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Physic
Q:
The last minerals to crystallize from a cooling magma have the
A) lowest melting point and the highest percentage of silica.
B) lowest melting point and the lowest percentage of silica.
C) highest melting point and the highest percentage of silica.
D) highest melting point and the lowest percentage of silica.
Q:
The process of crystallization acts to
A) enrich the molten magma in silica.
B) deplete the molten magma of silica.
C) enrich the crystallized minerals in silica.
D) none of the above.
Q:
The melting point of silicate minerals is strongly dependent on the amount of silica it contains. The first minerals to melt are those with
A) lowest melting point and lowest silica content.
B) lowest melting point and highest silica content.
C) lowest silica content and highest melting point.
D) highest silica content and highest melting point.
Q:
What is an ore?
Q:
What is the major rock-forming mineral group? Give examples of minerals in this group.
Q:
What are the rock-forming mineral groups?
Q:
Most of the world's sand is made up of which two minerals?
Q:
The silicates are the largest mineral group because silicon and oxygen are
A) the hardest elements on Earth's surface.
B) the two most abundant elements in Earth's crust.
C) found in the common mineral quartz.
Q:
A mineral that is not a silicate is
A) feldspar.
B) mica.
C) calcite.
D) quartz.
Q:
Our Earth has many resources, but they are not unlimited. In the case of abundant metals, supply will most often meet demand. However, problems can occur when
A) there is a shortage of ores that can be mined at a reasonable cost.
B) high grade ores are depleted and low-grade ores need to be mined.
C) transport and processing costs override economic feasibility.
D) all of the above.
Q:
A mineral deposit can be classified as an ore deposit when
A) valuable metals are present in the deposit.
B) valuable metals in the deposit can be mined at a profit.
C) it contains valuable fossil fuels.
D) it contains valuable gemstone quality minerals.
Q:
By definition, an ore is a mineral rich in valuable metals. To be considered as an ore means that the
A) metals can be economically extracted to yield a profit.
B) metals are extremely valuable.
C) deposit is very rich and abundant in valuable metals.
D) metallic minerals are very abundant.
Q:
Of the five rock-forming mineral groupsthe silicates, carbonates, oxides, sulfides, and sulfateswhich two form economically important ores?
A) silicates and carbonates
B) carbonates and oxides
C) oxides and sulfides
D) sulfides and sulfates
Q:
Galena belongs to the class of minerals known as the
A) sulfides.
B) sulfates.
C) silicates.
D) carbonates.
Q:
Most of the world's sand is composed of the minerals
A) feldspar and quartz.
B) silicon and oxygen.
C) quartz and muscovite.
D) silicon and aluminum.
Q:
Minerals are formed from the combination of different elements. The combination of different metallic elements produces
A) metallic minerals.
B) metallic and nonmetallic minerals.
C) nonmetallic minerals.
D) polymorphs.
Q:
The most common mineral in Earth's crust is ________, and the second most common mineral is ________.
A) quartz; feldspar
B) feldspar; quartz
C) silicate; carbonate
D) olivine; feldspar
Q:
The most common rock forming minerals are composed of predominantly eight elements. These minerals are the
A) silicates, carbonates, oxides, sulfides, and sulfates.
B) silicates, sulfides, and oxides.
C) silicons, borates, oxides, sulfides, and carbonates.
D) sulfates, oxides, and carbonates.
Q:
List the seven physical properties for identifying minerals.
Q:
Cleavage is the tendency of a mineral to break along planes of weakness. What factors determine these planes of weakness?
Q:
A mineral's hardness depends on the strength of its chemical bonds. Name and describe the factors that influence hardness.
Q:
Which of the following properties most clearly reflects the internal arrangement of atoms in a crystalline material?
A) color
B) cleavage
C) luster
D) density
Q:
Mohs scale is based on minerals that have different
A) cleavage directions.
B) colors.
C) hardness.
D) shapes.
Q:
Minerals that have the same combination of elements but have different atomic arrangements are called
A) polymorphs.
B) polygonal.
C) tetrahedra.
D) polymers.
Q:
Minerals that have strong bonds between flat crystal surfaces tend to
A) cleave more easily.
B) show poor cleavage.
C) show well developed cleavage.
D) have a well-developed streak.
Q:
The property of a mineral to break along planes of weakness is referred to as
A) cleavage.
B) hardness.
C) fracture.
D) bond strength.
Q:
A mineral's hardness is dependent on the
A) strength of its chemical bonds.
B) mineral ionization.
C) size of its atoms, large atoms are harder than small atoms.
D) geometric arrangement of atoms.
Q:
Color is not a reliable means for mineral identification because
A) minerals come in a variety of colors, and chemical impurities in the mineral can affect color.
B) minerals can weather and change color.
C) a mineral's powdered color is different than its solid color.
D) there are so many colored minerals.
Q:
The mineral gold (Au) is very soft. Gold's softness can be attributed to
A) large, tightly packed atoms.
B) small, loosely bonded atoms.
C) large, loosely packed, and loosely bonded atoms.
D) large, closely packed, and strong bonded atoms.
Q:
Most minerals can be identified by easily observable physical properties. In order of most useful to least useful, the identifiable physical properties are
A) color, crystal form, hardness, cleavage, and density.
B) hardness, cleavage, density, crystal form, and color.
C) crystal form, color, hardness, cleavage, and density.
D) crystal form, hardness, cleavage, color, and density.
Q:
The majority of elements in the Periodic Table are metallic. Does this mean that most minerals are metallic?
Q:
What is the difference between a mineral and an element?
Q:
All minerals are
A) organic.
B) crystals.
C) crystalline solids.
D) synthetic.
Q:
The protective shells that many sea organisms grow are not minerals because they
A) are not calcium carbonate.
B) are organic.
C) are made of ooze.
D) become compacted.
Q:
Minerals are composed of
A) silicon compounds.
B) common types of rocks.
C) homogeneous solids.
D) inorganic solids.
Q:
Young Earth developed a layered structure under the influence of
A) impact heating and convection in its interior.
B) gravitational contraction and radioactive decay.
C) meteorite bombardment.
D) gravity and density segregationthe process of differentiation.
Q:
The three sources that brought young Earth to its melting point were
A) impact heating, convection heating, radiometric heating.
B) impact heating, gravitational contraction heating, radioactive decay heating.
C) impact heating, convection heating, radioactive decay heating.
D) collisional heating, contraction heating, radiometric heating.
Q:
Based on its abundance in Earth's crust, most rocks contain a mineral composed of the elements oxygen and
A) carbon.
B) silicon.
C) iron.
D) sulfur.
Q:
The two most abundant elements in Earth's crust are
A) silicates and carbonates.
B) silicon and oxygen.
C) oxygen and aluminum.
D) quartz and feldspar.
Q:
How does fractional distillation work?
A) It takes advantage of the different boiling points of molecules to separate them.
B) It takes advantage of the different weight of molecules to separate them.
C) It uses the fraction of carbon in the isomers to separate the molecules.
D) It takes advantage of the different melting points to separate molecules.
E) none of the above
Q:
Which of the following two stick structures are different conformations of the same molecule? A) a and c
B) b and c
C) a and d
D) b and d
E) none of the above
Q:
Which of the following molecules could be a different conformation of the underlined molecule below? A) a
B) b
C) c
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q:
Which of the following statements best describes the concept of structural conformation?
A) rearranging the shape of a molecule by rotating around bonds
B) rearranging the shape of a molecule by changing the arrangement of bonds
C) changing the structure by adding or subtracting bonds
D) arranging the atom into the best conformation for the given structure
E) changing the conformation to generate a new molecule with different chemical properties
Q:
Which of the following molecules could be a different conformation of the underlined molecule below? A) a
B) b
C) c
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q:
Which of the following molecules could be a structural isomer for the underlined molecule below? A) a
B) b
C) c
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q:
Which of the following two stick structures are structural isomers? A) a and b
B) a and c
C) b and c
D) b and d
E) none of the above
Q:
Which of the following molecules is a branched hydrocarbon? A) a
B) b
C) c
D) All of the above are branched hydrocarbons.
E) only a and b
Q:
Which of the following molecules is not a straight-chain hydrocarbon? A) a
B) b
C) c
D) All of the above are straight-chain hydrocarbons.
E) None of the above are straight-chain hydrocarbons.
Q:
What would the formula be for the following stick model? A) C4H10
B) C3H3
C) C3H6
D) C3H8
E) C4H8
Q:
What would the formula be for the following stick model? A) C6H12
B) C5H5
C) C6H10
D) C5H10
E) none of the above
Q:
Which of the following stick structures could describe pentane (C5H12)? A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) none of the above
Q:
What determines the chemical and physical properties of hydrocarbons?
A) the way the atoms are connected together
B) the number of carbon and hydrogens
C) the elements it is composed of
D) the number of oxygen
E) both A and B
Q:
Which of the following is the simplest possible hydrocarbon?
A) CH4
B) H2
C) HCCH
D) H2CCH2
E) C2H6
Q:
What is a hydrocarbon?
A) It is a molecule composed of carbon and hydrogen only.
B) It is a wet carbon atom.
C) It is any organic molecule.
D) It is a molecule derived from hydrogen synthesis.
E) none of the above
Q:
What is an organic compound?
A) any molecule that is made mostly of carbon with no metals in it
B) compound grown with organic farming methods
C) any compound isolated from living organisms
D) any compound where there are metals bound to other types of atoms
E) anything that is a salt obtained from organic creatures
Q:
The copolymer styrene-butadiene rubber (SBR), shown below, is used for making tires as well as bubble gum. Is it an addition polymer or a condensation polymer? A) SBR is an addition polymer.
B) SBR is an condensation polymer.
C) SBR is neither an addition nor a condensation polymer.
D) SBR is both an addition and a condensation polymer.
Q:
The compound 6-aminohexanoic acid is used to make the condensation polymer nylon-6. Polymerization is not always successful, however, because of a competing side reaction. What is this side reaction?
A) One 6-aminohexanoic acid reacts with another and this reaction is favored in dilute solutions.
B) One 6-aminohexanoic acid reacts with another and this reaction is favored in concentrated solutions.
C) One end of the 6-aminohexanoic acid reacts with the other and this reaction is favored in dilute solutions.
D) One end of the 6-aminohexanoic acid reacts with the other and this reaction is favored in concentrated solutions.
Q:
What type of polymer would be best to use in the manufacture of stain-resistant carpets?
A) cellulose
B) nylon
C) Melmac
D) Teflon
Q:
Hydrocarbons release a lot of energy when ignited. Where does this energy ultimately come from?
A) the breaking of chemical bonds
B) the formation of chemical bonds
C) photosynthesis
D) nuclear fusion in the sun
Q:
Which would you expect to be more viscous, a polymer made of long molecular strands or one made of short molecular strands? Why?
A) short molecular strands because of a greater density
B) long molecular strands because they tend to tangle among themselves
C) short molecular strands because their ends are typically polar
D) long molecular strands because of a greater molecular mass
Q:
One solution to the problem of our overflowing landfills is to burn plastic objects instead of burying them. What would be some of the advantages and disadvantages of this practice?
A) disadvantage: toxic air pollutants; advantage: reduced landfill volume
B) disadvantage: loss of vital petroleum-based resource; advantage: generation of electricity
C) disadvantage: discourages recycling; advantage: provides new jobs
D) all of the above
Q:
Would you expect polypropylene to be denser or less dense than low-density polyethylene? Why?
A) Polypropylene should be more dense because because it has a greater molecular mass.
B) Polyproylene should be more dense because its molecules are able to pack more closely together.
C) Polyproylene should be less dense because its molecules are not able to pack together as tightly.
D) Polypropylene should be more dense given that the polyethylene is already known to be of low density.
Q:
What happens when you use a monomer with more than two functional groups?
A) The polymer cannot be remelted.
B) The polymer does not form.
C) The polymer has a lower molecular weight.
D) The polymer is softer and more flexible.
Q:
The following reaction is used to make the polymer described below. What is the other starting material? A) HOCH2CH2OH
B) H2O
C) HOCH2CH3
D) H2CCH2
E) HOCH2CH2CH2CH2OH
Q:
What is the main difference between condensation polymers and addition polymers?
A) The condensation polymer has less atoms in it than the sum of the starting monomers because a small molecule is lost during condensation.
B) The number of atoms incorporated into the addition polymer increases compared to the starting monomers.
C) The number of atoms incorporated into the condensation polymer increases compared to the starting monomers.
D) Condensation polymers all lose water molecules when they form.
E) All of the above are true.
Q:
Which of the monomers below would be used to make the following polymer? A) HCCHCH3
B) H2CCH2CH3
C) HCCHCHCCHCH3
D) H2CCH2
E) none of the above
Q:
What is the main difference between High Density PolyEtyhlene (HDPE) and Low Density PolyEthylene(LDPE)?
A) HDPE has very long chains packed close together; LDPE has long chains that are branched and do not pack together well.
B) One is made from high density ethylene, the other from low density ethylene.
C) HDPE has very long chains packed close together; LDPE has short chains that do not pack together well.
D) HDPE is more useful than LDPE.
E) LDPE is more useful than HDPE.
Q:
What is one thing that all monomers of addition polymers have in common?
A) The monomer has to have at least one double bond.
B) The monomer has to have at least two functional groups (though they can be the same).
C) The monomer has to have at least two functional groups (though they must be the different).
D) The monomer has to be very small.
E) The monomer has to have a number of polymer components.
Q:
How are monomers and polymers related?
A) A monomer is a small, repeating unit that makes up a polymer.
B) A monomer is one strand of a polymer.
C) A monomer is made when you condense a polymer through polymerization.
D) A polymer is chemically identical to a monomer, only larger.
E) none of the above
Q:
Which of the following molecules contains a ketone? A) a
B) b
C) c
D) a or b
E) all of the above
Q:
An amino acid is an organic molecule that contains both an amine group and a carboxyl group. At neutral pH, which structure is most likely: A) structure (a)
B) structure (b)
C) neither structure
D) both structures
Q:
An amino acid is an organic molecule that contains both an amine group and a carboxyl group. At an acidic pH, which structure is most likely: A) structure (a)
B) structure (b)
C) structure (c)
D) All three structures are equally possible.
Q:
Suggest an explanation for why aspirin has a sour taste.
A) It is the acidic nature of aspirin that gives rise to its sour taste.
B) The sour flavor is added to help prevent overdosing.
C) Aspirin is made sour as a mandated child safety feature.
D) It is the basic nature of aspirin that gives rise to its sour taste.
Q:
Explain why caprylic acid, C(CCOOH, dissolves in a 5 percent aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide but caprylaldehyde, C(CCHO, does not.
A) With two oxygens the caprylic acid is about twice as polar the caprylaldehyde.
B) The caprylaldehyde is a gas at room temperature.
C) The caprylaldehyde behaves as a reducing agent, which neutralizes the sodium hydroxide.
D) The caprylic acid reacts to form the water soluble salt.
Q:
Which of the above molecules would most likely have a strong, distinct smell?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) a or d
Q:
Which of the above molecules would be acidic?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) a or d
Q:
Which of the above molecules is a carboxylic acid?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) none of the above
Q:
Which of the above molecules is an aldehyde?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) none of the above
Q:
Which of the above molecules is a phenol?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) a and d
Q:
Which of the above molecules is a ketone?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) none of the above