Q&A Hero

Q: in obese pregnant women, the risk for neural tube defects in the infant is believed to result from a.insufficient exercise b.poor glycemic control c.insufficient folate intake d.higher prevalence of cesarean section

Q: what is the recommended range of weight gain, in lbs, during pregnancy for an underweight woman? a.15-25 b.28-40 c.42-50 d.55-62

Q: what is the recommended range of weight gain, in lbs, during pregnancy for a normal-weight woman? a.10-18 b.19-24 c.25-35 d.38-44

Q: which of the following describes an infant born during the 43rd week of pregnancy? a.term b.preterm c.post term d.caesarean

Q: which of the following describes an infant born during the 36th week of pregnancy? a.term b.preterm c.post term d.caesarean

Q: which of the following increases the risk of macrosomia? a.folate deficiency b.prepregnancy obesity c.postpregnancy infection d.gestational oxygen deprivation

Q: what is macrosomia? a.a neural tube defect b.a high-birthweight infant c.excessive weight gain of the mother d.abnormal cravings for carbohydrate during pregnancy

Q: what is the most reliable indicator of an infants future health status? a.infants birthweight b.mothers weight before pregnancy c.mothers weight gain during pregnancy d.mothers nutrition status prior to pregnancy

Q: the process by which maternal nutrient intake affects the childs development of diseases later in life is known as a.retrogenetics b.reverse genetics c.fetal programming d.postpartum degenerative expression

Q: which of the following is a characteristic of maternal nutrition and the development of abnormal metabolism? a.malnutrition during pregnancy leads to macrosomia and gi disturbances in the offspring b.insufficient nutrient intake during pregnancy promotes hypertrophy of the kidneys and hypotension in adulthood c.nutrition during pregnancy is the chief determinant of pancreatic beta cell growth and thus affects the risk for type 2 diabetes of the offspring d.malnutrition during pregnancy programs the fetus to modify the genetic composition of the placenta and thereby alter nutrient delivery through the umbilical cord

Q: as a means to reduce the risk of neural tube defects in newborn infants, grain products are fortified with what nutrient? a.folate b.thiamine c.vitamin c d.vitamin b12

Q: approximately what percentage of pregnancies in the united states are unplanned? a.10 b.20 c.35 d.50

Q: by what percentage does the folate rda increase during pregnancy? a.25 b.50 c.75 d.100

Q: studies report that folate supplements for women may lower the incidence of neural tube defects of infants when the vitamin is taken during the a.last trimester of pregnancy b.second trimester of pregnancy c.second and third trimesters of pregnancy d.month before conception through the first trimester of pregnancy

Q: which of the following nutrients taken as a prenatal supplement has been found to be associated with a lower incidence of neural tube defects? a.iron b.folate c.calcium d.cobalamin

Q: you are working as a nutrition consultant in a womens health clinic and have been advising patients to make sure they consume about 400 micrograms of folate every day. one patient is aware that folate helps prevent birth defects but she isnt sure why she should take it if she is not pregnant. which of the following is the most appropriate reply? a.the folate supplementation prevents pernicious anemia, which increases the risk of spina bifida b.the folate supplementation is needed to ensure a large store that can be utilized by the growing fetus c.as long as supplementation begins the day pregnancy is confirmed, there is no risk of defects d.the neural tube develops early on in pregnancy, oftentimes before the woman realizes she is pregnant

Q: what organ is most affected in anencephaly? a.liver b.heart c.brain d.pancreas

Q: the most common forms of neural tube defects are spina bifida and a.macrosomia b.anencephaly c.preeclampsia d.cesarean section

Q: an infant born with incomplete closure of the spinal cord has a.spina bifida b.macrosomia c.anencephaly d.neural tube seizure

Q: which of the following is a characteristic of neural tube defects? a.they occur in about 3,000 pregnancies in the united states each year b.they include common disorders such as liver and kidney disease c.they can be prevented by supplementation of the pregnant womans diet with vitamin b12 d.they can be prevented by supplementation of the pregnant womans diet with vitamins a and e

Q: among the following, which is not known to represent a significant risk factor for a pregnancy being affected by a neural tube defect? a.maternal obesity b.age at time of pregnancy c.folate-related enzyme mutations d.exposure to a hot-tub during pregnancy

Q: the neural tube develops into the a.umbilical cord b.liver and pancreas c.gastrointestinal tract d.brain and spinal cord

Q: during development of the fetus, what organ(s) is/are the first to develop? a.heart and lungs b.liver and kidneys c.gastrointestinal tract d.central nervous system and brain

Q: at what stage of pregnancy does an embryo show a beating heart and a complete central nervous system? a.8 weeks b.12 weeks c.20 weeks d.29 weeks

Q: what is the term for the developing infant from the eighth week after conception until birth? a.fetus b.ovum c.zygote d.embryo

Q: what is the name given to the human organism two to eight weeks after fertilization and the stage at which the digestive system is formed? a.fetus b.embryo c.ectoderm d.mesoderm

Q: what name is given to the time period during which irreversible damage to the fetus may occur from specific events such as malnutrition or exposure to toxins? a.first trimester b.critical period c.fertility period d.conceptual period

Q: all of the following statements about the critical periods of cell division are true except a.malnutrition during pregnancy can affect fetal cell division b.malnutrition during critical periods can have irreversible effects c.high-nutrient-density food fed after the critical period can remedy a growth deficit d.whatever nutrients are needed during a critical period must be supplied at that time

Q: gestation is generally divided into equal periods of a.4 weeks, called quarters b.9 weeks, called quartiles c.4 months, called semesters d.3 months, called trimesters

Q: how many weeks is the usual duration of a full-term pregnancy? a.32-36 b.38-42 c.43-45 d.46-49

Q: a newborn infant at full gestational age has an average length of a.6 inches b.12 inches c.20 inches d.3 feet

Q: what is the approximate length of the fetus at 11 weeks of development? a.1 inch b.6 inches c.1 foot d.1.5 feet

Q: a newly fertilized egg is known as a(n) a.fetus b.ovum c.zygote d.embryo

Q: what is the placenta? a.an organ from which the infant receives nourishment b.a muscular organ within which the infant develops before birth c.the developing infant from the eighth week after conception until birth d.the developing infant during its second through eighth week after conception

Q: what connects the umbilical cord to the fetus? a.uterus b.placenta c.caesareas d.belly button

Q: what organ functions to prepare the mothers breasts for lactation? a.uterus b.ovaries c.placenta d.amniotic sac

Q: what organ of the pregnant woman is central to the exchange of nutrients for waste products with the fetus? a.uterus b.vagina c.placenta d.amniotic sac

Q: which of the following has a favorable influence on fertility? a.having excess body fat b.being an underweight female c.choosing diets high in antioxidants if youre male d.eliminating low-glycemic carbohydrates from the diet

Q: which of the following describes the capacity of a man to produce sperm and a woman to periodically produce a normal egg? a.zygote b.fertility c.conception d.implantation zone

Q: which of the following statements about nutrition and pregnancy is false? a.underweight has little, if any, effect on fertility b.overweight men have low sperm counts that reduce fertility c.excess body fat in women interferes with the regular cycles of menstruation d.the womans nutritional status is more important than the mans for the developing fetus

Q: describe the hazards of using anabolic steroids and human growth hormone as ways of improving physical performance.

Q: discuss the pros and cons of caffeine use in competitive athletic events.

Q: discuss efficacy of ribose and sodium bicarbonate as ergogenic aids.

Q: discuss the use and abuse of caffeine, carnitine, chromium, and creatine as ergogenic substances.

Q: discuss the use of six dietary substances promoted as aids to enhance athletic performance.

Q: why do many people and especially athletes believe in ergogenic aids?

Q: discuss optimal composition and timing of pregame and postgame meals.

Q: describe an appropriate diet for physically active people.

Q: why are alcoholic beverages considered poor sources of energy, water, and electrolytes for athletes?

Q: why are athletes at risk for hyponatremia? how can this condition be prevented and treated?

Q: discuss the importance of sodium nutrition for the athlete.

Q: discuss the need for water in maintaining physical performance. what are the symptoms of dehydration? what are the recommendations for ensuring that the body is well hydrated prior to an athletic event?

Q: describe the risks for hyperthermia and hypothermia in physically active people. what is the role of fluid support in prevention and treatment?

Q: compare and contrast the characteristics of sports anemia and iron-deficiency anemia.

Q: discuss the effects of athletic training on iron nutrition, especially in adolescent females.

Q: why are supplements of vitamin e thought to benefit people engaged in endurance activity? what does the evidence actually show?

Q: how might supplemental vitamin e adversely affect physically active people?

Q: how do diet, activity intensity and duration, and extent of training influence protein use during physical activity?

Q: compare the protein needs of endurance and strength athletes.

Q: describe the changes in protein metabolism that occur during and after physical activity. what is the role of diet in fostering recovery from muscle stress?

Q: explain how body fat is mobilized for physical activity.

Q: describe three factors that influence fat use during physical activity.

Q: outline strategies for maximizing the bodys glucose supply for endurance activities. explain the training technique of carbohydrate loading.

Q: what happens to the body when glucose stores become depleted from strenuous activity? how can this depletion be delayed?

Q: what is the role of lactate in physical activity?

Q: how do diet and the intensity of physical activity affect glycogen storage and use?

Q: explain the association of atp and creatine phosphate in physical performance.

Q: discuss the use of protein, fat, and carbohydrate as fuels during low-, moderate-, and high-intensity exercise.

Q: in resistance exercise, what is the relationship between repetitions and amount of weight if the fitness goal is either muscle strength, muscle power, or muscle endurance?

Q: discuss the theory and application of resistance training.

Q: what is meant by a balanced fitness program and how is it best achieved?

Q: discuss the meaning, significance, and practical application of cardiorespiratory conditioning and endurance.

Q: list recommendations for building fitness while minimizing the risk of overuse injuries.

Q: define the progressive overload principle as it applies to physical fitness.

Q: explain the recommended training procedure (i.e., overload principle) for mastering the components of fitness.

Q: explain the meaning and significance of cardiorespiratory endurance.

Q: what is the meaning and significance of applying the talk test to gauge the intensity of physical activities?

Q: define and provide examples of aerobic physical activity, moderate-intensity physical activity, and vigorous-intensity physical activity.

Q: describe at least 5 major benefits associated with being physically fit.

Q: discuss the physiological and psychological benefits of being physically fit.