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Q:
Which of the following structures does not contain CSF?
A. Dural sinus
B. Lateral ventricle
C. Central canal
D. Subarachnoid space
Q:
Injury to the reticular formation can result in which of the following?
A. Irreversible coma
B. Hypertension
C. Parkinson disease
D. Alzheimer disease
Q:
If the cerebrum was no longer able to communicate with the midbrain, what type of tract would you suspect has been damaged?
A. Projection
B. Association
C. Commisural
D. Ascending
Q:
In the cerebral cortex, which cells process information on a local level?
A. Stellate
B. Pyramidal
C. Purkinje
D. Ependymal
Q:
Why is 90% of the cerebral cortex referred to as the neocortex?
A. It developed recently evolutionarily when mammals diversified.
B. It is only found in humans.
C. It is last to develop in the fetus and is thus the youngest part of the brain.
D. It has the ability to regenerate the outermost three of its six layers.
Q:
The neocortex contains which of the following cells?
A. Pyramidal and stellate cells
B. Pyramidal and Purkinje cells
C. Purkinje and stellate cells
D. Pyramidal, stellate, and Purkinje cells
Q:
Nonfluent aphasia, due to a lesion in the __________, results in slow speech, difficulty in choosing words, or use of words that only approximate the correct word.
A. primary motor area
B. cerebral lateralization
C. Broca area
D. Wernicke area
E. primary auditory area
Q:
__________ show more lateralization than __________.
A. Adult males; adult females
B. Young children; adults
C. Young children; elders
D. Adult females; adult males
E. Young male children; adult males
Q:
Which of the following functions would most likely be controlled by the representational hemisphere of the cerebrum?
A. Answering this question
B. Diagnosing a patient's disease
C. Balancing your checkbook
D. Giving a speech
E. Painting a picture
Q:
The great majority of which tracts pass through the corpus callosum?
A. Ascending
B. Descending
C. Projection
D. Commissural
E. Association
Q:
Most gray matter of the cerebrum is located in which region?
A. Reticular formation
B. Neocortex
C. Limbic system
D. Basal nuclei
E. Substantia nigra
Q:
Where are the hippocampus and amygdala found?
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Basal nuclei
C. Limbic system
D. Midbrain
E. Cerebral cortex
Q:
A predominance of which waves in an electroencephalogram (EEG) might indicate that a person is physically and mentally relaxed?
A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Theta
D. Delta
E. Gamma
Q:
Which of the following occurs during rapid eye movement (REM) sleep?
A. The muscles relax, and body temperature, blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate fall.
B. The muscles are very relaxed and body temperature, blood pressure, and heart rate, and respiratory rate are at their lowest levels.
C. The muscles are paralyzed, and body temperature, blood pressure, and heart rate and respiratory rate increase.
D. A person falls into light sleep.
E. A person begins to relax and feels drowsy.
Q:
The __________ association area is responsible for perceiving and attending to stimuli, and the __________ association area is responsible for identifying them.
A. temporal; parietal
B. temporal; occipital
C. frontal; occipital
D. parietal; temporal
E. occipital; frontal
Q:
Short-term memory is associated with the __________, whereas long-term memory is associated with the __________.
A. cerebral cortex; hippocampus
B. hippocampus; cerebral cortex
C. cerebral cortex; amygdala
D. amygdala; hippocampus
E. hippocampus; midbrain
Q:
Destruction of the amygdala would mostly affect which of the following?
A. Memory
B. Awareness of objects
C. Recognition and identification of objects
D. Expression of emotional feelings
E. Cognition
Q:
Which body region is controlled by the largest area of the motor cortex?
A. Shoulder
B. Fingers
C. Toes
D. Trunk
E. Neck
Q:
The pyramidal cells of the precentral gyrus are called __________ neurons.
A. stellate
B. third-order
C. first-order
D. upper motor
E. lower motor
Q:
Sex drive, body temperature, and food and water intake are regulated by which part of the brain?
A. Limbic system
B. Thalamus
C. Pineal gland
D. Hypothalamus
E. Pituitary gland
Q:
A lesion in which structure would cause a person to have an erratic waking/sleeping cycle?
A. Satiety center
B. Mammillary nucleus
C. Suprachiasmatic nucleus
D. Pituitary gland
E. Medial geniculate nucleus
Q:
The pineal gland is part of which larger region of the brain?
A. Thalamus
B. Hypothalamus
C. Occipital lobe
D. Midbrain
E. Epithalamus
Q:
Planning, motivation, and social judgment are functions of the brain associated with which part of the cerebrum?
A. Frontal lobe
B. Parietal lobe
C. Occipital lobe
D. Insula
E. Temporal lobe
Q:
Which of the following is correct regarding the occipital lobe?
A. It is chiefly concerned with mood, memory, and emotions.
B. It is the principal visual center of the brain.
C. It is the primary site for receiving and interpreting signals from the general senses.
D. It is concerned with voluntary motor functions.
E. It is likely to play a role in understanding spoken language.
Q:
Which lobe is deep to the lateral sulcus and can only be seen by removing some of the overlying cerebrum?
A. Frontal lobe
B. Occipital lobe
C. Parietal lobe
D. Temporal lobe
E. Insula
Q:
The __________ function(s) in visual attention, such as to look and follow the flight of a butterfly.
A. inferior colliculi
B. superior colliculi
C. tegmentum
D. red nucleus
E. substantia nigra
Q:
Degeneration of the neurons in which of the following structures leads to the muscle tremors associated with Parkinson disease?
A. Cerebral crus
B. Tegmentum
C. Pons
D. Substantia nigra
E. Inferior colliculi
Q:
The reticular formation is a web of __________ scattered throughout the __________.
A. nerves; white matter in the cerebrum
B. white matter; cerebellum
C. gray matter; brainstem
D. gray matter; cerebrum
E. neurosomas; hypothalamus
Q:
What is the largest part of the hindbrain?
A. Cerebellum
B. Cerebrum
C. Brainstem
D. Pons
E. Hypothalamus
Q:
Loss of equilibrium and motor coordination would most likely be related to a lesion in which structure?
A. Limbic system
B. Pons
C. Pituitary gland
D. Medulla oblongata
E. Cerebellum
Q:
In which structure is the arbor vitae found?
A. Left cerebral hemisphere
B. Tegmentum in the midbrain
C. Cerebellum
D. Reticular formation
E. Diencephalon
Q:
There are no cranial nerves associated with which part of the brain?
A. Thalamus
B. Medulla oblongata
C. Midbrain
D. Cerebellum
E. Pons
Q:
Which of the following is not associated with the pons?
A. Sensory information from the middle region of the face
B. Sensory information from the inferior region of the face
C. Sensory information from the superior region of the face
D. Lateral eye movements
E. Neck movement
Q:
The thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus are derivatives of which embryonic structure?
A. Telencephalon
B. Diencephalon
C. Mesencephalon
D. Metencephalon
E. Myelencephalon
Q:
Nearly all the somatosensory input to the cerebrum passes by way of synapses in which region of the brain?
A. Thalamus
B. Hypothalamus
C. Epithalamus
D. Cerebellum
E. Reticular formation
Q:
Cerebrospinal fluid is secreted by choroid plexuses in the __________ ventricles and reabsorbed by arachnoid villi in the __________.
A. lateral, third, and fourth; superior sagittal sinus
B. lateral, and third; superior sagittal sinus
C. lateral, third, and fourth; central canal of the spinal cord
D. lateral; central canal of the spinal cord
Q:
The blood-brain barrier (BBB) is most permeable to which of the following?
A. Platelets, white blood cells, and red blood cells
B. Sodium, potassium, and chloride
C. Urea and creatinine
D. Glucose and oxygen
E. Antibiotics
Q:
Which structures create the blood brain barrier (BBB)?
A. Gap junctions between endothelial cells that form the capillary walls
B. Tight junctions between endothelial cells that form the capillary walls
C. Gap and tight junctions between astrocytes and endothelial cells that form the capillary walls
D. Desmosomes and tight junctions between astrocytes and ependymal cells that form the capillary walls
E. Gap junctions between ependymal cells and endothelial cells that form the capillary walls
Q:
A patient is experiencing a high fever, stiff neck, drowsiness, and intense headaches. A spinal tap showed bacteria and white blood cells in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). This individual most likely has what condition?
A. Parkinson disease
B. Alzheimer disease
C. Meningitis
D. Hydrocephalus
E. A stroke
Q:
The medulla oblongata originates from which structure?
A. Telencephalon
B. Diencephalon
C. Mesencephalon
D. Metencephalon
E. Myelencephalon
Q:
Where are the cardiac, vasomotor, and respiratory centers found?
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Pons
C. Midbrain
D. Spinal cord
E. Diencephalon
Q:
The cerebellum is __________ to the cerebrum.
A. superficial
B. deep
C. caudal
D. rostral
E. medial
Q:
The gray matter of the cerebrum forms a surface layer called the __________ and deeper masses called __________ surrounded by white matter.
A. nuclei; tracts
B. cortex; nuclei
C. cortex; medulla
D. medulla; midbrain
E. medulla; nerves
Q:
The pons and cerebellum arise from which secondary embryonic vesicle?
A. Telencephalon
B. Diencephalon
C. Mesencephalon
D. Metencephalon
E. Myelencephalon
Q:
Which of the following structures appears as a large bulge just rostral to the medulla?
A. Pons
B. Midbrain
C. Cerebellum
D. Medulla oblongata
E. Hypothalamus
Q:
Which structure forms the floor and part of the walls of the third ventricle?
A. Thalamus
B. Hypothalamus
C. Epithalamus
D. Pituitary gland
E. Midbrain
Q:
From superficial to deep, the meninges occur in which order?
A. Dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid
B. Dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater
C. Pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid
D. Pia mater, arachnoid, dura mater
E. Arachnoid, pia mater, dura mater
Q:
Which of the following is not a function of CSF?
A. To regulate the chemical environment of the nervous tissue
B. To rinse metabolic wastes from the nervous tissue
C. To provide oxygen and nutrients to the nervous tissue
D. To protect the brain from striking the cranium when the head is jolted
E. To allow the brain to attain considerable size without being impaired by its own weight
Q:
The forebrain consists of the cerebrum and the diencephalon.
Q:
Structures in the midbrain control homeostasis and relay sensory signals to specific regions of the cerebral cortex.
Q:
The amygdala, hippocampus and hypothalamus are involved in such feelings as love, anger, fear, pleasure, and pain.
Q:
The Wernicke area recognizes spoken and written language.
Q:
The vision association area resides primarily in the temporal lobe.
Q:
All cranial nerves lead to structures in the head and neck.
Q:
There are three cranial nerves involved in eye movement and two in the sense of taste.
Q:
The following are all major components of the brainstem except the _________.
A. diencephalon
B. pons
C. medulla oblongata
D. midbrain
E. cerebellum
Q:
The right and left cerebral hemispheres are separated from each other by __________.
A. many sulci
B. many gyri
C. the brainstem
D. the longitudinal fissure
E. the corpus callosum
Q:
The epidural space is filled with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
Q:
The blood-brain barrier (BBB) helps prevent hemorrhages in the nervous tissue of the brain.
Q:
The blood-CSF barrier is composed of dense regular connective tissue lining the ventricles.
Q:
Purkinje cells are unusually large neurons found in the cerebellum.
Q:
The cerebellum is the largest part of the brain.
Q:
The medulla oblongata is the most rostral part of the brain.
Q:
The fibers that carry the action potentials that cause skeletal muscle to contract are __________.
A. gamma motor neurons
B. anulospiral endings
C. intrafusal fibers
D. extrafusal fibers
E. alpha motor neurons
Q:
You go to the movies after a long day and you begin to nod off as soon as the movie starts. Your head starts to lower a little, but a reflex causes your head to rise. This is called the __________ reflex.
A. tendon
B. crossed extension
C. withdrawal
D. stretch (myotatic)
E. flexor (withdrawal)
Q:
In the patellar tendon reflex arc, the patellar ligament is stretched, which stretches the quadriceps femoris muscle of the thigh. This reflex will cause the quadriceps femoris to __________ and the hamstrings to __________.
A. contract; relax
B. contract; contract
C. relax; contract
D. relax; relax
Q:
A reflex in which the sensory input and motor output are on opposite sides of the spinal cord, is called a(n) _________ reflex arc.
A. intersegmental
B. contralateral
C. ipsilateral
D. polysynaptic
E. monosynaptic
Q:
Which of the following is true regarding the tendon reflex?
A. It causes a muscle that is being stretched to contract.
B. It makes the contralateral motor neurons contract.
C. It makes the ipsilateral motor neurons relax.
D. It prevents overcontraction of a muscle.
E. It causes a tendon to contract.
Q:
Which reflex shows the least synaptic delay?
A. A polysynaptic reflex
B. The cross extension reflex
C. The withdrawal reflex
D. The flexor reflex
E. The tendon reflex
Q:
Tendon organs are __________.
A. chemoreceptors
B. visceral receptors
C. proprioceptors
D. pain receptors
E. nociceptors
Q:
Which of the following is not a distal branch of the spinal nerve?
A. Anterior ramus
B. Posterior ramus
C. Posterior root
D. Meningeal branch
E. Communicating rami
Q:
Both cerebrum and cerebellum have gray matter in their surface cortex and deeper nuclei, and white matter deep to the cortex.
Q:
Which of the following groups of muscles has the most muscle spindles?
A. Muscles of the hand
B. Muscles of the back
C. Muscles of the thigh
D. Muscles of the middle-ear
E. Muscles of the torso
Q:
The cerebellum exhibits folds called gyri separated by grooves called sulci.
Q:
Which of the following is not a property of reflexes?
A. Reflex responses are very predictable.
B. Reflexes are responses to sensory inputs.
C. Reflexes are quick responses of the nervous system.
D. Reflexes are not voluntary.
E. Reflexes do not require a stimulus.
Q:
A nurse pricks your finger to type your blood. You flinch at the pain, pulling your hand back. This is called the __________ reflex.
A. painful
B. stretch
C. flexor (withdrawal)
D. tendon
E. crossed extension
Q:
Reflex arcs that only use two neurons are called ____________ reflex arcs.
A. ipsilateral
B. contralateral
C. polysynaptic
D. monosynaptic
E. autonomic
Q:
The flexor (withdrawal) reflex employs a ___________, which maintains a sustained contraction.
A. parallel after-discharge circuit
B. diverging circuit
C. converging circuit
D. closed circuit
E. reverberating circuit
Q:
If a bee sting on the right thigh causes a quick involuntary reaction of the right arm, this would be an example of a(n) __________ reflex.
A. bilateral
B. intersegmental
C. withdrawal
D. crossed extensor
E. contralateral
Q:
The sensitivity of the muscle spindle is maintained by __________.
A. a stretch reflex
B. alpha motor neurons
C. gamma motor neurons
D. anulospiral endings
E. secondary afferent (group II) fibers