Q&A Hero

Q: which of the following is not among the properties associated with the cooking of hamburgers? a.color alone is usually indicative of doneness b.burgers should be cooked to an internal temperature of 160f c.some burgers will retain some pink color even when cooked to 175f d.some burgers will turn brown before reaching the recommended temperature

Q: which of the following is a characteristic of meat contamination? a.a usda seal of inspection insures the absence of most harmful bacteria b.consumers are not able to detect the presence of harmful bacteria by odor or taste c.the presence of naturally occurring antibodies in meats slows the growth of harmful organisms d.ground meat is very resistant to contamination because of the high heat released by the grinding machines

Q: leftover foods that are promptly refrigerated may be safely eaten within a.8-12 hours b.1-2 days c.3-4 days d.1 week

Q: what is another name for bovine spongiform encephalopathy? a.toxoplasmosis b.mad cow disease c.type 2 alzheimer's d.hypercephalopathy

Q: in cows infected with mad cow disease, which of the following tissues is generally free of the infectious agents? a.brain b.muscle c.spinal cord d.nerves

Q: you work part-time at a local diner and have noticed that there are a few questionable practices going on behind closed doors. an older employee tells you that the worst of these oversights is the workers disregard for the danger zone. which of the following applies to this employees warning? a.keeping the freezer at 35f b.serving raw seafood without proper cooking techniques c.keeping beef patties on a warm grill (135f) for up to 3 hours d.not disposing of egg shells immediately after use and allowing them to sit on countertops

Q: why is ground meat more susceptible to microbial contamination than unground meat? a.it has more surface area b.it is usually undercooked c.it has a higher fat content d.it is not inspected as often

Q: the seal graded by usda that appears on packaged meat and poultry means that the product is a.uncooked b.not hazardous c.free of bacteria d.assessed for tenderness

Q: a few years ago a foodborne illness outbreak was reported by a national restaurant chain. after dozens of people were infected, authorities determined that employees of the restaurant had used the same knife to cut raw meat products as they did for produce items such as lettuce. which of the following terms most likely describes the employees neglect that led to the patrons of the restaurant becoming ill? a.contamination b.cross-contamination c.hazard analysis critical control points d.inappropriate monitoring of food temperatures

Q: what is the recommended minimum amount of time for washing hands with warm water and soap before preparing or eating food? a.5-10 seconds b.20 seconds c.1/2-1 minute d.3 minutes

Q: which of the following would most likely result from placing cooked hamburger patties on the same plate that held the uncooked patties? a.flavor declination b.meat juice retention c.fat drippings exudation d.microbial cross-contamination

Q: which of the following is not among the characteristics of food safety in the kitchen? a.cooks should refrain from washing meat and poultry b.leftover food from a meal should be promptly refrigerated c.hand washing is significantly more effective than hand sanitizers in decreasing bacterial contamination d.after each step of food preparation, countertops, cutting boards, and hands should be washed in hot, soapy water

Q: which of the following foods are associated with illness from salmonella? a.raw vegetables b.pickled vegetables c.home-canned vegetables d.raw meats, poultry, and eggs

Q: which of the following is the major food source for transmission of campylobacter jejuni? a.raw poultry b.uncooked seafood c.imported soft cheeses d.undercooked beef hot dogs

Q: a child is brought into the emergency room with breathing difficulties. he also has difficulty swallowing and speaking. the mother mentions that he ate some home-canned beans yesterday. you suspect microbiological food poisoning. the most likely toxin is a.botulinum toxin b.giardiasis toxin c.salmonella toxin d.campylobacter toxin

Q: clostridium botulinum poisoning is a hazard associated with a.nitrosamines b.rotting vegetables c.undercooked poultry d.improperly canned vegetables

Q: a patient with a high temperature complains of headache, stomachache, fever, and vomiting. upon questioning, he admits to eating several raw eggs the day before. the most likely organism causing these symptoms is a.e. coli b.salmonella c.perfringens d.campylobacter jejuni

Q: recent outbreaks among consumers who ate peanut butter products, eggs, and cantaloupe were caused by which two organisms? a.listeria and yersinia b.salmonella and listeria c.giardia and campylobacter d.campylobacter and salmonella

Q: what system was developed by government regulatory agencies and the food industry to help identify and/or control food contamination and foodborne disease? a.the two-forty-one-forty rule b.safe handling certification program c.hazard analysis critical control points d.north american residue monitoring program

Q: the industrial application of heat to inactivate most but not all bacteria in a food is commonly known as a.sanitization b.sterilization c.pasteurization d.depathogenation

Q: what fraction of reported foodborne illnesses can be attributed to the food industry? a.1/10 b.1/3 c.1/2 d.4/5

Q: which of the following is a characteristic of botulism? a.a chief symptom is diarrhea b.a full recovery may take years c.it is caused by the organism staphylococcus aureus d.it is a toxicant produced in foods stored under aerobic conditions

Q: which of the following is a characteristic of botulism? a.it is rarely fatal and victims usually recover completely b.it is caused by a toxic compound rather than by invasion of pathogenic bacteria c.it is caused by ingestion of food contaminated with a combination of aflatoxin and mold d.it most often occurs from eating foods that were stored under aerobic conditions of high ph

Q: which of the following is an example of food intoxication? a.addition of alkaline and acidic agents to foods b.illness produced by acute overconsumption of high-fat foods c.addition of alcohol-containing beverages in the cooking of foods d.illness produced from ingestion of food contaminated with natural toxins

Q: approximately how many people each year are affected by foodborne illness caused by staphylococcus aureus? a.250,000 b.500,000 c.750,000 d.one million

Q: what organism is responsible for producing the most common food toxin? a.escherichia coli b.vibrio vulnificus c.staphylococcus aureus d.lactobacillis acidophilus

Q: approximately how many people in the united states are killed by foodborne illness each year? a.300 b.3,000 c.30,000 d.300,000

Q: which of the following is not among the most common symptoms of foodborne infection? a.fever b.cramps c.diarrhea d.double vision

Q: which of the following is one of the top two causes of hospitalizations from foodborne infections in the u.s.? a.salmonella b.escherichia coli c.staphylococcus aureus d.clostridium perfringens

Q: common symptoms of foodborne illness caused by the salmonella organism include all of the following except a.diarrhea b.vomiting c.abdominal cramps d.low body temperature

Q: what is the leading cause of food contamination in the united states? a.naturally occurring toxicants b.food poisoning from microbes c.pesticide residues from farmers d.food additives from the food industry

Q: according to the centers for disease control and prevention, how many people in the united states experience foodborne illnesses every year? a.0.5 million b.12 million c.48 million d.150 million

Q: two or more cases of a similar illness resulting from the consumption of a common food is termed a(n) a.rash b.outbreak c.epidemic d.toxic incidence

Q: what is the international agency that has adopted standards to regulate the use of pesticides? a.fao b.fda c.cdc d.usda

Q: what branch of the department of health and human services is responsible for monitoring foodborne illness? a.epa b.fao c.cdc d.who

Q: according to the fda, what is the leading food safety concern? a.food additives b.pesticide residues c.foodborne illnesses d.environmental contaminants

Q: which of the following is a characteristic of food intoxications? a.aflatoxins are uncommon in the united states b.staphylococcus aureus produces a deadly botulinum toxin c.infection from exposure to salmonella organisms commences within 1-2 hours in most people d.to minimize contamination in homemade flavored oils, herbs should not be washed before adding them to the oil

Q: what term describes the possibility of harm from normal use of a substance? a.hazard b.toxicity c.bioinsecurity d.food insecurity

Q: what term defines the measure of the probability and severity of harm? a.risk b.safety c.hazard d.toxicity

Q: the potential of a substance to harm someone is known as a.a hazard b.toxicity c.risk level d.safety level

Q: what government agency is primarily responsible for protecting agriculture and the food supply? a.the food safety and security agency b.the fda and the usda c.the antiterrorism subcommittee on food security d.the cdc and the epa

Q: provide examples of the interactions of herbs with conventional drugs.

Q: give four examples of the reported adverse effects of herbal therapy.

Q: explain the difference between recommendations based on the population approach and the individual approach.

Q: list the major recommendations for reducing the risks of cancer.

Q: explain the associations between meat consumption and cancer risks.

Q: why is obesity a risk factor for certain types of cancer, especially in women?

Q: explain, through the use of examples, the risk versus benefit relationship of therapeutic intervention.

Q: describe the role of alcohol as a risk factor for certain cancers.

Q: discuss the role of promoters, initiators, and antipromoters in the development of cancer.

Q: describe the process of cancer development. what is the role of carcinogens?

Q: list the treatment recommendations for people with type 2 diabetes.

Q: describe the recommendation for carbohydrate intake in people with diabetes.

Q: explain the role of the glycemic index of individual foods in the management of dietary carbohydrate intake for people with diabetes.

Q: compare and contrast the two major types of diabetes and their recommended dietary management.

Q: discuss the physiological complications of diabetes, emphasizing its effects on the eyes, kidneys, and blood vessels.

Q: explain the association of type 2 diabetes with insulin resistance and insulin deficiency.

Q: explain the metabolic consequences of a relative or absolute lack of insulin on carbohydrate, protein, and fat metabolism.

Q: discuss the role of medications in the treatment of high blood pressure.

Q: what is the rationale for consuming liberal quantities of fruits, vegetables, nuts, low-fat milk, and low-fat foods in the prevention and treatment of hypertension?

Q: describe the major lifestyle modifications for reducing hypertension risk.

Q: how does hypertension develop? why does obesity aggravate the hypertensive state?

Q: for the implementation of a heart-healthy diet, present three recommendations for each of the following components: breads, cereals, and pasta; fruits and vegetables; milk products; fats and oils; and spices and seasonings.

Q: discuss strategies for favorably altering the lipoprotein profiles in men and women.

Q: outline the recommendations for reducing the risk of coronary heart disease.

Q: what makes a diet atherogenic? give examples of foods that would be consumed frequently and rarely or never in an atherogenic diet.

Q: explain the defining features and significance of the metabolic syndrome.

Q: discuss the controversy surrounding emerging risk factors for coronary heart disease.

Q: what is meant by the term atherogenic diet?

Q: describe the effects of smoking on cardiovascular health.

Q: discuss the importance of ldl cholesterol as an independent risk factor for coronary heart disease.

Q: discuss the major risk factors for coronary heart disease.

Q: why are oxidation of ldl and inflammation closely associated with the development of heart disease?

Q: list several important markers for inflammation associated with cardiovascular disease.

Q: what is the association between c-reactive protein levels in the blood and risk for heart attacks?

Q: explain the processes involved in the development of atherosclerosis.

Q: discuss the role of nutrition in the development and treatment of three common degenerative diseases.

Q: discuss the role of nutrition and genetics in assessing risks for chronic diseases.

Q: discuss the role of diet in the possible prevention and treatment of hiv infection and aids.

Q: explain the meaning and significance of the downward spiral of malnutrition and disease.