Q&A Hero

Q: Condyles are found in the axial skeleton only.

Q: The center cavity of the diaphysis of a long bone is called the __________. A. marrow cavity B. central canal C. nutrient foramen D. canaliculus E. epiphysis

Q: The thin layer of compact bone that separates an adult's epiphysis from the diaphysis is called the __________. A. periosteum B. metaphysis C. growth plate D. epiphyseal line E. diaphyseal line

Q: The cortex of the long bone's diaphysis is made of _________. A. marrow B. compact bone C. spongy bone D. dense regular connective tissue E. articular cartilage

Q: The expanded head at each end of a long bone is called the __________. A. epiphysis B. diaphysis C. articular cartilage D. periosteum E. endosteum

Q: A long bone is covered externally with a sheath called the __________, whereas the marrow cavity is lined with the __________. A. epiphysis; diaphysis B. diaphysis; epiphysis C. compact bone; spongy bone D. periosteum; endosteum E. endosteum; periosteum

Q: Bone-forming cells are called __________. A. osteogenic (osteoprogenitor) cells B. osteoblasts C. osteoclasts D. osteocytes E. osteons

Q: When ____________ become enclosed in lacunae, they become cells called _____________. A. osteogenic cells; osteoblasts B. osteoblasts; osteoclasts C. osteoblasts; osteocytes D. osteocytes; osteoclasts E. osteocytes; osteoblasts

Q: The spaces found within the concentric lamellae are called __________, and they contain __________. A. canaliculi; osteoblasts B. osteons; stem cells C. lacunae; osteocytes D. lacunae; osteoclasts E. central canals; osteocytes

Q: Which of the following is an inorganic component of the bone matrix? A. Proteoglycans B. Glycoproteins C. Collagen D. Hydroxyapatite E. Glycosaminoglycans

Q: Spicules and trabeculae are found in __________. A. compact bone B. bone matrix C. yellow bone marrow D. red bone marrow E. spongy bone

Q: Red bone marrow does not contain __________. A. myeloid tissue B. yellow bone marrow C. hemopoietic tissue D. white blood cells E. red blood cells

Q: The hardness of bone comes from __________, whereas __________ provide(s) some degree of flexibility. A. hydroxyapatite and other minerals; proteins B. collagen and elastic fibers; minerals C. glycoproteins; proteoglycans D. calcium carbonate; calcium phosphate E. proteins; collagen

Q: The plasma membrane of __________ have a ruffled border with many deep infoldings, whereas __________ have long, thin, fingerlike cytoplasmic processes. A. osteoclasts; osteocytes B. osteocytes; osteoclasts C. osteoblasts; osteoclasts D. osteoblasts; osteocytes E. osteocytes; osteogenic cells

Q: Which of the following is not a function of the skeleton? A. Storage of calcium and phosphate ions B. Storage of red blood cells C. Providing support for most muscles D. Protecting the brain E. Protecting the spinal cord

Q: Osseous tissue is a(an) ____________ tissue. A. connective B. epithelial C. dense regular D. dense irregular E. reticular

Q: Which of the following tissues is not found as part of a long bone? A. Osseous tissue B. Nervous tissue C. Adipose tissue D. Cartilage E. Transitional epithelium

Q: Osteoid tissue is similar to bone except for a lack of minerals.

Q: Intramembranous ossification is common in children, whereas endochondral ossification is typical in young adults.

Q: Bones grow in diameter by interstitial growth.

Q: Hypercalcemia causes depression of the nervous system.

Q: Parathyroid hormone (PTH) binds to receptors on osteoblasts.

Q: Hypercalcemia is rare, but hypocalcemia can result from a wide variety of conditions.

Q: Closed reduction is the surgical realignment of the parts of a broken bone.

Q: Osteomalacia results in bone brittleness.

Q: Osteoporosis often leads to an exaggerated thoracic spinal curvature, which is called kyphosis.

Q: The most common bone disease is __________. A. osteomyelitis B. osteoporosis C. osteosarcoma D. osteomalacia E. rickets

Q: Most blood cells are produced in the red marrow of bones.

Q: A vertebra is considered an irregular bone.

Q: A radiograph (X-ray) of a child's hand will show epiphyseal lines.

Q: The hemopoietic tissue in a bone is otherwise known as myeloid tissue.

Q: Concentric lamellae within an osteon are connected by lacunae.

Q: Osteogenic cells are bone stem cells that differentiate into osteoblasts and osteoclasts.

Q: A fracture in which the bone is broken into three or more pieces is called a __________ fracture. A. linear B. pott C. comminuted D. greenstick E. compound

Q: The result of blood calcium and phosphate levels being too low for normal deposition is a softness of the bones called __________ in children and __________ in adults. A. osteomalacia; rickets B. rickets; osteomalacia C. osteoporosis; osteomalacia D. osteomyelitis; osteosarcoma E. osteomyelitis; osteomalacia

Q: Bone protrudes through the skin in a fracture called __________. A. complete B. incomplete C. closed D. open E. displaced

Q: A break in a bone that is already weakened by some other disease is called a(n) __________ fracture. A. greenstick B. open C. closed D. pathologic E. displaced

Q: Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the healing of a bone fracture? A. Bone remodeling soft callus formation hard callus formation hematoma formation B. Bone remodeling hard callus formation soft callus formation hematoma formation C. Hematoma formation soft callus formation hard callus formation bone remodeling D. Hematoma formation hard callus formation soft callus formation bone remodeling E. Soft callus formation hard callus formation hematoma formation bone remodeling

Q: Patches of fibrocartilage formed in the healing of a fracture are called __________, whereas the bony collar formed around the fracture is called __________. A. fracture hematoma; granulation tissue B. granulation tissue; soft callus C. fracture hematoma; hard callus D. granulation tissue; hard callus E. soft callus; hard callus

Q: Phosphate is necessary for all of the following except __________. A. ATP B. DNA C. phospholipids D. RNA E. amino acids

Q: Calcium plays an essential role in all of the following except __________. A. muscle contraction B. exocytosis C. blood clotting D. DNA synthesis E. communication among neurons

Q: Which of the following is not a function of parathyroid hormone (PTH)? A. Promote calcium reabsorption by the kidneys B. Stimulate osteoclast activity C. Lower blood calcium D. Promote calcitriol synthesis E. Inhibit osteoblast activity

Q: Synthesized by the combined action of the skin, kidneys, and liver, _________ is important to the deposition of bone. A. growth hormone B. testosterone C. estrogen D. calcitonin E. calcitriol

Q: Which of the following does not put women at risk for hypocalcemia? A. Lactation B. Pregnancy C. Removal of the parathyroid glands D. Removal of the thyroid gland E. Lack of exposure to UV radiation

Q: Hypocalcemia can cause __________. A. emotional disturbances B. depression of the nervous system C. muscle weakness D. sluggish reflexes E. muscle spasms

Q: Arteriosclerosis is one example of ectopic ossification, which means __________. A. the solubility product has been reached B. artery mineralization by osteoblasts C. abnormal calcification of a tissue D. accumulation of collagenous fibers in blood vessels E. ossification of an entire blood vessel

Q: If a thyroid tumor secreted an excessive amount of calcitonin, we would expect ___________. A. an elevated level of osteoclast activity B. an elevated level of osteoblast activity C. a reduced rate of endochondral ossification D. a rise in blood calcium concentration E. increasingly brittle bones

Q: A soft callus forms during ___________. A. endochondral ossification B. intramembranous ossification C. bone growth at the metaphysis D. the remodeling of bone E. the healing of a fracture

Q: Osteoporosis is most common in elderly women because of the lack of ___________, which would otherwise inhibit ____________. A. dietary calcium; estrogen production B. osteoblasts; osteoclast activity C. estrogen; osteoclast activity D. parathyroid hormone; osteocyte activity E. exercise; osteoblast activity

Q: The process of dissolving bone and returning its minerals to the bloodstream is known as _________. A. mineralization B. mineral deposition C. crystallization D. resorption E. ossification

Q: Which of the following exemplifies a positive feedback process happening in bone mineral deposition? A. The first few crystals that form attract more calcium and phosphate. B. Osteoblasts neutralize inhibitors that prevent bone resorption. C. Osteoclasts secrete acid phosphatase that digests collagen. D. Collagen is digested by enzymes and hydroxyapatite by hydrochloric acid. E. Solubility product is reached in the tissue fluids.

Q: Looking at a slide of axillary skin under the microscope, you notice the presence of __________ glands that are absent on slides of the scalp. A. merocrine B. apocrine C. sebaceous D. ceruminous E. perspiration

Q: Which cutaneous glands are concerned with cooling the body? A. Ceruminous glands B. Sebaceous glands C. Merocrine glands D. Apocrine glands E. Exothermic glands

Q: The __________ glands are a source of sex pheromones. A. ceruminous B. merocrine C. mammary D. sebaceous E. apocrine

Q: Mammary glands are modified __________ glands that develop within the female breasts. A. merocrine B. apocrine C. ceruminous D. sebaceous E. eccrine

Q: Which two strata of the epidermis are most susceptible to cancer? A. Stratum corneum and stratum lucidum B. Stratum basale and stratum corneum C. Stratum spinosum and stratum basale D. Stratum granulosum and stratum spinosum E. Stratum lucidum and stratum granulosum

Q: The "ABCD rule" for recognizing early signs of malignant melanoma refers to the following characteristics of the lesion: A. asymmetry, border irregularity, color, and diameter B. asymmetry, brightness, color, and diameter C. aspect, brightness, color, and distance D. aspect, border irregularity, color, and distance E. area, border irregularity, color, and density

Q: The least common, but most deadly, type of skin cancer is __________. A. basal cell carcinoma B. squamous cell carcinoma C. melanoma D. skin lymphoma E. skin sarcoma

Q: Basal cell carcinoma initially affects cells of the stratum __________. A. spinosum B. germinativum C. corneum D. basale E. lucidum

Q: __________ burns involve the epidermis, all of the dermis, and often some deeper tissue. A. First-degree B. Second-degree C. Third-degree D. Partial-thickness E. Malignant

Q: The most immediate threat to the life of a patient with severe burns is __________. A. fluid loss B. eschar C. heat loss D. pain E. infection

Q: The skin is a barrier to all of the following except __________. A. metals such as mercury B. infectious organisms C. water D. UV rays

Q: In whom are mammary glands found? A. In lactating females B. In lactating and non-lactating females C. In non-lactating females D. In non-lactating females and males

Q: A growing long bone in a child has only two areas of cartilage at the epiphysis. These two areas are the __________. A. elastic cartilage and epiphyseal plate B. epiphyseal plate and epiphyseal line C. primary and secondary ossification centers D. fibrocartilage and articular cartilage E. articular cartilage and epiphyseal plate

Q: __________ is/are formed partly from the secretions of glands in the external ear canal. A. Sebum B. Cerumen C. Sweat D. Scents E. Mucus

Q: What type of hair is present prenatally and usually replaced by birth? A. Lunule B. Peach fuzz C. Terminal hair D. Vellus E. Lanugo

Q: Blood vessels in the __________ provide a hair with its sole source of nutrition. A. bulb B. root C. shaft D. dermal papilla E. medulla

Q: The base where a hair follicle originates in the skin is known as the __________. A. Hair bulb B. Hair root C. Shaft D. Medulla E. Cuticle

Q: The contraction of the piloerector muscles (pilomotor muscle or arrector pili) in humans causes __________. A. hairs to stand on end, trapping an insulating layer of warm air next to the skin B. generation of heat to raise the body temperature C. hairs to stand on end to make the individual appear bigger D. hairs to stand on end with no apparent function E. increased ability to feel pain

Q: A hair cycle consists of three developmental stages in which order? A. Anagen, telogen, and catagen B. Anagen, catagen, and telogen C. Catagen, anagen, and telogen D. Catagen, telogen, and anagen E. Telogen, anagen, and catagen

Q: Each hair grows in an oblique epithelial tube called a(an) __________. A. hair follicle B. vellum C. pilus D. bulb E. shaft

Q: Excessive hairiness is called __________. A. telogenism B. anagenism C. catagenism D. alopecia E. hirsutism

Q: The narrow zone of dead skin overhanging the proximal end of a nail is called the __________. A. eponychium B. lunule C. nail plate D. nail body E. nail root

Q: What is the white opaque "moon" often found at the proximal end of a fingernail called? A. Free edge B. Nail body C. Eponychium D. Lunule E. Nail root

Q: Variations in hair color arise from differing amounts of __________. A. collagen and elastic filaments B. keratin and melanin C. carotene and hemoglobin D. carotene and collagen E. eumelanin and pheomelanin

Q: Mitosis in the __________ accounts for growth of the nail. A. nail plate B. nail fold C. eponychium D. hyponychium E. nail matrix

Q: The oil of your scalp is secreted by __________ glands associated with the hair follicles. A. merocrine sweat B. apocrine sweat C. sebaceous D. ceruminous E. eccrine sweat

Q: Secretions from __________ glands contribute to the acid mantle that inhibits bacterial growth on the skin. A. mammary B. ceruminous C. sebaceous D. apocrine sweat E. merocrine sweat

Q: Ethnic differences in skin color are primarily caused by differences in ___________. A. UV radiation exposure B. the quantity of hemoglobin carried in the blood C. the quantity of melanin produced D. the number of melanocytes E. the number of keratinocytes

Q: A __________ is an elevated patch of melanized skin. A. hemangioma B. mole C. freckle D. flexion line E. friction ridge