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Q:
Synovial fluid is rich in albumin and hyaluronic acid, which give it a viscous texture similar to egg white.
Q:
Bursae are structures associated with fibrous, cartilaginous, and synovial joints.
Q:
The acetabulum articulates with the __________.
A. humerus
B. femur
C. patella
D. tibia
E. hip bone
Q:
A newborn passes through the__________ of its mother during birth.
A. obturator foramen
B. pelvic inlet
C. pelvic outlet
D. acetabulum
E. false pelvis
Q:
Male and female pelves differ in all of the following features except __________.
A. the male pelvis is more massive
B. the male pelvic outlet is smaller
C. the female pubic arch is usually greater than 100 degrees
D. the female coccyx is tilted posteriorly
E. the female sacrum is longer
Q:
The __________ does not belong to the femur.
A. anterior border
B. fovea capitis
C. medial condyle
D. greater trochanter
E. lesser trochanter
Q:
You cannot palpate the __________ on a living person.
A. lateral malleolus
B. tibial tuberosity
C. medial surface of the fibula
D. anterior border of the tibia
E. calcaneus
Q:
There are __________ bones in a newborn compared with the average number in an adult.
A. more
B. fewer
C. the same number of
Q:
What are the three auditory ossicles?
A. The malleus, incus, and stapes
B. The superior, middle, and inferior nasal conchae
C. The hyoid, mandible, and maxilla
D. The temporal, sphenoid, and ethmoid bones
Q:
The __________ is a U-shaped bone that sits above the larynx yet does not articulate with any other bone.
A. hyoid bone
B. mandible
C. maxilla
D. zygomatic bone
Q:
Which cranial bone(s) are separate right and left bones at birth but generally fuse by the age of 5?
A. Frontal bone and mandible
B. Frontal bone and maxilla
C. Mandible and maxilla
D. Frontal bone and occipital bone
Q:
A young girl falls off her bike and lands on her hand, breaking the medial bone of her antebrachium. Which bone did she break?
A. Her carpal
B. Her metacarpal
C. Her humerus
D. Her radius
E. Her ulna
Q:
Which of the following is found in the palm of your hand?
A. Carpal
B. Metacarpal
C. Tarsal
D. Metatarsal
E. Phalanx
Q:
Which of the following is a sesamoid bone?
A. Metatarsal
B. Tarsal
C. Tibia
D. Fibula
E. Patella
Q:
Which of the following is not considered a weight-bearing bone?
A. The femur
B. The tibia
C. The fibula
D. The talus
E. The calcaneous
Q:
Spines of the __________ form a part of the pelvic outlet.
A. sacrum
B. pubis
C. ischium
D. ilium
E. pubic symphysis
Q:
Rib 7 is a __________ rib.
A. true
B. floating
C. false
D. pelvic
E. cartilaginous
Q:
The __________ can be easily palpated between the clavicles.
A. xiphoid process
B. suprasternal notch
C. body of the sternum
D. costal cartilage
E. costal groove
Q:
Which of the following is not true of a thoracic vertebra?
A. The body has facets as points of articulation for ribs.
B. It usually has a facet at the end of each transverse process for attachment of a rib.
C. The body is more massive than those of cervical vertebrae but less than those of lumbar vertebrae.
D. The spinous process is pointed and angled sharply downward.
E. It has a pair of transverse foramina.
Q:
The spinous process has a bifid tip in most __________ vertebrae.
A. cervical
B. thoracic
C. lumbar
D. sacral
E. coccygeal
Q:
The __________ belongs to the thoracic cage, whereas the __________ belongs to the pectoral girdle.
A. sternum; clavicle
B. clavicle; sternum
C. vertebra T5; vertebra T1
D. scapula; clavicle
E. scapula; sternum
Q:
In a herniated disc, the ring of fibrocartilage called the __________ ruptures and the __________ oozes out.
A. nucleus pulposus; anulus fibrosus
B. lamina; nucleus pulposus
C. anulus fibrosus; nucleus pulposus
D. anulus fibrosus; body
E. nucleus pulposus; lamina
Q:
The manubrium is part of what bone?
A. Clavicle
B. Sternum
C. Scapula
D. A rib
E. Vertebra
Q:
Which of the following do costal cartilages connect?
A. The clavicles with the sternum
B. The true ribs with the scapula
C. The floating ribs with xiphoid process
D. The false ribs with the viscera and peritoneum
E. The ribs with the sternum
Q:
Which of the following is not part of the pectoral girdle?
A. The glenohumeral joint
B. The acromioclavicular joint
C. The sternoclavicular joint
D. The sacroiliac joint
E. The clavicle and scapula
Q:
The acromion is an anatomical feature of the __________.
A. clavicle
B. scapula
C. ulna
D. scaphoid
E. pollex
Q:
The antebrachium contains the __________.
A. radius and ulna
B. humerus
C. carpals and metacarpals
D. scapula and clavicle
E. phalanges
Q:
The glenoid cavity of the __________ articulates with the head of the __________.
A. scapula; sternum
B. radius; humerus
C. humerus; scapula
D. sternum; humerus
E. scapula; humerus
Q:
The right hand and wrist of an adult has __________ bones.
A. 15
B. 18
C. 25
D. 27
E. 28
Q:
Which of the following is not found on a typical vertebra?
A. Spinous process
B. Transverse processes
C. Vertebral head
D. Vertebral foramen
E. Vertebral body
Q:
Which of the following is only found on the axis vertebra?
A. Transverse foramen
B. Spinous process
C. Dens (odontoid process)
D. Vertebral arch
E. Superior articular facet
Q:
Which bone is a part of the skull and not just associated with it?
A. Incus
B. Malleus
C. Hyoid
D. Stapes
E. Vomer
Q:
Fontanels are __________ in an infant.
A. spaces between the unfused cranial bones
B. cartilages covering cranial bones
C. fibrous connective tissues lining the cranial cavity
D. fibrous connective tissues lining the orbits
E. fibrous connective tissues lining paranasal sinuses
Q:
All of these contribute to the wall of the orbit except the __________ bone.
A. sphenoid
B. frontal
C. maxillary
D. zygomatic
E. nasal
Q:
Which of the following bones is adjacent to both the coronal and lambdoid sutures?
A. Occipital bone
B. Sphenoid bone
C. Parietal bone
D. Zygomatic bone
E. Frontal bone
Q:
Which bone helps form the coronal, lambdoid, and squamous sutures of the skull?
A. Occipital bone
B. Sphenoid bone
C. Parietal bone
D. Temporal bone
E. Frontal bone
Q:
Which of the following bones forms the bulk of the hard palate?
A. Nasal bone
B. Mandible
C. Ethmoid bone
D. Maxilla
E. Lacrimal bone
Q:
Which of the following articualtes with the vertebral column?
A. Mandibular fossa
B. Mastoid process
C. Occipital condyle
D. Foramen magnum
E. Zygomatic arch
Q:
From superior to inferior, how many individual vertebrae are there of each type?
A. 12; 7; 5; 5; 4
B. 12; 5; 5; 7; 4
C. 7; 5; 5; 12; 4
D. 7; 12; 5; 5; 4
E. 7; 5; 5; 4; 12
Q:
Which of the following is the most common spinal curvature deformity?
A. Scoliosis
B. Lordosis
C. Kyphosis
D. Osteosis
E. Herniation
Q:
Which intervertebral disc is largest?
A. The one between C2 and C3
B. The one between C7 and T1
C. The one between T4 and T5
D. The one between T12 and L1
E. The one between L4 and L5
Q:
Sinuses are absent from which bone?
A. Sphenoid
B. Frontal
C. Temporal
D. Maxilla
E. Ethmoid
Q:
All of the following are found on the temporal bone except the __________.
A. zygomatic process
B. mastoid process
C. external acoustic meatus
D. sella turcica
E. mandibular fossa
Q:
Which of the following are not considered facial bones?
A. Parietal bones
B. Maxillae
C. Lacrimal bones
D. Nasal bones
E. Palatine bones
Q:
The __________ houses the pituitary gland (hypophysis) and is found in the __________.
A. foramen magnum; occipital bone
B. sella turcica; sphenoid bone
C. lambdoid suture; parietal bones
D. supraorbital margin; frontal bone
E. occipital condyle; occipital bone
Q:
Which of the following bones is a single unpaired bone?
A. Ethmoid
B. Parietal
C. Maxilla
D. Zygomatic
E. Palatine
Q:
The __________ suture separates the temporal bone from the parietal bone.
A. coronal
B. squamous
C. lambdoid
D. sagittal
E. frontal
Q:
All the bones below belong to the axial skeleton, except the __________, which belongs to the appendicular skeleton.
A. frontal bone
B. mandible
C. scapula
D. thoracic vertebra
E. stapes
Q:
A rounded knob that articulates with another bone is called a(n) __________.
A. condyle
B. sulcus
C. alveolus
D. foramen
E. sinus
Q:
Any bony prominence is called a(n) ___________.
A. epicondyle
B. tubercle
C. fossa
D. head
E. process
Q:
Why does an adult not have as many bones as a child?
A. Osteoporosis leads to bone loss with age.
B. Some separate bones gradually fuse with age.
C. Many bones are replaced by cartilage with age.
D. Bones are reabsorbed with age.
E. Osteoclast activity overcomes osteoblast activity with age.
Q:
What is a sesamoid bone?
A. A bone growing within some cartilages in response to pressure
B. A bone that forms within some tendons in response to stress
C. A bone that forms in the cranium in response to trauma
D. A bone made of hyaline cartilage
E. A bone made of dense regular connective tissue
Q:
A hole through a bone that usually allows passage for nerves and blood vessels is called a(n) _________.
A. canal
B. alveolus
C. fissure
D. foramen
E. sinus
Q:
Which of the bones below does not belong to the appendicular skeleton?
A. Clavicle
B. Patella
C. Ethmoid
D. Ulna
E. Fibula
Q:
Most of the bones of the skull are connected by immovable joints called __________.
A. sinuses
B. syndesmoses
C. symphyses
D. fissures
E. sutures
Q:
All ribs articulate with the sternum.
Q:
Men have one rib fewer than women.
Q:
The styloid process of the radius can be palpated proximal to the thumb.
Q:
There are three bones in the pollex.
Q:
The pubic symphysis can be palpated as a hard prominence above the genitalia.
Q:
Medial and lateral condyles of the femur are involved in the hip joint.
Q:
The ischium is posterior to the pubis and inferior to the ilium.
Q:
The average number of bones in the adult skeleton is __________.
A. 56
B. 106
C. 156
D. 206
E. 256
Q:
The mastoid process cannot be palpated on a living person.
Q:
Healthy paranasal sinuses are filled with mucus.
Q:
The optic canal is part of the sphenoid bone.
Q:
Sutures are found between the cranial, facial, and sacral bones.
Q:
The atlantoaxial joint is the joint between C1 and C2.
Q:
Condyles are found in the axial skeleton only.
Q:
What would you find in the marrow cavity of the diaphysis of an adult humerus (arm bone)?
A. Periosteum
B. Hemopoietic tissue
C. Red bone marrow
D. Yellow bone marrow
E. Compact bone
Q:
Which one of the following bone cells would have the greatest number of lysosomes?
A. Osteoblasts
B. Osteoclasts
C. Osteocytes
D. Osteogenic cells
E. Stem cells
Q:
It is common to find __________ in compact bone, but they are not seen in spongy bone.
A. lamellae
B. osteoclasts
C. lacunae
D. central canals
E. osteocytes
Q:
Intramembranous ossification produces the __________.
A. irregular bones of the vertebrae
B. flat bones of the skull
C. long bones of the limbs
D. short bones of the wrist
E. short bones of the ankle
Q:
In endochondral ossification, the precursor connective tissue is __________, which is replaced by bone.
A. embryonic mesenchyme
B. fibrous membranes
C. hyaline cartilage
D. transitional epithelium
E. fibrocartilage
Q:
The __________ is a marginal zone of the epiphyseal plate where, in children and adolescents, bone can be seen replacing the hyaline cartilage.
A. metaphysis
B. primary ossification center
C. secondary ossification center
D. osteoid tissue
E. epiphyseal line
Q:
Trochanters are unique to the femur.
Q:
Achondroplastic dwarfism is a hereditary condition, in which the long bones of the limbs fail to elongate normally because of reduced hyperplasia and hypertrophy of cartilage in the __________.
A. primary ossification center
B. secondary ossification center
C. primary bone marrow
D. secondary bone marrow
E. epiphyseal plate
Q:
Chondrocytes multiply in the zone of __________ of the metaphysis.
A. reserve cartilage
B. cell proliferation
C. cell hypertrophy
D. calcification
E. bone deposition
Q:
Mature bones are remodeled throughout life via a process known as __________.
A. intramembranous ossification
B. endochondral ossification
C. interstitial growth
D. appositional growth
E. metaphysical growth
Q:
Bone elongation is a result of __________.
A. cartilage growth
B. muscle growth
C. osseous tissue growth
D. fibrous membrane addition
E. dense irregular connective tissue addition