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Q:
list ways that malnutrition affects immunity.
Q:
describe the actions of phagocytes and lymphocytes against foreign substances.
Q:
matching 1>immune cells that produce antibodies 2>immune cells that attack antigens 3>a type of protein that can act as an antibody 4>immune cells that practice phagocytosis 5>the primary cause of death in the united states 6>disease characterized by the accumulation of lipids on the inner arterial walls 7>an accumulation of lipid material embedded in arterial walls 8>a blood clot that has broken loose and circulates in the bloodstream 9>a blood clot that is attached to arterial plaque 10>small, cell-like bodies required for formation of a blood clot 11>the bulging of an artery commonly caused by elevated blood pressure 12>consequence of a clot that stops blood flow to the brain 13>this type of diabetes is always controlled by insulin injections 14>this type of diabetes is usually controlled without insulin injections 15>term that describes the death of tissue due to deficient blood supply, common in severe cases of diabetes 16>when cancers spread to other tissues of the body 17>an abnormal mass of cells 18>substance or event that gives rise to a cancer 19>substance that favors cancer development after cellular dna has been altered 20>a carcinogen in fried potato products a.b-cells b.t-cells c.stroke d.tumor e.plaque f.initiator g.platelets h.embolus i.promoter j.gangrene k.thrombus l.aneurysm m.metastasis n.acrylamide o.macrophages p.heart disease q.atherosclerosis r.type 1 diabetes s.type 2 diabetes t.immunoglobulin
Q:
which of the following is not among the features of herbs sold to the public? a.they are not regulated as drugs by the fda b.they are not evaluated for safety or effectiveness by the fda c.the fda, and not the manufacturer of the herb, has the burden of proving the product is unsafe d.they are considered appropriate for treatment of certain major health disorders such as cancer or aids
Q:
phytochemicals that induce cancer cells to die are known to be contained in a.brewed green tea b.brewed senna leaves c.the myrrh plant resin d.cold-processed valerian root
Q:
what is the name of the cancer-treatment substance first extracted from the bark of old pacific yew trees (and now synthesized in the laboratory)? a.ephedra b.paclitaxel c.kombucha d.germanium
Q:
naturally occurring salicylates in curry, paprika, and certain teas provide the same protective effects as low-dose a.statins b.aspirin c.insulin d.diuretics
Q:
what is ayurveda? a.a system that combines biofeedback with hypnosis b.an oriental plant that suppresses colon and breast tumor growth c.a hindu system for enhancing the bodys ability to prevent illness and to heal itself d.a variation of standard acupuncture technique that applies electromagnetic impulses to the needles
Q:
chelation therapy is purported to work by ridding the body of a.tumor cells b.toxic metals c.organic toxins d.excess fat-soluble vitamins
Q:
what treatment is effective against lead poisoning and is also considered an alternative therapy for cardiovascular disease? a.ozone injections b.chelation therapy c.biofield therapeutics d.hydroexpulsion therapeutics
Q:
which of the following is currently accepted as a medical treatment in the united states? a.radiation therapy b.biofield therapeutics c.orthomolecular therapy d.microwave resonance therapy
Q:
why is complementary and alternative medicine considered to be unconventional medicine? a.it is not taught in medical schools b.insurance companies refuse to cover it c.safety and effectiveness are not well established d.it is used primarily by chiropractors and herbalists
Q:
conventional medicine and alternative medical therapies are commonly linked together into a practice called a.interactive therapy b.yin and yang medicine c.herbal-assisted healing d.complementary medicine
Q:
in a 200-lb person with type 2 diabetes and a bmi of 28, what minimum number of pounds must be lost to obtain a measurable improvement in glucose, blood lipids, and blood pressure? a.10-20 b.40-50 c.75-100 d.more than 100
Q:
which of the following defines the association between nutrition and chronic disease? a.diet can influence the time of onset of some chronic diseases b.diet is the primary factor affecting the development of chronic diseases c.dietary influence in the development of chronic diseases is direct, straightforward, and well understood d.dietary advice for combating heart disease and cancer prevents their development if instituted early in life
Q:
which of the following practices is not believed to be protective against all of the following: heart disease, hypertension, diabetes, and cancer? a.consuming fiber-rich foods b.drinking alcohol only in moderation c.engaging in regular physical exercise d.consuming fat within the range of 20-35% of total energy
Q:
which of the following is not among the recommendations issued by health professionals to reduce cancer risks? a.limit intake of red meats b.moderate, if any, intake of alcohol c.increase intake of foods high in iron d.eat at least 5 servings a day of vegetables and fruits
Q:
dietary guidelines believed to help protect against cancer include all of the following except a.decreasing alcohol intake b.avoiding charbroiled meats c.increasing energy density d.consumption of cruciferous vegetables
Q:
potatoes that are fried or baked at high temperatures are a source of the carcinogen a.glioma b.creatine c.acrylamide d.benzo(a)pyrene
Q:
which of the following foods is known to contain abundant amounts of phytonutrients that protect against cancers of the esophagus and endometrium? a.fermented dairy foods b.cruciferous vegetables c.allium-rich vegetables d.lycopene-rich vegetables
Q:
which of the following is not among the features of dietary fat and cancer? a.type of fat may influence cancer initiation b.type of fat may influence cancer promotion c.intake of omega-3 fatty acids from fish may protect against some cancers d.recent studies have weakened the associated risk of high-fat diets with cancer
Q:
which of the following dietary components is thought to be protective against certain types of cancer? a.fiber b.inositol and biotin c.certain saturated fats d.protein from animal sources
Q:
which of the following is known to speed up the passage of substances through the large intestine, thereby decreasing exposure time to carcinogens? a.milk b.fiber c.omega-3 fats d.refined starches
Q:
what happens after absorption of carcinogens that are produced on meats from grilling over a direct flame? a.they are detoxified by the liver b.they act as initiators for breast cancer c.they act as promoters for prostate cancer d.they are subjected to enterohepatic circulation
Q:
which of the following statements represents current thought regarding the development of cancer? a.dietary fat appears to be protective against many types of cancer b.food additives play only a small role, if any, in the causation of cancer c.food contaminants play only a small role, if any, in the causation of cancer d.dietary protein from animal sources appears to be protective against many types of cancer
Q:
which of the following cooking techniques for meats results in formation of the highest amounts of carcinogens? a.broiling b.roasting c.marinating before cooking d.wrapping the food in foil when cooking
Q:
which of the following cooking techniques for meats results in the least formation of carcinogens? a.frying b.grilling c.broiling d.marinating before cooking
Q:
which of the following is not among factors known to correlate strongly with risk for cancer of the head and neck? a.tobacco use b.alcohol intake c.food additives and pesticides d.low intake of vegetables and fruits
Q:
the higher risk for breast cancer in obese women after menopause is thought to result mainly from chronic exposure to a.estrogen b.aflatoxin c.high-fat diets d.sedentary lifestyles
Q:
a substance that causes cancer is termed a(n) a.carcinogen b.antipromoter c.dna-modifier d.rna-modifier
Q:
what term describes an abnormal cell mass that is not cancer? a.benign tumor b.promoting tumor c.malignant tumor d.premalignant tumor
Q:
what term describes factors that enhance the development of cancer after it has been initiated? a.promoters b.post-initiators c.tumor formatives d.tumor directives
Q:
a tumor that releases cells, leading to the spread of cancer to other regions of the body, is said to a.promote b.augment c.metastasize d.infiltrate downstream
Q:
which of the following describes the actions of a carcinogen? a.cancer-initiating substance b.cancer-inhibitory substance c.cancer treatment substance d.cancer antipromoter substance
Q:
a cancer that originates from bone is a(n) a.sarcoma b.carcinoma c.osteocarcinoma d.hematopoietic neoplasm
Q:
in the otherwise stable person with type 1 diabetes, a potential problem associated with physical activity is a.hypoglycemia b.hyperglycemia c.nausea and vomiting d.temporary kidney shutdown
Q:
for people with diabetes, dietary guidelines include all of the following except a.sugar and sugar-containing foods need not be avoided b.the glycemic effect of foods should be a primary consideration c.diets should provide a consistent carbohydrate intake spaced throughout the day d.the dietary amount of carbohydrate is more important than the source of carbohydrate
Q:
it is acceptable for people with diabetes to consume all of the following except a.alcohol in moderation b.protein intakes representing 15-20% of total kcalories c.sugar intake in amounts similar to the general population d.saturated fat intake in amounts similar to the general population
Q:
which of the following is not among the adverse effects of diabetes? a.impaired vision b.impaired circulation c.increased resistance to infections d.increased loss of water via the urine
Q:
gangrene is a common complication primarily in people with a.cancer b.diabetes c.pancreatitis d.hiv infection
Q:
a person with diabetes is most likely to develop a.aids b.cancer c.heart attacks d.diverticulosis
Q:
which of the following is a leading cause of both blindness and kidney failure? a.cancer b.diabetes c.hiv/aids d.atherosclerosis
Q:
microangiopathies are disorders of the a.kidneys b.pancreas c.capillaries d.coronary vessels
Q:
half of u.s. adults have at least one major risk factor for coronary heart disease by age a.20 b.30 c.40 d.50
Q:
what is the primary reason for increased urine output in uncontrolled diabetes? a.insufficient levels of circulating insulin permit the kidneys to lose excess water b.high levels of blood glucose spill into the urine, drawing water with it by osmosis c.excess circulating insulin affects the output of antidiuretic hormone, which allows greater losses of water d.large amounts of body fat and glycogen are broken down, resulting in increased release of cellular water
Q:
the excessive thirst common in diabetes is known as a.hydration b.polyuresis c.polydipsia d.hyperhydration
Q:
the frequent urination common in diabetes is known as a.polyuria b.polyphagia c.polyuresis d.pseudodiuresis
Q:
which of the following is not among the symptoms of diabetes? a.polyuria b.polydipsia c.polyphagia d.polysaccharidosis
Q:
which of the following is not among the common, long-term consequences of diabetes? a.blindness b.kidney failure c.decrease in infections d.increase in heart attacks
Q:
a complication of diabetes is blurry vision, which results from swelling of the lenses of the eye caused by conversion of excess glucose to a.sugar alcohols b.glycated fructose c.long-chain ketones d.glycated corneal membranes
Q:
among the following ethnic groups, which has the lowest risk for type 2 diabetes? a.american whites b.asian americans c.african americans d.native americans
Q:
which of the following is not among the characteristics of diabetes mellitus? a.type 1 diabetes can occur at any age b.type 2 diabetes develops primarily when people reach adulthood c.the two major forms are variations of the insulin-dependent type d.the most common form is characterized by resistance to insulin by body cells
Q:
insulin resistance is defined as a.reduced sensitivity of cells to blood insulin b.impaired secretion of insulin by the pancreas c.increased destruction of insulin-producing cells d.refusal of people with type 1 diabetes to self-inject insulin
Q:
which of the following conditions is characterized by insulin resistance of fat cells? a.hypoglycemia b.atherosclerosis c.type 1 diabetes d.type 2 diabetes
Q:
brooke is a 42-year-old obese person who seems to be always hungry and thirsty. she is constantly drinking sodas and likes to end her dinner every night with a piece of chocolate cake and ice cream. after going to the doctor, brooke is diagnosed with diabetes. which of the following types of diabetes does brooke most likely have? a.type 1 diabetes b.type 2 diabetes c.juvenile diabetes d.polydypsia diabetes
Q:
most people with type 2 diabetes have a.sarcopenia b.osteoporosis c.excess body fat d.insulin dependency
Q:
which of the following is a characteristic of type 1 diabetes? a.it is an autoimmune disorder b.it occurs exclusively in people under 40 years of age c.it must be treated by daily oral intake of insulin pills d.it accounts for approximately 50% of all cases of diabetes
Q:
what percentage of people with diabetes have type 1? a.5-10 b.10-20 c.20-35 d.45-55
Q:
type 2 diabetes usually develops after people reach the age of a.21 b.30 c.40 d.55
Q:
in which of the following conditions would the pancreas be unable to synthesize insulin? a.hyperglycemia b.type 1 diabetes mellitus c.type 2 diabetes mellitus d.adult-onset diabetes mellitus
Q:
what is believed to be the primary cause of type 1 diabetes? a.defect in insulin sensitivity b.excessive body weight gain c.defect of the immune system d.excessive intake of simple carbohydrates
Q:
insulin stimulates the actions of all the following metabolic activities except a.fat release b.glucose uptake c.protein synthesis d.glycogen synthesis
Q:
which of the following is not increased by diabetes? a.stroke risk b.cancer risk c.blindness risk d.kidney failure risk
Q:
among the leading causes of death in the united states diabetes ranks number a.1 b.3 c.7 d.10
Q:
a person who hasnt consumed anything except water for the past 8 hours has a blood glucose concentration of 101 mg/dl. this person would be classified as a.normal b.diabetic c.prediabetic d.impaired glucose tolerant
Q:
which of the following is a feature of the dash diet? a.it works synergistically with reduction of sodium intake b.it was originally designed as therapy for atherosclerosis c.it is effective due to the high intakes of iron and vitamin b12 d.it includes an exercise component and a limitation on trans-fat intake
Q:
calcium-channel blockers are drugs chiefly for the treatment of a.atherosclerosis b.prostate cancer c.type 2 diabetes d.high blood pressure
Q:
ace inhibitor drugs are prescribed primarily to treat a.diabetes b.diverticulitis c.colon cancer d.hypertension
Q:
which of the following is a characteristic of drug therapy for hypertension? a.antihypertensive drugs work by lowering blood volume b.the most frequently prescribed drug therapies are dash inhibitors c.most people with hypertension need only one medicine to reduce blood pressure d.major side effects of antihypertensive drugs are depletion of body sodium and phosphorus
Q:
diuretics act to lower blood pressure by a.increasing fluid loss b.decreasing potassium loss c.reducing arterial plaque formation d.increasing retention of calcium and potassium
Q:
people who use diuretics are most at risk of developing imbalances of a.sodium b.calcium c.potassium d.phosphate
Q:
which of the following is not among the recommendations by health professionals to treat hypertension? a.increase fiber intake b.eat foods high in potassium c.if overweight, reduce weight d.decrease intake of dairy products to avoid sodium
Q:
your aunt crystal asks you to recommend a diet that will help lower her blood pressure. she is willing to try just about anything. which of the following choices would be most effective in lowering crystals blood pressure? a.eliminating the use of table salt altogether b.including 3 servings of skim milk and 10 servings of fruits and vegetables a day c.substituting all table salt use throughout the day with mrs. dash seasoning product d.including 3 servings of skim milk and 10 servings of fruits and vegetables a day plus restricting sodium to 2 g/day
Q:
which of the following describes a relationship between sodium/salt and high blood pressure? a.people with chronic kidney disease are less likely to be salt-sensitive b.lowering sodium intakes reduces blood pressure only in certain ethnic groups c.people over 30 years of age with hypertension are most likely to be salt-sensitive d.weight loss is often as effective as sodium restriction in lowering blood pressure
Q:
among the following lifestyle changes, which is least effective at reducing blood pressure? a.adopting the dash eating plan b.limiting daily alcohol intake to 1-2 drinks c.reducing body weight to achieve a bmi of less than 25 d.performing physical exercise for 30 minutes per day, 5 days a week
Q:
the dash diet is actually the acronym for a.dramatic alternatives to solving hiv b.diabetes and sodium hyperglycemia c.dietary approaches to stop hypertension d.disorders-associated severe hyperlipidemias
Q:
the dash diet was developed to lower the risk for a.cancer b.diabetes c.hypertension d.metabolic syndrome
Q:
which of the following statements describes a risk factor for high blood pressure? a.three alcohol drinks per day increases the risk for developing high blood pressure b.most people are genetically sensitive to sodium and will develop high blood pressure from excess salt intake c.ninety-five percent of people under 50 years of age with high blood pressure respond favorably to low salt intake d.ninety-five percent of people with high blood pressure who restrict salt intake show a significant decrease in blood pressure
Q:
strategies to reduce the risk of coronary heart disease in people who drink include limiting daily alcohol intake to a.1 drink for both women and men b.1 drink for women and 2 for men c.2 drinks for both women and men d.2 drinks for women and 4 for men
Q:
peripheral resistance of blood flow is calculated as a.heart rate divided by pulse rate b.cardiac output times blood pressure c.ejection volume times stroke volume d.blood pressure divided by cardiac output