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Q:
The ABO and MN blood-type frequencies of the Dunkers differ significantly from those of current American and German populations due to:
a. genetic drift.
b. natural selection.
c. gene flow.
d. mutation.
Q:
The southern migration of which African people may have led to a significant increase in the incidence of malaria?
a. Masai
b. Turkana
c. Efe
d. Bantu
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a genetic disorder that decreases susceptibility to malaria?
a. G6PD deficiency (favism)
b. sickle-cell anemia
c. Huntington's chorea
d. thalassemia
Q:
The type of selection that favored progressively larger brain size in human evolution is:
a. natural selection.
b. directional selection.
c. stabilizing selection.
d. disruptive selection.
Q:
When individuals of the same species are reproductively isolated, genetic differences may accumulate in sufficient number so that new species could emerge. Such an event would be an example of:
a. microevolution.
b. founder effect.
c. equilibrium.
d. macroevolution.
Q:
Evolution can best be defined as:
a. the appearance of a new species.
b. a change in allele frequencies in a breeding population over time.
c. changes in the DNA of an individual over his or her lifetime.
d. a process that occurs only over extremely long periods of time.
Q:
In certain species of nonhuman primates there are groups where only one dominant female has access to mates. The other females must wait until the opportunity to gain mate access presents itself. This will have direct impacts on " fitness," influencing which of the following?
a. reproductive success
b. aggressiveness
c. strength
d. age at death
Q:
The physical location of a gene within the genome is called the:
a. chromosome.
b. nucleus.
c. address.
d. locus.
Q:
While conducting research with a small population in South America you note that an overwhelming majority of individuals exhibit signs of a specific genetic abnormality. This is most likely the result of:
a. natural selection.
b. founder effect.
c. extinction.
d. gene flow.
Q:
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium assumes:
a. strong selection pressure on the trait(s) being studied.
b. a significant mutation rate from generation to generation.
c. gene flow that is equal both into and out of the population.
d. no gene flow, mutation, or natural selection.
Q:
Together, all of the alleles contained within a group of interbreeding individuals is known as a:
a. gene pool.
b. population.
c. clinal distribution.
d. polymorphism.
Q:
Malaria is caused by:
a. bites from infected mosquitoes.
b. a genetic mutation.
c. drinking bad water.
d. eating spoiled food.
Q:
Define polygenic and pleiotropic traits and explain their significance for researchers' efforts to link human genotypes to phenotypes.
Q:
What is the evolutionary significance of meiosis?
Q:
Discuss some of the possible medical outcomes of the Human Genome Project.
Q:
Describe the steps involved in protein synthesis.
Q:
Use what you know about meiosis to explain Mendel's law of segregation and law of independent assortment.
Q:
Baboons are commonly used in biomedical research. Which of the following is a major contribution to the Human Genome Project that has resulted from baboon research?
a. Baboons provide a model for HIV.
b. Baboons provide a model for osteoarthritis.
c. Baboons provide a model for understanding human obesity.
d. Baboons provide a model for osteoporosis.
Q:
A doctor finds that the mammary glands of a woman are not functioning due to a genetic abnormality that influences the structural design of the thoracic cavity. This is likely:
a. the result of a mutation on the sex chromosomes.
b. the result of a mutation in a Hox gene.
c. the result of a mutation in HSV-1.
d. none of the above
Q:
In his experiments with garden peas, Mendel found that one physical unit is inherited from the father and one from the mother. This provided evidence for:
a. Mendel's law of independent assortment.
b. Thomas Hunt Morgan's ideas of mutation.
c. Mendel's law of segregation.
d. Mendel's concept of nondisjunction.
Q:
The two alleles that result in the expressed phenotype for hemoglobin are equally expressed. This is an example of:
a. polymorphism.
b. codominance.
c. pleiotropy.
d. Mendelian inheritance.
Q:
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) differs from ribonucleic acid (RNA) in that:
a. it was studied during Darwin's lifetime.
b. it is the "recipe" for all biological characteristics and functions.
c. it was discovered by Mendel.
d. it is stored in ribosomes.
Q:
Chromosome number is reduced during:
a. mitosis.
b. recombination.
c. translation.
d. meiosis.
Q:
DNA:
a. is single stranded.
b. contains six different nucleotide bases.
c. directs cellular function.
d. contains the base uracil.
Q:
Homologous chromosomes:
a. are genetically identical.
b. carry genetic information that influences the same trait.
c. are inherited only from the mother.
d. are members of different pairs.
Q:
Somatic cells are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. each includes a nucleus.
b. they are used in multiple tissues throughout the body.
c. each contains half a copy of an organism's DNA.
d. each contains a complete copy of all of an organism's DNA.
Q:
Genetic analysis of haplotypes and variants among living and precontact Native Americans indicates that:
a. Native Americans underwent a huge decline in genetic diversity after Columbus's arrival in the New World.
b. Native Americans living today appear to be as diverse genetically as their ancient ancestors thousands of years ago.
c. Native Americans have a genetic structure and haplogroups that are quite recent.
d. Native Americans living today appear to be more diverse genetically than their ancient ancestors.
Q:
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR):
a. allows us to use genetic methods to explore the origins and movements of populations.
b. is used to amplify tiny sequences of DNA for study.
c. allows us to study small amounts of DNA available in ancient skeletons.
d. all of the above
Q:
In 2004, the Human Genome Project published a human genome map that indicated that:
a. 100,000 genes are responsible for the human body's proteins.
b. 50,000 genes are responsible for the human body's proteins.
c. 20,000"25,000 genes are responsible for the human body's proteins.
d. 200,000"250,000 genes are responsible for the human body's proteins.
Q:
A trait's heritability:
a. is the proportion of its variation that is genetic.
b. is the proportion of its variation that cannot be explained.
c. is the proportion of its variation that is the product of genes and environment.
d. is the proportion of its variation that results from the environment alone.
Q:
The expression of polygenic traits:
a. is never determined by the influence of environmental factors.
b. is determined by genes at several loci in conjunction with environmental factors.
c. is determined solely by genes at two or more loci.
d. is determined solely by the influence of environmental factors.
Q:
The presence of a recessive allele:
a. can always be determined from the phenotype.
b. is usually masked in the phenotype.
c. is expressed in the phenotype alongside a dominant allele.
d. can never be expressed in the phenotype.
Q:
Individuals whose blood type is A and who carry both dominant and recessive genes at this locus have a genotype of:
a. AA.
b. AO.
c. AB.
d. none of the above
Q:
An individual that is homozygous at the locus that determines ABO blood type may have any of the following EXCEPT:
a. type AB blood.
b. type O blood.
c. type A blood.
d. type B blood.
Q:
Microsatellites are:
a. small satellite transmitters used in genetic research.
b. useful for determining group but not individual identification.
c. highly individualized repetitive stretches of nuclear DNA.
d. known from Watson and Crick's 1950s research.
Q:
Human ABO blood types are:
a. determined by regulatory genes.
b. determined by multiple alleles.
c. determined by multiple genes.
d. determined by homeotic genes.
Q:
Homeotic (Hox) genes are:
a. structural genes.
b. responsible for the development and location of key body parts.
c. responsible for determining the sex of offspring.
d. not used during embryonic development.
Q:
Meiosis results in the production of:
a. two gametes.
b. four gametes.
c. a single gamete.
d. none of the above
Q:
Hox genes:
a. appear to function in similar ways across diverse groups of organisms.
b. function only in fruit flies.
c. control which amino acids get plugged into polypeptide chains.
d. control the development of language in humans.
Q:
The gene responsible for lactose persistence among adults in Europe is a:
a. structural gene.
b. dominant gene.
c. regulatory gene.
d. Hox gene.
Q:
Transfer RNA:
a. seeks complementary triplet strands of mRNA codons.
b. contains codons that correspond to specific amino acids.
c. brings amino acids together to form polypeptide chains.
d. all of the above
Q:
RNA differs from DNA in that it uses:
a. uracil instead of adenine.
b. uracil instead of guanine.
c. guanine instead of uracil.
d. uracil instead of thymine.
Q:
Transcription:
a. occurs in the nucleus.
b. occurs in the ribosome.
c. results in the production of proteins.
d. results in the transformation of mitochondria.
Q:
Proteins consist of:
a. genes.
b. RNA plus mRNA.
c. chains of DNA nucleotides.
d. chains of amino acids.
Q:
DNA is important for protein synthesis because:
a. it is biological code for the production of hormones and enzymes.
b. it serves as a template for protein production.
c. it provides the code to produce structural proteins.
d. all of the above
Q:
In his work on pea plants, Mendel found that plant height was inherited independently of the type or color of the seed coat. This finding:
a. applies to genes on the same chromosome.
b. applies to the law of independent assortment.
c. explains gene linkage.
d. explains inheritance in simple organisms.
Q:
Down syndrome can occur:
a. as a result of translocation during mitosis.
b. because of nondisjunction, which yields an extra chromosome.
c. most frequently in the offspring of women under the age of 40.
d. most frequently in the offspring of men under the age of 40.
Q:
Haplotypes are:
a. not likely to recombine during crossovers.
b. likely to recombine during crossovers.
c. genes that code for similar things.
d. genetic material that comes from one parent only.
Q:
Gametes are:
a. diploid.
b. haploid.
c. produced during mitosis.
d. somatic.
Q:
In mammals, the male parent's gametes determine the sex of his offspring because:
a. the X chromosome originates only from females.
b. sperm are more powerful than eggs.
c. the Y chromosome is present in males only.
d. the X chromosome determines sex.
Q:
DNA replication produces:
a. four identical daughter cells.
b. two identical daughter cells.
c. two single strands of DNA.
d. none of the above
Q:
The following are complementary bases in DNA:
a. adenine and thymine.
b. adenine and cytosine.
c. guanine and thymine.
d. guanine and uracil.
Q:
Nucleotide bases in nuclear DNA include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. thymine.
b. adenine.
c. uracil.
d. cytosine.
Q:
__________ DNA is heteroplasmic, meaning it can differ among different parts of a person's body.
a. Nuclear
b. All
c. Ribosomal
d. Mitochondrial
Q:
Prokaryotes first appeared:
a. 10,000 years ago.
b. 1 mya.
c. 3.7 bya.
d. 65 mya.
Q:
Somatic cells include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. lung cells.
b. gametes.
c. skin cells.
d. neurons.
Q:
Discuss the forces of evolution and their role in evolution.
Q:
What is the significance for evolutionary theory of Darwin's analysis of the Galpagos finches? Provide at least one example in your answer.
Q:
What are some of the important scientific discoveries that laid the groundwork for Darwin's theory of evolution?
Q:
Why was Darwin's 1859 published theory of natural selection not widely accepted by his peers? What later scientific advance was critical to the subsequent broad acceptance of natural selection as a major force in evolutionary change?
Q:
Discuss four key individuals who helped Darwin formulate the theory of natural selection.
Q:
James Hutton:
a. extensively studied fossils.
b. revealed that fossils would provide the history of past life.
c. created the first scientific classification of plants and animals.
d. provided geologic evidence necessary for calculating the time span of evolution.
Q:
The Human Genome Project has identified the location of genes that influence diseases such as:
a. the common cold, flu, whooping cough, and meningitis.
b. high blood pressure, diabetes, sinus inflammation, and sickle-cell anemia.
c. sickle-cell anemia, breast cancer, Tay-Sachs, and cystic fibrosis.
d. thyroid disease, menopause, meningitis, and breast cancer.
Q:
What are the classification levels of humans from order to species?
a. Chordata, Mammalia, Haplorhini, Hominoidea, Homo, and sapiens
b. Primates, Haplorhini, Anthropoidea, Catarrhini, Hominoidea, Hominidea, Homininae, Hominine, Homo, and sapiens
c. Primates, Strepsirhini, Catarrhini, Hominoidea, Hominidea, Homo, and sapiens
d. Mammalia, Platyrrhini, Hominioidea, Hominidae, Homo, and sapiens
Q:
Zoonosis is:
a. the transfer of pathogens from other animals to humans.
b. the transfer of genes from other animals to humans.
c. a gene pool of nonhuman genes only.
d. the phenomenon of genetic change in nonhuman species.
Q:
Gene flow differs from genetic drift because:
a. it is the random change in the frequency of alleles.
b. it is the random change in a gene or chromosome.
c. it is the guiding force of evolution.
d. it is the spread of new genetic material from one gene pool to another.
Q:
How do modern-day lemurs of Madagascar demonstrate the concept of adaptive radiation?
a. They are closely related species that have branched from one species.
b. They are no different from ancient species of lemurs.
c. They have radiated from ancient species of monkeys.
d. They show great cultural flexibility.
Q:
Linnaeus's taxonomic system is referred to as a "hierarchy" because:
a. each species has a "higher level" genus and "lower level" species.
b. species are placed in a ranked list called the "Great Chain of Being."
c. humans are considered the most evolved species.
d. none of the above
Q:
Why are Darwin's finches considered good examples of natural selection?
a. They are found on every continent.
b. They originated in North America, according to fossil evidence.
c. They embody the idea of descent with modification.
d. They did not differ between populations.
Q:
In your textbook, the lower frequency of sickle-cell anemia among present day American blacks as compared to West African blacks is attributed to:
a. genetic drift.
b. gene flow.
c. new mutations.
d. none of the above
Q:
The presence of iridium in geologic deposits around the world supported the theory that:
a. the impact of a giant meteor that struck the Earth produced mass extinctions of dinosaur species across the planet.
b. alien material was a factor in the origins of species on this planet.
c. catastrophes occurred in the past and produced major changes in species, causing dinosaurs to adapt and eventually become mammals.
d. Cuvier's proposal of catastrophism as the theory explaining human origins is correct.
Q:
Darwin observed that adaptations:
a. resulted from supernatural forces.
b. did not vary among Galpagos finches living in different habitats.
c. were physical traits that enhanced survival and reproduction.
d. were peripheral to evolutionary change.
Q:
Thomas Hunt Morgan:
a. demonstrated that chromosomes carry genetic material in the form of genes.
b. studied mutations in Homo sapiens.
c. thought change was gradual and occurred over long time periods.
d. none of the above
Q:
The scientist whose work provided the foundation for later understandings of genetics was:
a. John Ray.
b. Gregor Mendel.
c. Charles Darwin.
d. Robert Hooke.
Q:
Gregor Mendel's discovery of the principles of inheritance contributed to the field of:
a. psychology.
b. paleontology.
c. zoology.
d. biology.
Q:
What are the three observations of natural selection?
a. Species change and adapt based on environmental pressure, individuals change within their lifetime, and offspring inherit the changes.
b. Genetic drift, gene flow, and mutations provide the change necessary in populations that affect future generations.
c. Organisms produce more offspring than survive, populations vary, and traits are inherited.
d. The number of adults tends to remain the same over time, inheritance provides all of the genetic variation needed for future generations, and natural selection works on only the best of those adults in each generation.
Q:
Fossils represent the remains of once-living:
a. extant species that tell the story of human origins.
b. extinct organisms that provide a record of the history of life on the planet.
c. plants that provide proof of catastrophism.
d. organisms that demonstrate the age of the Earth through the process of uniformitarianism.
Q:
The individual genotypes in a breeding population, taken as a whole, are the:
a. gene pool.
b. DNA.
c. genome.
d. polygene.
Q:
The scientist who coined the name Homo sapiens for human beings and placed them in a higher taxonomic group (primates) was:
a. Charles Darwin.
b. Georges Cuvier.
c. Carolus Linnaeus.
d. Robert Hooke.
Q:
The geneticist who studied the workings of fruit flies' chromosomes was:
a. Charles Darwin.
b. Gregor Mendel.
c. Thomas Hunt Morgan.
d. Thomas Huxley.