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Q:
The dental pattern of Old World higher primates is:
a. 2-1-2-3.
b. 2-1-3-3.
c. 2-2-2-3.
d. 2-2-3-3.
Q:
Relative to people with a history of living in temperate climates, the Inuit and other cold-adapted populations:
a. have lower BMR.
b. consume more carbohydrates.
c. reduce peripheral body temperatures to maintain core temperatures.
d. have short limbs and large bodies.
Q:
For women with very low body weight, high amounts of exercise can result in:
a. increased female fertility.
b. increased ovarian function.
c. reduced ability to conceive relative to women who do not exercise.
d. higher rates of conception than in women who do not exercise.
Q:
Melanin:
a. is advantageous because it provides protection from solar radiation.
b. is a chemical that decreases the possibility of a tan.
c. occurs in individuals with light skin tone.
d. develops more with age.
Q:
A direct approach to the study of homeostasis:
a. involves the study of populations in their natural environments.
b. involves using material culture to make living possible in certain settings.
c. involves the replication of environmental conditions and human responses to those conditions.
d. involves all levels of any organism's biology.
Q:
An indirect approach to the study of homeostasis:
a. involves the study of populations in their natural environments.
b. involves all levels of any organism's biology.
c. involves using material culture to make living possible in certain settings.
d. involves the replication of environmental conditions and human responses to those conditions.
Q:
Functional adaptation:
a. occurs at the individual level throughout an individual's lifetime.
b. occurs at the individual level during childhood.
c. involves using material culture to make living possible in certain settings.
d. includes both developmental adaptation and acclimatization.
Q:
The maintenance of homeostasis:
a. involves all levels of any organism's biology.
b. involves the study of populations in their natural environments.
c. involves using material culture to make living possible in certain settings.
d. involves the replication of environmental conditions and human responses to those conditions.
Q:
Cultural adaptation:
a. occurs at the population level via natural selection.
b. occurs at the individual level during childhood.
c. involves using material culture to make living possible in certain settings.
d. occurs at the individual level throughout an individual's lifetime.
Q:
Acclimatization:
a. occurs at the individual level throughout an individual's lifetime.
b. occurs at the individual level during childhood.
c. involves using material culture to make living possible in certain settings.
d. occurs at the population level via natural selection.
Q:
Developmental (or ontogenetic) adaptation:
a. occurs at the individual level throughout an individual's lifetime.
b. occurs at the individual level during childhood.
c. involves using material culture to make living possible in certain settings.
d. occurs at the population level via natural selection.
Q:
Genetic adaptation:
a. occurs at the population level via natural selection.
b. occurs at the individual level during childhood.
c. occurs at the individual level throughout an individual's lifetime.
d. involves using material culture to make living possible in certain settings.
Q:
The postnatal stage includes:
a. the first, second and third trimesters.
b. menarche and senescence.
c. the growth of the deciduous teeth, motor skills, and cognitive abilities.
d. the human growth cycle from the embryo stage.
Q:
When epiphyses fuse to the diaphyses:
a. long bone growth is slowed.
b. full adult height is attained.
c. the adolescent growth spurt begins.
d. is an event largely determined by the environment.
Q:
David Barker's research on poor early health led to the hypothesis that:
a. poor fetal nutrition increases the likelihood of death from stroke.
b. low birth weight is correlated with death from coronary heart disease.
c. small babies are more likely to be underweight as adults.
d. poor health during the fetal period results in the reduced ability to maintain homeostasis.
Q:
The obesity pandemic is due to:
a. the increased ability to produce and consume inexpensive, high-fat foods.
b. a lack of physical exercise.
c. a combination of lower calories and more exercise.
d. the production of high-calorie foods even though people still have a high exercise level.
Q:
Sexual maturation or puberty is marked by:
a. menarche in girls.
b. similar body size in boys and girls.
c. completion of brain growth.
d. adult social roles.
Q:
Allen's rule indicates that humans will have:
a. larger lungs in hot environments and smaller lungs in cold environments.
b. smaller bodies in cold environments and larger bodies in hot environments.
c. longer limbs in hot environments and shorter limbs in cold environments.
d. taller bodies in cold environments and shorter bodies in hot environments.
Q:
Although Allen's and Bergmann's rules most often explain body shape and morphology, we occasionally see variations from the correct patterns. This indicates that:
a. the long-term association between body shape and climate is an example of acclimatization.
b. body shape and morphology do not reflect both evolutionary and developmental processes.
c. the association between body shape and morphology does respond to environmental stressors.
d. the association between body shape, morphology, and the environment is not a result of natural selection.
Q:
Infancy ends:
a. at about 36 months.
b. before deciduous dentition has completely erupted.
c. with completion of brain growth.
d. with weaning, which occurs at the same time across cultures.
Q:
Children living at high altitudes develop a larger chest cavity by adulthood than children living at lower altitudes. This is an example of:
a. environmental adaptations that occur at the individual level.
b. acclimatization at the individual level.
c. developmental adaptations that occur at the level of the individual during critical life stages.
d. inheritance of increases in lung volume by high-altitude populations.
Q:
Stressors during the prenatal stage include:
a. a vegetarian diet of greens, fruits, and dairy products.
b. smoking, alcohol, and drugs.
c. heavy exercise like running and swimming.
d. lack of exercise.
Q:
Multiple biological traits:
a. do not lead to clear-cut racial classifications.
b. are race specific.
c. help with biological profiling.
d. do not exist in humans.
Q:
Which of the following is related to the biological process of homeostasis?
a. senescence
b. Wolff's law
c. osteoporosis
d. adult stage
Q:
The prenatal stage in humans consists of:
a. trimesters.
b. the neonatal period through the end of lactation.
c. infancy, childhood, juvenile period, puberty, adolescence, and adulthood.
d. the neonatal period, infancy, juvenile period, puberty, and adolescence.
Q:
The American economist David Seckler hypothesized that:
a. growth accelerates and decelerates according to various life stages.
b. undernourished populations experience accelerated growth and development.
c. there is a relationship between genes and the environment.
d. shortness in height is an adaptation to reduced food supplies.
Q:
The long limb measurements of Turkana pastoralists indicate that:
a. the population is on the continuum of variation observed in Allen's rule.
b. the population represents the variability that results from Wolff's law of skeletal replacement.
c. the population has body proportions that are not well adapted to warmer climates.
d. the population is well adapted for life at high latitudes, as Allen's rule predicts for pastoralist populations.
Q:
A cline:
a. is continuous variation that follows a continuum.
b. is variation that falls into discrete categories.
c. describes the pattern of occurrence of trisomy 18.
d. was used to describe human variation as early as the Renaissance.
Q:
R.C. Lewontin found that human "races" have no taxonomic significance. He demonstrated this:
a. through research indicating that most genetic variation is found among human races.
b. through research indicating that most genetic variation is found across human populations.
c. through the examination of variation in multiple human skull characteristics.
d. through research that examined genetic diversity across different species of mammals.
Q:
Johann Friedrich Blumenbach:
a. discovered the existence of three races.
b. categorized skulls into five racial types.
c. used blood types and skin colors to create a racial taxonomy for humans.
d. showed that skull shape changed over time.
Q:
Franz Boas:
a. was a strong supporter of the race concept.
b. created racial categories based on living populations in the United States.
c. showed that U.S.-born children had the same head shapes as their immigrant parents.
d. showed that U.S.-born children had different head shapes than their immigrant parents.
Q:
C. Loring Brace argued that the race concept:
a. was first used by Marco Polo as he recorded huge amounts of information during his travels in Asia.
b. has been present throughout human history.
c. can be traced to the Renaissance, when seafaring travelers observed differences between people from distant lands.
d. originated in ancient Egypt.
Q:
Discuss the origins of racism. Include early scientists and their views on human variation.
Q:
Discuss Allen's and Bergmann's rules and how they affect human variation. Include the forces of evolution discussed in previous chapters to support your essay.
Q:
Discuss the obesity pandemic. Include current studies that demonstrate likely causes.
Q:
How does human life history (prenatal stage, infancy, childhood, juvenile stage, adolescence, adulthood, old age) determine the interaction between genes and environment?
Q:
Discuss how natural selection has likely influenced the evolution of skin color in humans.
Q:
Is race a valid, biologically meaningful concept? Why or why not?
Q:
Which is a major contributor to the success of our species?
a. high fecundity
b. body variation
c. human adaptability
d. skin tone variation
Q:
Natural selection favored alleles for light skin in:
a. Africa.
b. Europe.
c. South America.
d. Australia.
Q:
The postnatal stage of adolescence includes:
a. stability in physiology, behavior, and cognition.
b. decline in function of tissue and many organs.
c. eruption of dentition and increased brain growth.
d. development of secondary sex characteristics and interest in adult social, sexual, and economic behaviors.
Q:
Rickets is the result of:
a. a lack of vitamin D.
b. a lack of melanin.
c. high UV exposure.
d. severe air pollution.
Q:
Friedrich Blumenbach categorized humans into the following races:
a. Negroids, Caucasoids, and Mongoloids.
b. Mongoloids, Negroids, Inuit, and Caucasoids.
c. Mongoloids, Malays, Ethiopians, American Indians, and Caucasoids.
d. Mongoloids, Negroids, Malays, Europeans, and Caucasoids.
Q:
Hypoxia has been shown to be an agent of natural selection in that Tibetan women:
a. at high altitudes had fewer surviving children.
b. with alleles for high oxygen saturation in their hemoglobin had more surviving children.
c. with alleles for high oxygen saturation in their hemoglobin had fewer surviving children.
d. have poor nutrition.
Q:
Wolff's law:
a. is the principle that the lengths of limb bones are related to environmental conditions.
b. applies to the maintenance of the endocrine system.
c. accounts for the remodeling of bone when it is under stress.
d. says that bone mass is taken away where it is needed and produced where it is not needed.
Q:
Sexual dimorphism:
a. refers to the onset of puberty.
b. refers to the difference between male and female behavior.
c. refers to the development of male and female primary characteristics.
d. refers to the difference in physical attributes of males and females.
Q:
Dark skin (a result of increased melanin production in equatorial peoples) is likely a response to ultraviolet radiation, because UV radiation can cause:
a. skin cancer.
b. hypoxia.
c. rickets.
d. hypothermia.
Q:
Explain how the founder effect can lead to a descendent population that differs greatly from its parent population over a relatively short period of time.
Q:
Why is the peppered moth an excellent example of directional selection?
Q:
Why is a frameshift mutation far more likely to lead to a defective protein than a point mutation?
Q:
What is a polymorphic trait? Provide two examples of polymorphic traits in modern humans, and give one example of a monomorphic trait.
Q:
Why is the incidence of sickle-cell anemia an excellent example of a "balanced polymorphism," in which two or more alleles are maintained by natural selection in a population?
Q:
In a classroom taste test for PTC the genotype frequency was determined to be P =.35 and Q =.65. After applying the Hardy-Weinberg equation, the percentage of genotypes was found to be as follows:
a. p2=0.12; 2pq =0.46; q2=0.42.
b. p2=0.35; 2pq =0.00; q2=0.65.
c. p2=0.12; 2pq =0.65; q2=0.23.
d. p2=0.20; 2pq =0.20; q2=0.60.
Q:
Frameshift mutations are more likely to have an impact at the phenotypic level because:
a. frameshift mutations are the result of a change in a single nucleotide.
b. frameshift mutations are the result of exposure to radiation.
c. frameshift mutations produce a protein having no function.
d. frameshift mutations are mobile pieces of DNA.
Q:
A study of Darwin's finches after a long period of drought found that all species of finch on one of the islands had developed wide beaks in order to break open seeds. The type of evolution that leads to this phenotype distribution is:
a. directional selection.
b. natural selection.
c. disruptive selection.
d. stabilizing selection.
Q:
A genetic study conducted over multiple generations found that the frequency of genotypes in the first generation were AA: 0.36, Aa: 0.48, aa: 0.16. In the second generation, genotype frequencies shifted to AA: 0.16, Aa: 0.48, aa: 0.36. According to Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, we can assume:
a. random mating has altered gene frequencies.
b. gene flow has possibly shifted the gene frequencies.
c. mating in this population must be nonrandom mating.
d. both b. and c.
Q:
Familial hypercholesterolemia, an autosomal dominant disease, is five times more frequent in the Afrikaner population of South Africa than in the population of Europe or the United States. This represents an example of:
a. natural selection.
b. bottleneck.
c. founder effect.
d. kin selection.
Q:
The mutation known as trisomy 21, in which an extra copy of chromosome 21 is present, is more commonly known as:
a. Turner syndrome.
b. Down syndrome.
c. Klinefelter's syndrome.
d. Williams syndrome.
Q:
An individual who displays the disease sickle-cell anemia must have inherited the deleterious allele from both phenotypically normal parents. This individual is therefore:
a. homozygous dominant.
b. homozygous recessive.
c. heterozygous.
d. haplozygous.
Q:
A genetic study conducted over two generations found that the frequencies of genotypes in the first generation were AA: 0.36, Aa: 0.48, aa: 0.16. In the second generation, genotype frequencies remained the same. According to Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, we can assume:
a. negative assortative mating has maintained gene frequencies.
b. mutations have likely occurred, resulting in the same frequency.
c. mating in this population is random.
d. the population is small and we cannot detect change.
Q:
Fitness trade-off refers to selection favoring which genotype?
a. homozygous dominant
b. homozygous recessive
c. heterozygous
d. no genotype is favored
Q:
The evolution of the modern horse with a single hoof on each limb from a dog-sized ancestor with multiple digits is an example of:
a. macroevolution.
b. stabilizing selection.
c. disruptive selection.
d. microevolution.
Q:
The vector for transmitting the malarial parasite to humans is:
a. dirty drinking water.
b. mosquitoes.
c. rats.
d. monkeys.
Q:
What effect does natural selection have on population variation?
a. It increases variation.
b. It decreases variation.
c. It both increases and decreases variation.
d. It does not affect variation.
Q:
Patrilocal societies are expected to display:
a. greater mtDNA diversity than Y chromosome diversity.
b. roughly equivalent mtDNA and Y chromosome diversity.
c. greater Y chromosome diversity than mtDNA diversity.
d. no strong correlation between societal structure and genetic diversity.
Q:
The absence of the A and B alleles in Native American populations is a result of:
a. natural selection.
b. gene flow.
c. founder effect.
d. mutation.
Q:
A random change in allele frequencies over time is known as:
a. genetic drift.
b. gene flow.
c. admixture.
d. gene migration.
Q:
The best-documented case of industrial melanism involves:
a. Galpagos finches.
b. dung beetles.
c. monarch butterflies.
d. peppered moths.
Q:
Studies of Darwin's finches have found that at certain points in time all finches on the island have either wide beaks or sharp narrow beaks. The type of evolution that leads to this phenotype distribution is:
a. directional selection.
b. natural selection.
c. disruptive selection.
d. stabilizing selection.
Q:
Spontaneous mutation is the result of:
a. unknown causes.
b. X-rays.
c. toxic chemicals.
d. UV radiation.
Q:
You are reading a scientific article about cheetahs that have stripes instead of spots. The article refers to this as a genetic mutation. Though you see they have no negative impact on the cheetahs' fitness, the stripes are nevertheless considered a genetic mutation because:
a. mutations can result in an evolutionary advantage.
b. mutations can result in an evolutionary disadvantage.
c. mutations may have no effect on the phenotype.
d. all of the above
Q:
Over a period of two generations, the frequency of green dung beetles in a population shifts from 75% to 71% while the frequency of brown dung beetles within this population shifts from 25% to 29%. This is an example of:
a. minievolution.
b. microevolution.
c. millievolution.
d. nanoevolution.
Q:
Transposable elements are DNA sequences that:
a. are not coded to produce proteins.
b. contain numerous point mutations.
c. occur only on the X and Y chromosomes.
d. insert themselves into other parts of the genome.
Q:
A point mutation that does not result in a change to the amino acid coded for is said to be a:
a. spontaneous mutation.
b. synonymous mutation.
c. selective mutation.
d. stabilizing mutation.
Q:
Australian aborigines are an endogamous society. This means that marriage and reproduction take place within the group, leading to:
a. increased genetic diversity through genetic drift.
b. migration without gene flow.
c. more genetic diversity than would be observed in an exogamous society.
d. decreased genetic diversity due to a lack of admixture.
Q:
We know that Upper Paleolithic food foragers in Europe are ancestors to modern European populations because of:
a. recent genetic research.
b. archaeological evidence.
c. evidence that both populations lived in the same area.
d. linguistic evidence.
Q:
Mutations to which cells are most likely to have significant evolutionary consequences?
a. sex cells (gametes)
b. red blood cells
c. skin pigment cells
d. brain cells
Q:
The clinal decrease in type B blood from East Asia to Western Europe is probably the result of:
a. founder effect.
b. stabilizing selection.
c. mutation.
d. gene flow.
Q:
Which of the evolutionary forces is most likely to decrease variation between populations?
a. gene flow
b. founder effect
c. mutation
d. natural selection
Q:
Another name for the evolutionary force called gene flow is:
a. "founder effect."
b. "disruptive selection."
c. "admixture."
d. "transposition."