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Q:
The __________ provides most of the Ca2+ needed for myocardial contraction.
A. extracellular fluid
B. mitochondria
C. sarcoplasmic reticulum
D. Golgi apparatus
E. cytoskeleton Gradable: automatic
Q:
Atrial systole begins __________.
A. immediately before the P wave
B. immediately after the P wave
C. during the Q wave
D. during the S-T segment
E. immediately after the T wave
Q:
Atrial depolarization causes the _________.
A. P wave
B. QRS complex
C. T wave
D. first heart sound
E. quiescent period
Q:
The long plateau in the action potential observed in cardiocytes is probably related with __________ staying longer in the cytosol.
A. Na+
B. K+
C. Ca2+
D. Cl-
E. Na+, K+, and Ca2+
Q:
The long absolute refractory period of cardiocytes _________.
A. ensures a short twitch
B. prevents tetanus
C. makes the heart prone to arrhythmias
D. prevents the occurrence of ectopic focuses
E. causes the pacemaker potential
Q:
An extended period of time between the P wave and the QRS complex may indicate which of the following?
A. The signal is taking too long to get to the AV node.
B. The signal is traveling too quickly to the AV node.
C. Ventricular contraction is taking longer than usual.
D. Ventricular contraction is faster than usual.
E. The atria are not contracting.
Q:
If two QRS complexes occur before a P wave it means the __________.
A. atria are contracting too quickly
B. SA node is not functioning at all
C. the heart is in ventricular fibrillation
D. the ventricles have contracted prematurely
E. the AV node is not functioning
Q:
The __________ is the pacemaker that initiates each heart beat.
A. sympathetic division of the nervous system
B. autonomic nervous system
C. sinoatrial (SA) node
D. atrioventricular (AV) node
E. cardiac conduction system
Q:
Which of the following is not part of the cardiac conduction system?
A. Sinoatrial (SA) node
B. Tendinous cords
C. Atrioventricular (AV) node
D. Atrioventricular (AV) bundle (bundle of His)
E. Purkinje fibers
Q:
Which of the following is not a feature of cardiac muscle?
A. They depend almost exclusively on aerobic respiration.
B. They are rich in glycogen.
C. They have larger than average mitochondria.
D. They are very rich in myoglobin.
E. They have about the same endurance as skeletal muscle fibers.
Q:
The area where the major vessels lead to and from the heart's chambers is called the __________ of the heart. The pointy, inferior portion is called the ___________.
A. apex; base
B. atrium; ventricle
C. ventricle; atrium
D. base; apex
E. endocardium; epicardium
Q:
The __________ performs the work of the heart.
A. fibrous skeleton
B. pericardial cavity
C. endocardium
D. myocardium
E. epicardium
Q:
The right atrioventricular valve (tricuspid) regulates the opening between the _________ and the _________.
A. right atrium; left atrium
B. right atrium; right ventricle
C. right atrium; left ventricle
D. left atrium; left ventricle
E. left ventricle; right ventricle
Q:
Oxygen-poor blood passes through the _________.
A. right AV (tricuspid) and pulmonary valves
B. right AV (tricuspid) valve only
C. left AV (mitral) and aortic valves
D. left AV (mitral) valve only
E. pulmonary and aortic valves
Q:
Opening and closing of the heart valves is caused by _________.
A. breathing
B. gravity
C. valves contracting and relaxing
D. osmotic gradients
E. pressure gradients
Q:
The __________ valve regulates the flow of blood between the right ventricle and the vessels leading to the lungs.
A. right atrioventricular
B. left atrioventricular
C. aortic
D. pulmonary
E. mitral
Q:
The __________ carry blood toward the lungs.
A. pulmonary arteries and veins
B. pulmonary trunk and arteries
C. pulmonary trunk and veins
D. superior and inferior venae cavae
E. aorta and pulmonary arteries
Q:
Which of the following blood vessels receives blood directly from the right ventricle?
A. Pulmonary trunk
B. Ascending aorta
C. Superior vena cava
D. Inferior vena cava
E. Right pulmonary vein
Q:
The chordae tendinae of the AV valves are anchored to the __________ of the ventricles.
A. papillary muscles
B. pectinate muscles
C. trabeculae carnae
D. interventricular septum
E. interatrial septum
Q:
After entering the right atrium, the furthest a red blood cell can travel is the _________.
A. right ventricle
B. pulmonary trunk
C. superior vena cava
D. ascending aorta
E. left atrium
Q:
Which of the following directly stems from the ascending aorta before it branches into the circumflex branch and anterior interventricular branch?
A. Right coronary artery
B. Great cardiac vein
C. Right coronary vein
D. Left coronary artery
E. Left coronary vein
Q:
Obstruction of the ___________ will cause a more severe myocardial infarction (MI) than the obstruction of any of the others.
A. left marginal vein
B. left coronary artery (LCA)
C. posterior interventricular vein
D. anterior interventricular branch
E. circumflex branch
Q:
Which of the following is a feature shared by cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle?
A. Muscle fiber striations
B. Dependence upon nervous stimulation
C. Communication via electrical (gap) junctions
D. Intercalated discs
E. Autorhythmicity
Q:
Pericardial fluid is found between the __________ and the __________.
A. visceral pericardium; myocardium
B. visceral pericardium; epicardium
C. parietal; visceral membranes
D. myocardium; endocardium
E. epicardium; myocardium
Q:
The __________ are the superior chambers of the heart and the _________ are the inferior chambers of the heart.
A. visceral percardia; parietal pericardia
B. ventricles; atria
C. atria; ventricles
D. left ventricles; right ventricles
E. left atria; right atria
Q:
The shallow depression seen on the external surface of the heart between the left and right ventricles is called the __________.
A. coronary sinus
B. interventricular sulcus
C. interventricular septum
D. coronary sulcus
E. left atrium
Q:
Papillary muscles prevent the AV valves from prolapsing (bulging) excessively into the atria when the ventricles contract.
Q:
The ventricles are almost empty at the end of ventricular diastole.
Q:
Ventricular pressure increases the fastest during ventricular filling.
Q:
Hypercapnia and acidosis have positive chronotropic effects.
Q:
Endurance athletes commonly have a resting heart rate as low as 40 bpm, and a stroke volume as low as 50 mL/beat.
Q:
Which of the following carry oxygen-poor blood?
A. Pulmonary veins and vena cavae
B. Aorta and pulmonary veins
C. Aorta and vena cavae
D. Venae cavae and pulmonary arteries
E. Pulmonary veins and pulmonary arteries
Q:
Which of the following belong to the pulmonary circuit?
A. Aorta and venae cavae
B. Aorta and pulmonary veins
C. Pulmonary arteries and venae cavae
D. Venae cavae and pulmonary veins
E. Pulmonary arteries and pulmonary veins
Q:
Which of the following is the most superficial layer enclosing the heart?
A. Parietal pericardium
B. Visceral pericardium
C. Endocardium
D. Epicardium
E. Myocardium
Q:
The heart is located in the space called the __________.
A. pericardial cavity
B. mediastinum
C. abdominal cavity
D. pleural cavity
E. myocardium
Q:
The apex of the heart is found __________ of the midline of the body.
A. to the right
B. to the left
C. in the center
Q:
Desmosomes form channels that allow each cardiocyte to electrically stimulate its neighbors.
Q:
Parasympathetic stimulation reduces heart rate.
Q:
Cardiac muscle can only use glucose as a source of organic fuel.
Q:
If the SA node is damaged, nodal rhythm is sufficient to sustain life.
Q:
Repolarization of a ventricular cardiocyte takes longer than repolarization of a typical neuron.
Q:
Atrial hypertrophy would probably cause an enlarged P wave on an electrocardiogram.
Q:
When a clot is no longer needed, fibrin is dissolved by __________.
A. prothrombin
B. thromboplastin
C. kallikrein
D. plasmin
E. platelet-derived growth factor
Q:
Which of these does not prevent the spontaneous formation of a clot?
A. The presence of tissue thromboplastin
B. The smooth prostacyclin-coated endothelium of blood vessels
C. The dilution of thrombin when blood flows at a normal rate
D. The presence of antithrombin in plasma
E. The presence of heparin in plasma
Q:
Platelets release __________, a chemical vasoconstrictor that contributes to the vascular spasm.
A. heparin
B. thrombin
C. thromboplastin
D. prostacyclin
E. serotonin
Q:
The structural framework of a blood clot is formed by __________.
A. soluble fibrinogen
B. soluble fibrin
C. a fibrin polymer
D. a fibrinogen polymer
E. a thrombin polymer
Q:
The pulmonary circuit is supplied by both the right and the left sides of the heart.
Q:
The systemic circuit contains oxygen-rich blood only.
Q:
The fibrous skeleton of the heart serves as electrical insulation between the atria and the ventricles.
Q:
Blood in the heart chambers provides most of the myocardium's oxygen and nutrient needs.
Q:
Leukopoiesis begins with the differentiation of __________.
A. pluripotent stem cells
B. precursor cells
C. colony-forming units
D. myeloblasts
E. lymphoblasts
Q:
Some lymphocytes can survive as long as __________.
A. days
B. weeks
C. months
D. years
E. decades
Q:
A patient is diagnosed with leukocytosis if they have more than __________ WBCs/mL.
A. 100,000
B. 50,000
C. 10,000
D. 5,000
E. 1,000
Q:
Which of the following has not been implicated in causing leukemia?
A. Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS)
B. Lead poisoning
C. Radiation therapy
D. Dehydration
E. Immunosuppressant drugs
Q:
What is the largest leukocyte that contains small cytoplasmic granules and typically a kidney- or horseshoe-shaped nucleus?
A. Monocyte
B. Lymphocyte
C. Neutrophil
D. Eosinophil
E. Basophil
Q:
Which of the following are not secreted by platelets?
A. Procoagulants
B. Thrombopoietin
C. Growth factors
D. Vasoconstrictors
E. Chemicals that attract neutrophils
Q:
The cessation of bleeding is specifically called __________.
A. a vascular spasm
B. homeostasis
C. hemostasis
D. platelet plug formation
E. coagulation
Q:
What is the function of thromboplastin in hemostasis?
A. It initiates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation.
B. It initiates the extrinsic pathway of coagulation.
C. It converts prothrombin into thrombin.
D. It acts as a potent vasoconstrictor to reduce blood loss.
E. It dissolves the clot after the tissue has healed.
Q:
The main reason why an individual with type AB, Rh-negative blood cannot donate blood to an individual with type A, Rh-positive blood is because __________.
A. anti-A antibodies in the donor will agglutinate RBCs of the recipient
B. anti-A antibodies in the recipient will agglutinate RBCs of the donor
C. anti-B antibodies in the donor will agglutinate RBCs of the recipient
D. anti-D antibodies in the donor will agglutinate RBC of the recipient
E. anti-B antibodies in the recipient will agglutinate RBCs of the donor
Q:
A woman's first pregnancy is normal but her second pregnancy results in hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN). The second child needed a transfusion to completely replace the agglutinating blood. The mother is most likely type __________ and both children are most likely __________.
A. A, Rh-negative; B, Rh-positive
B. A, Rh-positive; B, Rh-negative
C. O, Rh-negative; AB, Rh-negative
D. AB, Rh-positive; O, Rh-negative
E. AB, Rh-positive; O, Rh-positive
Q:
What are the least abundant of the formed elements?
A. Platelets
B. Basophils
C. Erythrocytes
D. Neutrophils
E. Eosinophils
Q:
What are the most abundant agranulocytes?
A. Macrophages
B. Eosinophils
C. Monocytes
D. Lymphocytes
E. Neutrophils
Q:
The number of __________ typically increases in response to bacterial infections.
A. basophils
B. monocytes
C. erythrocytes
D. eosinophils
E. neutrophils
Q:
Which cells aid in the body's defense processes by secreting histamine and heparin?
A. Eosinophils
B. Basophils
C. Neutrophils
D. Platelets
E. Monocytes
Q:
What is the final product of the breakdown of the organic nonprotein moiety of hemoglobin?
A. Biliverdin
B. Bilirubin
C. Globin
D. Heme
E. Iron
Q:
Correction of hypoxemia is regulated by __________.
A. a self-amplifying mechanism
B. an enzymatic amplification
C. a positive feedback loop
D. a negative feedback loop
E. a cascade effect
Q:
A deficiency of __________ can cause pernicious anemia.
A. vitamin C
B. iron
C. vitamin B12
D. EPO secretion
E. folic acid
Q:
Which of the following is not true regarding sickle-cell disease?
A. It is caused by a recessive allele that modifies the structure of hemoglobin.
B. It is due to a hereditary hemoglobin defect.
C. It is advantageous in that it can protect carriers against malaria.
D. It is a cause of malaria.
E. It is a cause of anemia.
Q:
The ABO blood group is determined by __________ in the plasma membrane of RBCs.
A. glycolipids
B. glycoproteins
C. antibodies
D. antigen-antibody complexes
E. agglutinins
Q:
A person with type A blood can safely donate RBCs to someone of type __________ and can receive RBCs from someone of type __________.
A. O; AB
B. AB; O
C. A; B
D. B; A
E. O; O
Q:
A person with type AB blood has __________ RBC antigen(s).
A. no
B. anti-A and anti-B
C. anti-A
D. anti-B
E. A and B
Q:
Why are pregnant Rh- women given an injection of Rh immune globulin?
A. Antibodies in the injection bind fetal RBC antigens so they cannot stimulate her immune system to produce anti-D antibodies.
B. Antibodies in the injection bind fetal RBC antigens so they cannot stimulate her immune system to produce anti-A and anti-B antibodies.
C. Antibodies in the injection bind fetal RBC antigens so they cannot stimulate her immune system to produce anti-A antibodies.
D. Antibodies in the injection bind fetal RBC antigens so they cannot stimulate her immune system to produce anti-O antibodies.
E. Antibodies in the injection bind fetal RBC antigens so they cannot stimulate her immune system to produce anti-B antibodies.
Q:
The universal donor of RBCs, but not necessarily plasma, is blood type __________.
A. AB, Rh-negative
B. AB, Rh-positive
C. O, Rh-negative
D. O, Rh-positive
E. ABO, Rh-negative
Q:
An individual has type B, Rh-positive blood. The individual has __________ antigen(s) and can produce anti-__________ antibodies.
A. A and D; B
B. B and D; A
C. B; A and D
D. A; B and D
E. D; A and B
Q:
Which of the following would not lead to polycythemia?
A. Cancer of the erythropoietic line of the red bone marrow
B. Iron deficiency
C. Dehydration
D. Emphysema
E. Excessive aerobic exercise
Q:
Which of the following is most likely to cause anemia?
A. High altitude
B. Air pollution other than by carbon monoxide
C. Renal disease
D. Smoking
E. Any factor that creates a state of hypoxemia
Q:
Which of the following is not true of a patient with anemia?
A. Their blood viscosity is increased.
B. They are lethargic.
C. Their blood osmolarity is reduced.
D. Their resistance to blood flow is reduced.
E. More fluid transfers from their bloodstream into their intercellular spaces.
Q:
Which of the following is not normally found in plasma?
A. Glycogen
B. Fibrinogen
C. Glucose
D. Urea
E. Albumin
Q:
Which of the following proteins is not normally found in plasma?
A. Albumin
B. Hemoglobin
C. Transferrin
D. Prothrombin
E. Fibrinogen
Q:
What is the most abundant protein in plasma?
A. Insulin
B. Creatine
C. Bilirubin
D. Albumin
E. Creatinine