in the lower limbs and this may result in varicose veins. What causes the varicose veins? A. An aneurysm or weak point in an artery B. An aneurysm or weak point in a vein C. Failure of the venous valves D. Failure of the lymphatic valves E. A ruptured aneurysm in a vein

Q: What is the mean arterial pressure for a person with 110 and 65 mm Hg as systolic and diastolic pressure, respectively? A. 45 mm Hg B. 80 mm Hg C. 87.5 mm Hg D. 90 mm Hg E. 175 mm Hg

Q: Which of the following would decrease the velocity of blood flow? A. Increased viscosity B. Increased blood pressure C. Increased vessel radius D. Increased afterload E. Decreased vasomotion

Q: What does the medullary ischemic reflex result in? A. Increased circulation to the brain B. Reduced circulation to the brain C. Ischemia of the medulla oblongata D. Increased circulation to the adrenal medulla E. Hormone secretion by the adrenal medulla when perfusion drops

Q: Which of the following has the most important effect on blood velocity? A. Blood viscosity B. Vessel radius C. Blood osmolarity D. Hematocrit E. Vessel length

Q: What causes reactive hyperemia to increase tissue perfusion? A. Urinary controls B. Neural controls C. Hormonal controls D. Local controls E. Respiratory controls

Q: Which of the following decreases blood pressure? A. Norepinephrine B. Antidiuretic hormone C. Angiotensin II D. Aldosterone E. Atrial natriuretic peptide

Q: Where is the vasomotor center located? A. Hypothalamus B. Medulla oblongata C. Spinal cord D. Cerebellum E. Cerebral cortex

Q: Hypertension is commonly considered to be a chronic resting blood pressure higher than __________. A. 180/90 B. 130/60 C. 120/75 D. 140/90 E. 200/90

Q: The outermost wall of an artery or vein is called the __________ and in large arteries and veins contains the __________. A. tunica media; smooth muscle B. tunica externa; vasa vasorum C. tunica externa; valves D. tunica intima; endothelium E. tunica intima; basement membrane

Q: Where is the greatest volume of blood found in the body? A. Pulmonary circuit B. Heart C. Arteries D. Veins E. Capillaries

Q: Alternative routes of blood supply are called __________. A. metarterioles B. capillary beds C. preferred channels D. thoroughfare channels E. anastomoses

Q: Which of the following is not a possible circulatory route from the heart? A. Heart arteries capillary bed veins heart B. Heart arteries capillary bed vein capillary bed veins heart C. Heart arteries capillary bed vein capillary bed arteries heart D. Heart arteries arterial anastomosis capillary bed veins heart E. Heart arteries arterial anastomosis capillary bed venous anastomosis veins heart

Q: Which of the following is associated with vasoreflexes? A. Collagen and elastic tissue in the tunica media B. Elastic tissue in the tunica externa C. Endothelium in the tunica interna D. Smooth muscle in the tunica media E. Fenestrations in the tunica externa

Q: Decompensated shock is normally corrected by the body's homeostatic mechanisms.

Q: The pulmonary circuit is the only route in which arteries carry less oxygen than veins.

Q: Lung tissue receives nourishment and waste removal from the pulmonary circuit.

Q: The greatest outflow from the dural venous sinuses is via the internal jugular vein.

Q: The three primary branches of the celiac trunk are the common hepatic, left gastric, and splenic veins.

Q: Blood filtered through the hepatic sinusoids exits the liver via the hepatic veins.

Q: Arterial flow to the lower limb comes from the external iliac artery.

Q: The brachial vein is the most common site of blood pressure measurement with the sphygmomanometer.

Q: The radial artery is lateral to the ulnar artery.

Q: Arteries are sometimes called the __________ vessels of the cardiovascular system because they have strong-resilient tissue structure. A. resistance B. capacitance C. hydrodynamic D. compliance E. fenestrated

Q: Which vessels have the thickest tunica media? A. Small arteries B. Small veins C. Large arteries D. Large veins E. Capillaries

Q: Blood flow is pulsatile in arteries and veins, but it is steady in capillaries.

Q: Vasoreflexes can raise or lower blood pressure throughout the body.

Q: Increased capillary filtration, reduced reabsorption, or obstruction of lymphatic drainage can lead to edema.

Q: Most tissue fluid is reabsorbed by the lymphatic system.

Q: Which is the correct sequence of events of the cardiac cycle? A. Ventricular filling isovolumetric contraction isovolumetric relaxation ventricular ejection B. Ventricular filling isovolumetric relaxation isovolumetric contraction ventricular ejection C. Ventricular filling ventricular ejection isovolumetric contraction isovolumetric relaxation D. Ventricular filling isovolumetric relaxation ventricular ejection isovolumetric contraction E. Ventricular filling isovolumetric contraction ventricular ejection isovolumetric relaxation

Q: Most of the ventricle filling occurs __________. A. during atrial systole B. when the AV valve is closed C. during ventricular systole D. during atrial diastole E. during isovolumetric contraction

Q: When the ventricles relax, the __________ valve prevents backflow of blood into the left ventricle. A. aortic B. pulmonary C. mitral D. left AV E. right AV

Q: Congestive heart failure (CHF) of the right ventricle __________. A. can cause pulmonary edema B. can cause systemic edema C. increases the ejection fraction of the right ventricle D. reduces the ejection fraction of the left ventricle E. increases cardiac output in both ventricles

Q: Assume that the left ventricle of a child's heart has an EDV=90mL, and ESV=60mL, and a cardiac output of 2,400 mL/min. His SV is __________ mL/beat and his HR is __________ bpm. A. 30; 80 B. 40; 60 C. 80; 30 D. 150; 16 E. 16; 150

Q: Stroke volume is increased by __________. A. high arterial blood pressure B. negative inotropic agents C. increased venous return D. increased afterload E. dehydration

Q: The volume of blood ejected by each ventricle in one minute is called the __________. A. cardiac reserve B. preload C. afterload D. stroke volume E. cardiac output

Q: Cardioinhibitory centers in the __________ receive input from __________. A. cortex; proprioceptors in the muscles B. thalamus; chemoreceptors in the medulla oblongata C. hypothalamus; proprioceptors in the joints D. medulla oblongata; chemoreceptors in the aortic arch E. pons; baroreceptors in the internal carotid

Q: The Frank-Starling law of the heart states that stroke volume is proportional to __________. A. the end-systolic volume B. the end-diastolic volume C. the afterload D. the heart rate E. contractility

Q: Mercury is used to measure blood pressure because it is __________ compared to other liquids. A. more dense B. less dense C. darker in color D. lighter in color E. warmer

Q: Blood flow through a capillary bed is regulated by precapillary sphincters.

Q: Large veins, medium veins, and venules have valves to prevent the backflow of blood.

Q: Mitral valve prolapse causes blood to leak back into the __________ when the ventricles contract. A. left atrium B. right atrium C. aorta D. pulmonary trunk E. pulmonary arteries

Q: Isovolumetric contraction occurs during the __________ of the electrocardiogram. A. P wave B. P-Q segment C. R wave D. S-T segment E. T wave

Q: During isovolumetric contraction, the pressure in the ventricles __________. A. falls rapidly B. rises rapidly C. remains constant D. rises and then falls E. falls and then rises

Q: Mitral valve prolapse (MVP) generates a murmur associated with the __________ heart sound that occurs when the __________. A. lubb (S1); atria contract B. dupp (S2); atria relax C. lubb (S1); ventricles contract D. dupp (S2); ventricles relax E. lubb (S1); ventricles relax

Q: When sodium channels are fully open, the membrane of the ventricular cardiocyte _________. A. sharply hyperpolarizes B. sharply repolarizes C. sharply depolarizes D. plateaus E. has no reponse

Q: Cells of the sinoatrial node __________ during the pacemaker potential. A. depolarize fast B. depolarize slow C. repolarize slow D. repolarize fast E. depolarize slow and repolarize fast

Q: Any abnormal cardiac rhythm is called a(n) __________. A. ectopic focus B. sinus rhythm C. nodal rhythm D. heart block E. arrhythmia

Q: The __________ provides most of the Ca2+ needed for myocardial contraction. A. extracellular fluid B. mitochondria C. sarcoplasmic reticulum D. Golgi apparatus E. cytoskeleton Gradable: automatic

Q: Atrial systole begins __________. A. immediately before the P wave B. immediately after the P wave C. during the Q wave D. during the S-T segment E. immediately after the T wave

Q: Atrial depolarization causes the _________. A. P wave B. QRS complex C. T wave D. first heart sound E. quiescent period

Q: The long plateau in the action potential observed in cardiocytes is probably related with __________ staying longer in the cytosol. A. Na+ B. K+ C. Ca2+ D. Cl- E. Na+, K+, and Ca2+

Q: The long absolute refractory period of cardiocytes _________. A. ensures a short twitch B. prevents tetanus C. makes the heart prone to arrhythmias D. prevents the occurrence of ectopic focuses E. causes the pacemaker potential

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