Q&A Hero

Q: When did the U.S. Supreme Court issue its Roe v. Wade decision decriminalizing abortion? a) 1973 b) 1962 c) 1984 d) 1959

Q: Which of the following terms describes an elimination procedure used in cases where there are multiple fetuses and some of the fetuses are destroyed and removed with the intent of increasing the chances that the remaining fetuses will develop into healthy babies? a) selective reduction b) constructive abortion c) genetic abortion d) in vitro fertilization

Q: Leon Kass offers which of the following as reasons for which we should feel repulsion at the idea of human cloning? a) Cloning would distort the cloned individuals sense of social identity. b) Cloning would turn procreation into a manufacturing process and turn children into commodities. c) Cloning would encourage parents to treat children as property. d) All of these choices

Q: Which of the following terms is used to describe the argument that producing deficits [in offspring] wouldnt necessarily be wrong because, except in extreme cases, its better to be alive than not exist? a) the interest in existing argument b) the open question argument c) the argument from design d) the open future argument

Q: According to the Congregation for the Doctrine of Faith, which of the following does the Catholic Church believe to be morally illegitimate? a) Attempts to manipulate genetic materials for the purpose of sex selection. b) Artificial insemination involving unmarried individuals. c) Destroying human embryos produced by in vitro techniques for the purposes of either research or procreation. d) All of these choices.

Q: What objections have critics leveled against ART? a) That there is no right to have a biological child and so rather than using ART persons should instead adopt. b) ART is extremely expensive. c) Intended parents are often not properly informed about their chances of success. d) All of these choices

Q: A multiple pregnancy does what to the risk of miscarriage? a) It increases it. b) It decreases it. c) It does not change it. d) No one really knows.

Q: From 1995 to 2005, the number of women taking fertility drugs almost tripled (from 1 million to 3 million women) What happened to the incidence of multiple births during the last thirty years including the period from 1995 to 2005? a) It has remained the same. b) It has quadrupled. c) It has doubled. d) It has actually decreased by half.

Q: What explains the United States tolerance of compensated surrogacy? a) The excellent healthcare that is available there b) The greater number of gay couples who want children c) Its free market ethos d) All of these choices

Q: What is not an example of third-party reproduction? a) Surrogacy arrangements b) Egg donation c) Sperm donation d) IVF with no donated tissue

Q: The long-term risks of egg donation are a) easy to establish because we have significant data on the effects of hormone treatment. b) easy to establish because we only permitted donation after extensive scientific study. c) difficult to establish because egg donors are not tracked in a central registry. d) difficult to establish because companies hide the adverse effects that they discover.

Q: A gestational surrogate is a) another term for an egg donor. b) a host mother who is implanted with an embryo from another woman. c) another term for a sperm donor. d) a woman who has had one of her own eggs removed, fertilized and then implanted back into her.

Q: What factor or factors might undermine egg donors informed consent? a) age b) relative inexperience c) the need for money d) all of these choices

Q: What is pharming? a) the use of animal cloning to produce drugs b) the use of animal cloning to produce higher-yield food animals c) a type of gene therapy d) the cloning technique used to produce Dolly

Q: Dolce and Gabbana argue that surrogacy is a) exploitative. b) unnatural. c) dangerous. d) all of these choices.

Q: Which of the following are a potential ethical and social difficulty surrounding reproductive technologies? a) incest potential and eugenics b) eugenics and sex selection c) sex selection and incest potential d) incest potential, eugenics, and sex selection

Q: Which of the following is a characteristic of the new breed of single mothers? a) They have deliberately (rather than accidentally) become pregnant. b) They are in their late-twenties to mid-thirties. c) They occupy the upper tiers of income, education, and occupation. d) All of these choices

Q: Bonnie Steinbock argues that a) selecting against disability implies a devaluation of disabled people. b) it is reasonable for parents to wish to prevent disability in their children. c) selecting for disability if morally permissible. d) selection of persons should never occur.

Q: The Principle of Procreative Beneficence stipulates which of the following? a) Reproducers should select the child who is expected to have the best life out of all children that they could conceive. b) Reproducers should select the child who is expected to have a life that is at least as good a life as the alternative children they could conceive. c) Reproducers should make decisions about the children they could conceive based on relevant, available information. d) All of these choices

Q: Which of the following does Jeff McMahan list as a common objection to prenatal or preimplantation screening for disabilities? a) The practices are discriminatory b) The practices are harmful to the disabled as both a group and as an individual c) Reduction in the number of disabled persons would have a detrimental impact on human diversity d) All of these choices

Q: Dena Davis believes that genetic counselors should not help parents conceive a child with a genetic disorder for which of the following reasons? a) Genetic counseling is the same as human cloning. b) She believes that abortion is always wrong. c) It violates the childs right to an open future. d) All of these choices

Q: Dena Davis focuses on which of the following genetic disorders in formulating her argument? a) deafness b) Huntingtons c) Achondroplastic Dwarf syndrome d) Down syndrome

Q: Kantian ethics would be likely to view forced sterilization as a) morally acceptable if performed for the good of society. b) morally acceptable if performed for the good of the individual sterilized. c) an affront to the autonomy of individuals. d) an affront to the well-being of the fetus.

Q: The Catholic Church would approve of using which of the following in research? a) adult stem cells b) embryonic stem cells c) both of these sources d) no sources at all

Q: Which of the following is or are true of gene therapy? a) Gene therapy research has proved disappointing and researchers are shifting to other means of treating genetic disorders. b) It is now routinely used to cure people with sickle-cell disease and leukemia. c) It provides considerable promise for people suffering a variety of genetic disorders. d) All of these choices

Q: GINA (Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act) prohibits which of the following? a) It prohibits employers from requiring genetic tests as a condition of being hired. b) It prohibits health insurers from disclosing genetic information about an individual. c) It prohibits employers from buying genetic information about an employee. d) All of these choices

Q: Asch considers aborting to avoid having a child with a disability morally on a par with a) aborting to avoid having a deaf child. b) aborting to avoid having a child of the wrong sex. c) aborting to avoid the expense of child-rearing. d) aborting to select for particular traits in a child.

Q: George Annas believes that, historically, a) prenatal screening has been used to find conditions that could justify the view that abortion is permissible because the fetus would be better off dead. b) prenatal screening has been used to find conditions that could be rectified by genetic therapies. c) prenatal screening has been used as a substitute for elective abortion. d) all of these choices.

Q: The aim of decreasing the number of undesirable or harmful genes in the human population is called a) positive eugenics b) negative eugenics c) the Human Genome Project d) neutral eugenics

Q: The aim of increasing the number of favorable genes in the human population is called a) positive eugenics b) negative eugenics c) the Human Genome Project d) neutral eugenics

Q: Critics of prenatal genetic testing argue which of the following? a) It is not clear which genetic conditions are sufficiently serious to justify aborting the fetus. b) Genetic testing is a form of discrimination against people with disabilities. c) Diminishing the number of people with genetic conditions will have a negative effect on those now living with these conditions. d) All of these choices

Q: Crossing the germ line involves making changes that a) result in changes between species. b) could be passed down to subsequent generations. c) affect only one individual. d) affect the somatic cells of more than one species.

Q: Which of the following is or are true of embryonic stem cells? a) They have the potential to become any kind of cell. b) They eventually become adult stem cells. c) They are potentially capable of treating genetic diseases. d) All of these choices

Q: Clinical Equipoise is: a) a term denoting the fact that of two or more treatment options, no one of them has been established clearly superior to another. b) a rare disease. c) a specific type of Phase I Clinical Trial. d) when physicians clearly recognize that one type of therapy is vastly superior to alternative therapies.

Q: Just as one sex has served as the standard for biomedical research, so has a) one form of placebo. b) one form of sexuality. c) one form of treatment. d) one form of race.

Q: Which of the following are considered vulnerable populations? a) Children b) Prisoners c) The mentally impaired and people suffering from mental illnesses d) all of these choices

Q: The Nuremberg Code arose in response to which event? a) The Nazi experiments conducted during WWII b) The Tuskegee Experiments c) The Willowbrook Experiments d) The Regimen 076 study

Q: According to Roman Catholicism, a) all fetal research is forbidden. b) the fetus is a person. c) research involving fetal tissue is prohibited. d) research involving fetal remains is prohibited.

Q: Which of the following is true of Phase I clinical trials? a) They are designed to determine dosage, toxicity, and side effects. b) They rely solely on animals as test subjects. c) They are not required by the FDA. d) They are the last stage of clinical testing.

Q: Peter Singer argued that our willingness to tolerate animal experiments can be explained by a) their effectiveness. b) their cheapness. c) our racism. d) our speciesism.

Q: Valid consent requires that we deliberate before we decide, and genuine deliberations require which of the following? a) information and understanding b) information only c) understanding only d) neither; merely saying yes to participation is sufficient

Q: Peter Singer believes that the major health problems in the world continue to exist predominantly as the result of which fact or facts? a) No one is putting enough effort and money into enacting the treatments and prevention measures that we already know how to do. b) We do not know how to properly prevent diseases and keep people healthy. c) We do not conduct enough testing with animals. d) All of these choices

Q: Eugene Passamani believes that the ethical difficulties surrounding randomized clinical trials can be overcome if which of the following conditions is met? a) Participants give informed consent. b) A state of clinical equipoise exists. c) The trial is designed as a test of therapeutic alternatives. d) All of these choices

Q: The autonomy of prisoners could be compromised by which of the following? a) The offer of monetary inducements to participate in research b) The offer of non-monetary inducements to participate in research c) Their incarceration d) All of these choices

Q: One problem with many medical trials going unpublished is that this situation could result in a) false positive results. b) false negative results. c) selection bias. d) the increased use of placebos.

Q: Which of the following is or are true of a placebo? a) Placebos are used in randomized clinical trials. b) Placebos contain the currently most effective treatment for a condition. c) Participants who receive a placebo during a trial know that they are receiving a placebo. d) all of these choices

Q: The basic requirement that must be met for an experiment to be morally legitimate is that a) the experiment must be beneficial to the subject. b) the experiment must be beneficial to mankind. c) the subject must have given informed consent to be involved. d) the experiment must be legally permissible.

Q: Since her parents could not afford either a transplant or the Norwood procedure (alternative correctional surgery) the case of Baby Fae raised issues about a) commercial surrogacy. b) informed consent. c) commercial medicine. d) euthanasia.

Q: Genuine deliberation requires a) only information. b) only understanding. c) both information and understanding. d) information, understanding, and autonomy.

Q: Psychiatrists face special ethical problems concerning a) the duty to rescue. b) the duty to do no harm. c) the duty to warn. d) the duty to lie.

Q: The following are examples of paternalism according to Gerald Dworkin: a) requiring motorcyclists to wear safety helmets when operating their vehicles b) laws making it legal for women and children to work at certain types of jobs c) requiring doctors to report cases of apparent child abuse to legal authorities d) none of these choices

Q: Since on W.D. Rosss theory everyone has a moral right to be treated as an autonomous agent, which of the following is true? a) Securing a persons free and informed consent to her medical treatment is required. b) Everyone is entitled to know the truth and to be educated in helpful ways. c) Everyone is entitled to medical confidentiality. d) All of these choices

Q: Under what conditions did John Stuart Mill think that freedom of choice could be restricted? a) When doing so would cause harm to the person who was acting. b) When doing so would prevent harm to someone other than the person acting. c) Under no circumstances. d) When doing so would enhance social well-being.

Q: State laws that require physicians to be mandated reporters could be justified on the basis of a) the duty to warn. b) the duty to rescue. c) paternalism. d) the right to confidentiality.

Q: Recognizing patients as autonomous agents and securing their free and autonomous consent to their treatment is required by a) paternalistic concern for patient well-being. b) respect for their dignity. c) the duty of beneficence. d) The duty to do no harm.

Q: The use of placebos would be criticized by someone who believed that a) the doctor-patient relationship is based on paternalism. b) informed consent is of moral importance. c) doctors should only use remedies that have been shown to work. d) all of these choices.

Q: According to a person who endorses a paternalistic approach to medicine, a physician deceiving her patient a) is justified only when it is in the best interest of the patient. b) is never justified. c) is justified when it is done for the greater good of all. d) is justified only if the patient's family requires the physician to do so.

Q: Which of the following is or are required for consent to be considered morally and legally meaningful? a) the individual must be competent to understand her condition and capable of exercising judgment about her care b) relevant and understandable information about condition and care must be provided c) the individual must be free to decide without coercion d) all of these choices

Q: Which of the following is or are an example of state paternalism? a) licensing requirements b) restrictions on therapies and treatments paid for by governmentally sponsored health insurances such as Medicare or Medicaid c) restrictions on the use of government research funds d) all of these choices

Q: Definitions of healthy and unhealthy behavior a) are fixed over time. b) are determined by medical professionals alone. c) shift over time. d) are determined by vote.

Q: Every public health decision involves value judgments about a) health. b) sickness. c) freedom of choice. d) all of these choices.

Q: The relatively light sentence that the Neumanns received when they attempted to use faith-healing indicates that a) faith-healing is widely accepted in America. b) religion no longer is important in American life. c) whether parents neglect their children for religious or non-religious reasons is taken into account in sentencing. d) there is a separation of Church and State in America.

Q: The debate over whether parents should be required to vaccinate their children is a debate over a) science. b) how society should approach parents who believe that there is a link between autism and vaccination. c) whether to provide public education to unvaccinated children. d) the separation of Church and State.

Q: Which of the following are principles of justice that Rawls believes that all people in the original position would agree upon? a. Social and economic inequalities are to be arranged to the greatest benefit of the least advantaged. b. Social and economic inequalities are to be attached to offices and positions open to all under conditions of fair equality of opportunity. c. Each person has an equal right to the most extensive set of basic liberties compatible with a similar set of liberties for all. d. All of these choices.

Q: Which principle can simply be stated as meaning "above all, do no harm"? a. Principle of Nonmaleficence b. Principle of Autonomy c. Principles of Distributive Justice d. Principle of Utility

Q: Sirkku K. Hellsten argues that health practices should be evaluated in terms of a. universal values only, such as solidarity. b. local values only, such as autonomy. c. both universal and local values. d. None of these choices

Q: The legislation that Minkoff and Paltrow oppose would expand the definition of child to include which of the following? a. The mentally disabled b. Fetuses c. Anencephalic infants d. None of these choices

Q: What is the primary focus of most social models of disability? a. Impairments. b. Disabilities. c. Handicaps. d. All of these choices.

Q: Geyman argues that in its first five years the Affordable Care Act has done which of the following? a. It has failed to restrain healthcare spending. b. It has failed to make insurance affordable. c. It has failed to improve the quality of care. d. All of these choices

Q: According to the "life-cycle principle" a flu vaccine should be given in priority to those between early adolescence and middle age on what basis? a. They have more developed interests than younger people and they have more remaining stages to live through than older people. b. They will outlive older people because they will benefit from medical advances older people could not. c. They contribute more to society than younger people do. d. All of these choices.

Q: The market approach to organ allocation puts a low value on which of the following? a. Individual rights b. Personal autonomy c. Fairness d. All of these choices

Q: H. Tristram Engelhardt, Jr. argues that a. Life is always a precious gift. b. Life can sometimes be seen as an injury. c. The value of a life can never be determined. d. Childrens lives are more valuable than those of adults.

Q: The Interest in Existing argument holds that a. It is sometimes better to exist in a coma than not exist at all. b. It is better to be alive than not exist in some cases. c. Euthanasia is wrong because it kills an existing person. d. We have a duty to reproduce as much as possible.

Q: Which ethical theory might favor a program of positive eugenics? a. Rosss prima facie duties. b. Kants deontology. c. Virtue ethics. d. Utilitarianism.

Q: A persons autonomy can be violated when this person does which of the following? a. This person acts to avoid a threatened penalty. b. This person acts under the influence of factors that impair her judgement. c. This person acts under a misapprehension of the situation. d. all of these choices

Q: The "someone else problem" can be used to criticize the validity of advance directives. True False

Q: A hedonistic utilitarian is only concerned with the satisfaction of preferences. True False

Q: A rule utilitarian might favor saving the lives of all severely impaired infants even if the costs of doing so outweigh the benefits in some cases. True False

Q: Mary Ann Warren argues that there is a difference between being a genetic human and a moral human. True False

Q: Judith Jarvis Thomson argues that abortion should always be permissible under any and all circumstances. True False