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Physic
Q:
There are no tides to be seen in the community swimming pool because
A) gravitation on the small mass of water is negligibly small.
B) it is shallow compared to the ocean.
C) all parts of it are practically the same distance from the Moon.
D) they are masked by the much stronger pull of Earth's gravity.
E) But there are, at nighttime.
Q:
The best time for digging clams (when low tide is extra low) is during the time of the
A) new or full moon.
B) half moon.
C) quarter moon.
D) none of these times.
Q:
Suppose the Moon had twice as much mass as it does now and still orbits Earth at the same distance. In that case, the ocean bulges on Earth would be
A) larger.
B) smaller.
C) unequal in size.
D) not significantly different.
E) none of these
Q:
Tidal forces in general are the result of
A) two or more sources of gravitation.
B) a combination of any kind of forces acting on a body.
C) unequal forces acting on different parts of a body.
D) the inverse-square law.
E) unequal fluid flow.
Q:
The main reason ocean tides exist is that the pull of the Moon
A) and Sun are in conjunction at high tides and in opposition at low tides.
B) is greater on oceans closer to the Moon and less on oceans farther from the Moon.
C) is greater on Earth because the Moon is closer to Earth.
D) and the Sun on the oceans are in opposite directions.
E) none of these
Q:
Which is most responsible for the ocean tides?
A) the Moon
B) the Sun
C) Both contribute equally.
Q:
With respect to the stars, the Moon
A) circles the Earth.
B) and the Earth circle each other.
C) remains stationary while the Earth circles about it.
D) does not rotate about its own axis as the Earth does.
Q:
Which pulls on the oceans of Earth with the greater force?
A) the Moon
B) the Sun
C) The Sun and the Moon both pull the same.
Q:
Sand spits are formed from sand
A) carried along the coast by longshore transport.
B) swept up from the seafloor and heaped up along the shore by wave action.
C) swept up from the continental rise.
D) swept into a heap by tidal currents.
Q:
Along the open ocean, barrier islands are zones of
A) relatively quiet waters.
B) deposited sand ridges formed offshore and parallel to the coast.
C) intense vegetation growth.
D) eroded sand ridges.
Q:
The most common depositional shoreline feature is a
A) beach.
B) wave-cut platform.
C) barrier island.
D) seamount.
Q:
Which of the following shoreline features does not belong in association with the others?
A) sea stack
B) sea caves
C) spit
D) sea arch
Q:
Common erosional shoreline features include sea stacks,
A) beaches, and barrier islands.
B) wave-cut platforms, sea caves, and sea arches.
C) sea caves, sea arches, and atolls.
D) wave-cut platforms, sea caves, and sea spits.
Q:
Ocean waves refract due to
A) wave interference.
B) ocean swells.
C) shallow water.
D) transverse motion.
Q:
At what water depth is an ocean wave affected by the ocean floor?
A) It depends on the wave's angle of approach to the shoreline.
B) The ocean floor has no impact on ocean waves.
C) At the depth equal to one-half the wave's wavelength.
D) At the depth where transverse motion dominates.
Q:
In a swell, wavelength is constant. As a swell nears the shore and touches bottom, the wavelength
A) shortens, wave speed slows, and wave height increases.
B) shortens, wave speed slows, and wave height decreases.
C) and wave height increase as wave speed slows.
D) and wave height increase as wave speed quickens.
Q:
Water movement in a wave in the surf zone is characterized by
A) steepened wave height and longer wavelength.
B) steepened wave height and shorter wavelength.
C) a surfable wave crest and increased wavelength.
D) shallow water depth and a steepened long wavelength.
Q:
One of the results of wave refraction is that
A) wave energy is concentrated at headlands that project into the water.
B) wave energy is concentrated in the recessed parts of the coast between headlands.
C) sediment is deposited in the vicinity of headlands, making them larger.
D) wave energy is dissipated before the waves reach the shoreline.
Q:
Waves are altered when they enter shallow water. They change
A) direction by refraction, they steepen and break.
B) direction by refraction, they increase in speed, steepen, and break.
C) direction by reflection, they increase in energy, steepen, and break.
D) intensity by refraction, they lose energy, steepen and break.
Q:
As waves enter shallow water, wave speed
A) decreases, causing the wave to bend perpendicular to the shore.
B) increases, causing the wave to bend parallel to the shore.
C) decreases, causing the wave to bend parallel to the shore.
D) increases, causing the wave to bend perpendicular to the shore.
Q:
In a swell, wavelength is constant. As a swell touches bottom, the wavelength
A) increases and velocity decreases.
B) shortens and velocity decreases.
C) shortens and velocity increases.
D) and velocity increase.
Q:
As a water wave approaches a shoreline, wave speed
A) increases.
B) decreases.
C) is unchanged.
D) and wavelength increase.
Q:
When a wave moves, the water
A) moves along with the wave.
B) follows a straight up and down path.
C) follows a roughly circular path.
D) moves with the wave to a depth of one-half the wavelength, while deeper water follows a circular orbit.
Q:
The movement of water in a wave travels
A) with the wave.
B) in a circular path at and just below the water surface.
C) in a circular path at a depth of one-half the wavelength.
D) in both a longitudinal and circular path.
Q:
The orbital motion of a wave is greatest (has the largest "diameter") at
A) the wave base.
B) about one-half the depth of the wave base.
C) a depth of one-half the wavelength.
D) the surface.
Q:
Ocean waves and currents generally form as a result of
A) swells.
B) the rotation of the Earth.
C) differences in ocean density.
D) wind.
Q:
Where do the ocean's salts originate?
Q:
What factors increase salinity in the ocean? What factors decrease salinity?
Q:
The extent of the continental shelf, an underwater extension of continental crust from shoreline to basin, varies due to fluctuations in sea level. When sea level is lower, the continental shelf is
A) is narrow because less of the continental shelf is exposed.
B) is narrow because less of the continental shelf is submerged.
C) wider because some of the continental land would be submerged.
Q:
The extent of the continental shelf, an underwater extension of the continental crust, varies due to fluctuations in sea level. When sea level is higher, the continental shelf
A) is narrow because less of the continental shelf is exposed.
B) is narrow because less of the continental shelf is submerged.
C) wider because some of the continental land would be submerged.
Q:
Ocean trenches such as the Tonga and Marianas Trench, are
A) subduction zones where lithosphere is pulled down to the asthenosphere.
B) some of the steepest places on Earth.
C) found at continental-continental plate boundaries that mark the the deepest places on Earth.
Q:
Features of the deep ocean basins include abyssal plains, ocean trenches, mid-ocean ridges, and seamountsall of which are composed of
A) plutonic rock.
B) granite.
C) basalt.
Q:
In the topography of the ocean basins, high points such as seamounts and abyssal hills are composed of
A) plutonic rock.
B) volcanic rock.
C) accumulated sediments washed down from the continents.
Q:
The mid-oceanic ridge systems in the Atlantic and Pacific oceans are
A) high points in the ocean basins where new crust is being made.
B) the tallest features in Earth's ocean basins.
C) some of the oldest rock formations on Earth's surface.
Q:
When precipitation at the ocean surface exceeds evaporation, the salinity of seawater
A) increases.
B) decreases.
C) stays the same.
Q:
When evaporation at the ocean surface exceeds precipitation, the salinity of seawater
A) increases.
B) decreases.
C) stays the same.
Q:
Compared with equatorial open ocean waters, open ocean water in the northern Pacific
A) is colder and less dense.
B) has a higher salinity content.
C) is colder and more dense.
D) has a lower salinity content.
Q:
The two most abundant elements that make up the salinity of seawater are
A) sodium and potassium.
B) chlorine and sulfur.
C) calcium and sulfur.
D) chlorine and sodium.
Q:
The average salinity of ocean water is
A) 96.5 parts per thousand.
B) 16 parts per thousand.
C) 35 parts per thousand.
D) 3.5 parts per thousand.
Q:
Factors that increase ocean salinity are
A) runoff from streams and rivers.
B) formation of sea ice.
C) precipitation.
D) glacial melting.
Q:
Fresh water leaves the ocean by evaporation,
A) and seawater freezing.
B) precipitation, and runoff.
C) sublimation, seawater freezing.
D) and formation of ice.
Q:
Fresh water enters the ocean by runoff from streams and rivers,
A) precipitation of rain over the ocean, and evaporation of coastal waters.
B) evaporation of surface water, and melting of glacial ice.
C) precipitation, and melting of glacial ice.
D) none of these
Q:
Going from continental land toward the deep ocean basin, the continental margin consists of the
A) slope, the shelf, and the rise.
B) rise, the slope, and the shelf.
C) shelf, the slope, and the rise.
D) shelf, abyssal plain, and the mid-ocean ridge.
Q:
Why are temperature fluctuations greater over land than water?
Q:
What impact does the formation of the ozone layer have on our planet?
Q:
What is the significance of the ozone layer?
Q:
Ozone in the Earth's upper atmosphere
A) filters incoming infrared light reaching Earth's surface.
B) filters incoming visible light reaching Earth's surface.
C) filters incoming ultraviolet radiation reaching Earth's surface.
D) acts as a blanket to keep Earth's surface warm.
Q:
The Earth's largest ocean is the
A) Atlantic.
B) Pacific.
C) Arctic.
D) World Oceanthere is one big ocean taking up three-quarters of the world!
Q:
The origin of Earth's primitive ozone layer
A) is attributed to photosynthesis.
B) traces back to the Cambrian period.
C) is attributed to volcanic eruptions.
D) helped to form the oceans.
Q:
The origin of Earth's oceans is from
A) comet debris.
B) melting of polar ice caps.
C) volcanic eruptions.
D) comets and volcanic eruptions.
Q:
Most of Earth's water is in the
A) oceans.
B) polar ice caps.
C) rivers, lakes, and stream.
D) ground.
Q:
Earth's first atmosphere was composed of
A) oxygen, hydrogen, and helium.
B) hydrogen and helium, with trace amounts of ammonia and methane.
C) gases from volcanic eruptions.
D) oxygen, water vapor, carbon dioxide, and methane.
Q:
Earth's original atmosphere was
A) very similar to the atmosphere we have today.
B) rich in both O2 and O3.
C) obliterated after the birth of the Sun.
D) a mixture of N2, CO2, and O3.
Q:
Earth's earliest atmosphere was most likely composed of hydrogen, helium,
A) oxygen, and nitrogen.
B) methane, and nitrogen.
C) methane, and ammonia.
D) oxygen, and ozone.
Q:
Earth's atmosphere probably developed from gases escaping from its interior during volcanic eruptions. This outgassing also produced Earth's
A) protective ozone layer.
B) oceans.
C) numerous mountain belts.
D) ionosphere.
Q:
Plants evolved the ability of photosynthesis during the
A) Cambrian period.
B) Precambrian.
C) Paleozoic era.
D) Pleistocene.
Q:
The process of photosynthesis is important because it
A) converts carbon and water to hydrocarbon and free oxygen.
B) contributed to the development of an ozone layer.
C) is an energy source that drives the geologic process.
D) allowed increased infiltration of solar energy.
Q:
Earth's earliest atmosphere was lacking in
A) carbon dioxide.
B) hydrogen.
C) free oxygen.
D) photosynthesis.
Q:
The Earth's oceans evolved
A) from condensation of water vapor in a hydrogen-oxygen rich atmosphere.
B) from condensation of water vapor from volcanic eruptions.
C) with accumulation of rainfall.
D) as Earth warmed.
Q:
Compared with San Francisco, California, winter air temperatures and air density in Denver, Colorado, are
A) the same.
B) cooler and thinner.
C) cooler and denser.
D) warmer and denser.
Q:
Coastal lands bordering the oceans generally have
A) colder temperatures than lands away from the ocean.
B) more moderate temperature variations than inland areas.
C) more scenery than land in the continental interior.
D) tropical temperatures due to the high heat capacity of water.
Q:
The San Andreas fault is still active today as the northwest moving
A) North American Plate grinds against the southwest moving Pacific Plate.
B) Pacific Plate grinds against the southwest moving North American Plate.
Q:
The great height of the Himalayas is due to
A) continental-continental convergence where neither plate undergoes subduction.
B) the continuing after affect of the collision between the Alps and the Urals.
C) convergence of the Farallon Plate with India.
D) the subduction of India beneath Asia.
Q:
Glacial striations on the continental landmasses provide evidence
A) that Hawaii was once joined to Alaska.
B) of the direction of Pleistocene ice flow.
C) that the Cenozoic was a very cool time.
D) that Baja California was once joined to Mexico.
Q:
The San Andreas Fault was created
A) during the Cenozoic.
B) by the collision of the eastward moving North American Plate and the Pacific ridge.
C) by the same tectonic activity that formed the Gulf of California.
D) by Cenozoic tectonic activity that also formed the Gulf of California as the North American Plate collided with the Pacific ridge.
Q:
Which of the following is not a presumed cause of ice ages?
A) The arrangement of continents around the globe.
B) The amount of sunlight being reflected back into space.
C) The geometry of Earth's rotation on its axis and revolution around the Sun.
D) Volcanic eruptions blocking the sunlight with clouds.
Q:
The birth of the San Andreas Fault corresponds to the collision of
A) the Pacific Plate and the Hawaiian islands.
B) the Pacific ridge system and North America.
C) the movement of the Pacific Plate over a turbulent zone.
D) India and Eurasia.
Q:
Pangaea formed during the Paleozoic and broke up in the Mesozoic. Of all the former continental unions that existed in Paleozoic time, only that of
A) Australia and Antarctica has survived to the present time.
B) Africa and India has survived to the present time.
C) North and South America has survived to the present time.
D) Europe and Asia has survived to the present time.
Q:
The extensive glaciation of the Pleistocene caused sea level to
A) drop because a great deal of water was bound in glaciers.
B) rise because a great deal of water was tied up in glaciers.
C) drop because of increased ablation and reduced accumulation.
D) rise because of increased accumulation and reduced ablation.
Q:
In general, when we refer to the time of the "Ice Age" we are referring to the
A) Jurassic.
B) Tertiary era.
C) Pleistocene epoch.
D) Pliocene era.
Q:
During the Pleistocene ice age
A) there was one large episode of glacial advance.
B) there were several episodes of glacial advance and retreat.
C) Earth's entire surface was covered with ice.
D) Earth's oceans were completely frozen.
Q:
The Cenozoic era represents a period of
A) almost continuous tectonic activity.
B) relative tectonic stability.
C) worldwide tropical climates.
D) great diversification of fish species.
Q:
Uplift of the Rocky Mountains was a result of
A) compressional forces.
B) tensional forces.
C) crustal extension.
D) none of these
Q:
During the Cenozoic, animals grew to great sizes and proportions. The woolly mammoth and the saber tooth tiger were much larger than animals we see today. Some of the causes for their extinction may be
A) the emergence of man and competition for food.
B) burning of the grasslands, severe climatic change, and man's emergence.
C) dwindling food supplies, extreme climatic variation, and man's emergence.
D) the extensive ice sheets that covered the land surface.
Q:
The most noteworthy event that occurred during the Pleistocene was the
A) emergence of the early humans.
B) ice age.
C) appearance of the grasslands.
D) divergence of horses.
Q:
The Cenozoic Era is known as the
A) age of the mammals.
B) age of man.
C) age of the reptile.
D) ice age.
Q:
The break-up of Pangaea had worldwide consequenceshow did this impact climate and sea level?
Q:
What is the most widely accepted hypothesis for the dinosaur extinction at the end of the Cretaceous period?
Q:
What types of changes occurred in land-dwelling animals during the Mesozoic?
Q:
What is the evidence that a meteorite impact caused the great extinction at the end of the Mesozoic?