Q&A Hero

Q: According to __________ theory, infants actively search for invariant features of the environment in a constantly changing perceptual world. A) amodal perception B) differentiation C) cognitive perceptual D) dynamic systems

Q: Which of the following statements about intermodal perception is true? A) It is important for the healthy development of human, but not animal, babies. B) It interferes with infants' ability to learn the patterns of their native language. C) It is unrelated to perceptual development. D) It fosters all aspects of psychological development.

Q: When baby Jon's dad talks to him, Jon focuses on his dad's voice and face. Jon is detecting A) amodal sensory properties. B) kinetic depth cues. C) contrast sensitivity. D) differentiation properties.

Q: Lana understands that an object's shape is the same whether she sees it or touches it; that breaking a glass causes a sharp, crashing sound; and that the pattern of footsteps signals the approach of a person. This understanding is called A) amodal stability. B) differentiation theory. C) intermodal stimulation. D) intersensory theory.

Q: One surprising finding of infant face perception is that infants will look longer at A) attractive faces than unattractive ones. B) unattractive faces than attractive ones. C) upside-down faces than upright ones. D) faces with eyes closed rather than open.

Q: Describe a newborn's visual sensory capacity. How does a typical newborn respond to visual stimulation?

Q: What is kangaroo care? How is it used to foster development in preterm newborns?

Q: Describe the Apgar Scale, and explain how it is used.

Q: Terra is Rh-negative and her husband, Marcus, is Rh-positive. Advise Terra about the consequences of this blood type incompatibility.

Q: What is the most widely used potent teratogen? How does it affect prenatal development?

Q: Describe major prenatal milestones during the second trimester of pregnancy.

Q: Around the time of birth, fathers who are in contact with the mother and baby often show A) slight increases in estrogens. B) slight decreases in prolactin. C) moderate increases in androgens. D) slight increases in androgens.

Q: __________ provide the best estimate of a baby's ability to recover from the stress of birth. A) Neonatal Intensive Care Unit Network Neurobehavioral Scale scores B) Changes in neonatal assessment scores over the first week or two of life C) Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale scores D) Weight loss and weight gain

Q: T. Berry Brazelton's Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale evaluates A) a newborn's risk for developmental problems. B) the baby's ability to comply with parental commands. C) the newborn's reflexes, muscle tone, state changes, and responsiveness to stimulation. D) the baby's activity, alertness, and grimace.

Q: It takes about __________ months for color vision to become adultlike. A) two B) four C) six D) eight

Q: __________ is the least developed of a newborn baby's senses. A) Taste B) Sound C) Vision D) Touch

Q: Three month old Jefferson will probably listen longer to __________ than to __________. A) pure tones; voices B) pure tones; noises C) human speech; nonspeech sounds D) a foreign language; his native language

Q: At birth, newborns prefer __________ to __________. A) pure tones; noise B) pure tones; complex sounds C) pure tones; voices D) complex sounds; pure tones

Q: The smell of __________ causes a relaxed, pleasant facial expression in newborns. A) formula B) coffee C) chocolate D) anise

Q: Which of the following statements is supported by research on newborn taste preferences? A) Newborns cannot distinguish basic tastes. B) Not until 4 months do babies prefer a salty taste to plain water. C) Newborns prefer the taste of formula to breast milk. D) Unlike adults, babies relax their facial muscles in response to sour tastes.

Q: What advice can you offer parents who want to reduce their newborn son's discomfort during circumcision? A) Offer a sugar solution while gently holding the baby. B) Stimulate the Babinski reflex. C) Newborns have a low sensitivity to pain, so interventions are unnecessary. D) Play loud music to distract the baby.

Q: __________ helps stimulate early physical growth and is vital for emotional development as well. A) Sound B) Pain C) Touch D) Taste

Q: Which of the following statements is supported by research on colic? A) Colic is usually a sign of central nervous system damage. B) Infants with colic tend to have persistent low-pitched cries. C) Colic usually subsides between 3 and 6 weeks. D) Newborns who react especially strongly to unpleasant stimuli are at risk for colic.

Q: Swaddling newborns A) increases crying. B) hinders early motor development. C) promotes an insecure attachment relationship. D) reduces crying.

Q: The strategy most Western parents first try to soothe a crying baby is A) massaging the baby's body. B) offering a pacifier. C) playing recorded womb sounds. D) lifting the baby to the shoulder and rocking or walking.

Q: Healthy babies often cry A) at the sound of another crying baby. B) in shrill, piercing tones. C) because they are bored. D) all night long.

Q: __________ doubles the risk of SIDS. A) Failing to tightly swaddle an infant during sleep B) Using a pacifier C) Placing an infant to sleep on his back D) Maternal cigarette smoking

Q: Early medical records of SIDS babies reveal A) a family history of chromosomal abnormalities. B) higher rates of prematurity and low birth weight, poor Apgar scores, and limp muscle tone. C) they were born after their due date and had higher-than-average birth weights. D) they often cried or whimpered in their sleep.

Q: Newborn infants who are brain damaged or who have experienced birth trauma often A) display disturbed REM"NREM sleep cycles. B) cry less than those with no brain-functioning problems. C) spend about 20 percent of their total sleep time in REM sleep. D) have very low or inaudible cries.

Q: Which of the following individuals is the most likely to experience the greatest percentage of REM sleep? A) Sammy, a preschool child B) Jake, a full-term newborn C) Sarah, a teenager D) Cheryl, a preterm newborn

Q: Which of the following statements about REM sleep is true? A) REM sleep is vital for growth of the central nervous system. B) During REM sleep, the body is almost motionless. C) REM sleep accounts for 20 percent of a newborn baby's sleep time. D) During REM sleep, the heart rate, breathing, and brain-wave activity are slow and even.

Q: Baby Tyler's limb movements are gentle. He stirs occasionally and facial grimacing occurs. Although his eyelids are closed, occasional rapid eye movements can be seen beneath them. Tyler is most likely in which of the following states? A) regular sleep B) drowsiness C) irregular sleep D) quiet alertness

Q: Although newborns sleep more at night than during the day, their sleep"wake cycles are affected more by __________ than by __________. A) fullness"hunger; darkness"light B) darkness"light; wetness"dryness C) wetness"dryness; fullness"hunger D) wetness"dryness; darkness"light

Q: Reflexes can help caregivers comfort a baby because they A) are permanent, natural responses to stimulation. B) remind the infant of its life in the womb. C) reduce crying and promote sleep. D) permit infants to control distress and amount of stimulation.

Q: When Baby Ian is held horizontally on his back, he sometimes makes an "embracing" motion by arching his back, extending his legs, throwing his arms outward, and then bringing his arms in toward his body. Ian is demonstrating the A) palmar grasp. B) moro reflex. C) tonic neck reflex. D) Babinski reflex.

Q: In response to a stroke on her cheek near the corner of her mouth, newborn Azalea should A) quickly close her eyelids. B) suck rhythmically. C) turn her head toward the source of stimulation. D) fan her toes out and curl them as her foot twists in.

Q: The __________ reflex protects an infant from strong stimulation. A) moro B) eye blink C) sucking D) palmar grasp

Q: A __________ is an inborn, automatic response to a particular form of stimulation. A) reflex B) state of arousal C) shrill cry D) movement pattern

Q: Which of the following statements about the results of the Kauai study is true? A) Children born with serious birth complications will not grow into competent, well-adjusted adults unless they have supportive home environments. B) Even when the overall balance of life events tips toward the favorable side, children with serious birth problems rarely develop successfully. C) The impact of early biological risks often wanes as children's personal characteristics and social experiences contribute increasingly to their functioning. D) Children born with birth complications often develop severe behavioral problems regardless of their home environment.

Q: In the United States, the second leading cause of neonatal mortality is __________, which is largely preventable. A) low birth weight B) physical abnormality C) sudden infant death syndrome D) malnutrition

Q: The United States has the most up-to-date health care technology in the world and is currently ranked __________ in international infant mortality. A) first B) eighth C) eighteenth D) twenty-eighth

Q: Interventions that support parents of preterm infants A) generally teach them about the infant's characteristics and promote caregiving skills. B) are costly and ineffective. C) are rare in the United States. D) are primarily offered to low-SES parents.

Q: Kangaroo care A) involves placing a preterm infant in an enclosed isolette, which is similar to a kangaroo's pouch. B) is used only in developing countries where hospitalization is not always possible. C) involves placing the infant in a vertical position on the parent's chest, under the clothing, so the parent's body operates as a human incubator. D) prevents fathers from participating in caring for a preterm newborn.

Q: Small-for-date infants __________ than preterm infants. A) have chubbier cheeks and larger eyes B) are less likely to die C) more often show evidence of brain damage D) more often are held close, touched, and talked to gently

Q: Tiffany is a small-for-date baby. This means she A) was born several weeks or more before her due date. B) was born below her expected weight considering length of the pregnancy. C) will probably have much less serious problems than a preterm infant. D) may have difficulties in infancy but will outgrow them by the preschool years.

Q: Preterm infants A) are those born several weeks or more before their due date. B) include those born two weeks or more after their due date. C) usually have more serious problems than small-for-date infants. D) probably experienced inadequate nutrition before birth.

Q: __________ is the best available predictor of infant survival and healthy development. A) Birth length B) A combined Apgar score C) The delivery date D) Birth weight

Q: Vaginal birth after a previous cesarean delivery is A) a good choice because repeated cesareans are associated with an increased risk of uterine rupture. B) associated with slightly increased rates of rupture of the uterus and infant death. C) only recommended in high-risk pregnancies. D) less common with the invention of fetal monitoring.

Q: Epidural analgesia A) numbs the entire lower half of the body. B) prevents the mother from feeling the pressure of labor contractions. C) is the most common approach to controlling pain during labor. D) strengthens uterine contractions.

Q: __________, the stronger type of painkiller used in labor and delivery, block sensation. A) Anesthetics B) Analgesics C) Anti-inflammatories D) Folic acids

Q: During her labor, Renae asks for a mild dose of painkillers to help her relax. Renae will probably be given a(n) A) anesthetic. B) analgesic. C) folic acid. D) anti-inflammatory.

Q: Some form of medication is used in __________ percent of U.S. births. A) about 35 B) almost 50 C) about 70 D) more than 80

Q: Critics worry that fetal monitoring A) should not be used because it is a risky procedure. B) is not helpful in detecting hidden problems with the baby. C) identifies babies as in danger who, in fact, are not. D) increases the likelihood of infant brain damage.

Q: Fetal monitors A) measure the baby's blood oxygen levels during labor. B) track the baby's heart rate during labor. C) are linked to a decreased rate of cesarean deliveries. D) reduce the rate of infant brain damage and death in healthy pregnancies.

Q: About 10 percent of cases of cerebral palsy are the result of __________ during labor and delivery. A) an inadequate oxygen supply B) anesthetics C) epidural analgesia D) medical interventions

Q: A certified nurse"midwife A) cannot legally deliver a baby at home in most states. B) has a degree in nursing and additional training in childbirth management. C) can perform a cesarean delivery and can administer medication to control pain. D) is not a medical professional, but is trained in labor and delivery support.

Q: Mothers who __________ have fewer birth complications and shorter labors. A) are administered epidural analgesia during childbirth B) give birth at home C) are supported by a trained companion during childbirth D) choose cesarean delivery

Q: Natural childbirth experts Grantly Dick-Read and Fernand Lamaze recognized that cultural attitudes about childbirth had A) taught women to fear the birth experience. B) helped women develop breathing techniques to lessen the pain of labor. C) taught women that medical intervention was unnecessary in childbirth. D) helped women focus on childrearing rather than childbirth.

Q: Most freestanding birth centers A) encourage family participation, but do not allow maternal control over labor and delivery. B) do not allow family members and friends to participate in the birth. C) permit a choice of delivery positions. D) encourage childbirth medication and delivery instruments.

Q: Before the late 1800s, childbirth usually took place A) at home and was a family-centered event. B) at home, but away from other family members. C) in a hospital with trained midwives. D) in the home of a medical professional or in a hospital.

Q: Two Apgar ratings are given in the minutes following birth A) to help ensure high inter-rater reliability. B) because some babies have trouble adjusting immediately but do quite well after a few minutes. C) because the two scores are averaged to arrive at a more reliable assessment. D) because many babies who test well immediately rapidly decline in physical condition.

Q: Andrew received a combined Apgar score of 5. This means that Andrew A) is in good physical condition. B) needs assistance in establishing breathing and other vital signs. C) is in serious danger and should receive emergency medical attention. D) was in danger at birth, but quickly recovered and is now in good physical condition.

Q: The Apgar Scale rates A) appearance, personality, grimace, activity, and reflexes. B) aptitude, pulse, grimace, appearance, and renal function. C) appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, and respiration. D) airway, personality, general temperament, appearance, and reaction time.

Q: Which of the following statements about the newborn baby's appearance is true? A) Girls tend to be slightly longer and heavier than boys. B) Their round faces, chubby cheeks, and big eyes make adults feel like picking them up. C) The trunk is large in comparison to the head, and the legs are long and straight. D) On average, they are 18 inches long and 5 pounds in weight.

Q: Lily weighed 8 pounds and was 21 inches long at birth. Which of the following statements about her size is true? A) She was heavier but shorter than the average baby. B) She was heavier and longer than the average baby. C) She was lighter but longer than the average baby. D) She was lighter and shorter than the average baby.

Q: Which of the following statements about the infant's production of stress hormones during childbirth is true? A) Stress hormones cause the mother to breathe deeply, increasing the oxygen supply to the baby. B) Stress hormones activate certain neural pathways in the brain, causing the baby to be alert and actively work its way down the birth canal. C) Stress hormones cause the cervix to thin and the uterine wall to contract, forming a clear channel from the uterus into the birth canal. D) Stress hormones prepare the baby to breathe effectively by causing the lungs to absorb any remaining fluid and by expanding the bronchial tubes.

Q: The force of contractions during childbirth causes the infant to produce high levels of stress hormones that A) can lead to anoxia, or inadequate oxygen supply, during delivery. B) lead to irritability and digestive disturbances in newborns. C) cause infants' heart rate and activity level to become dangerously high during childbirth. D) help infants withstand oxygen deprivation during contractions by sending a rich supply of blood to the brain and heart.

Q: During the third stage of labor, A) the cervix thins to nothing. B) uterine contractions begin. C) the placenta is delivered. D) the baby is born.

Q: Ursula is in the second stage of labor. She can expect __________ during this stage. A) contractions of the uterus to begin gradually and become more frequent and powerful B) the placenta to separate from the uterine wall and be delivered C) the cervix to widen and thin to nothing D) her baby to be born

Q: The second stage of labor lasts A) an average of 12 to 14 hours with the first birth and 4 to 6 hours with later births. B) an average of 4 to 6 hours with the first birth and 20 to 50 minutes with later births. C) about 50 minutes for a first birth and 20 minutes with later births. D) about 5 to 10 minutes for a first birth and 90 minutes for later births.

Q: The longest stage of labor is the A) second, delivery of the baby. B) first, delivery of the placenta. C) third, delivery of the placenta. D) first, dilation and effacement of the cervix.

Q: Which of the following mothers is most likely to have had inadequate prenatal care? A) Harriet, who is single and 25 B) Marissa, who is married and 32 C) Rachel, who is single and 16 D) Janette, who is married and 40

Q: If untreated, toxemia can cause A) convulsions in the mother and fetal death. B) extra sugar in the mother's bloodstream. C) swelling of the fetus's face, hands, and feet. D) behavioral problems in adolescence.

Q: Samantha is a first-time expectant mother at age 35. You can tell her that healthy women in their thirties have __________ as those in their twenties. A) higher rates of pregnancy complications B) lower rates of miscarriage C) lower rates of pregnancy complications D) about the same rates of pregnancy complications

Q: When the inherited blood types of mother and fetus differ, the most common cause of difficulties is A) maternal age. B) Rh factor incompatibility. C) emotional stress. D) prenatal malnutrition.

Q: Twelve-year-old children of mothers who were home visited as part of the Nurse"Family Partnership __________ than comparison-group agemates. A) scored lower in impulsivity and overactivity B) had lower academic achievement scores C) showed more aggressive behavior D) reported less alcohol and drug use

Q: One of the goals of the Nurse"Family Partnership, currently implemented in hundreds of counties across 42 U.S. states, is to A) eradicate prenatal drug use. B) lessen the effects of teratogens on developing organisms. C) improve family conditions, thereby protecting children from lasting difficulties. D) provide family planning and genetic counseling.

Q: The effects of stress on the developing organism can be greatly reduced if the mother A) has access to social support during stressful periods. B) takes a low dose of antianxiety medication during pregnancy. C) takes a folic acid supplement. D) is placed on bed rest during the last trimester.

Q: Taking a __________ supplement around the time of conception greatly reduces by more than 70 percent abnormalities of the neural tube. A) folic acid B) weight-loss C) steroid D) Vitamin C

Q: Prenatally malnourished babies frequently A) reject breast milk. B) have enlarged hearts. C) have a higher-than-average birth weight. D) catch respiratory illnesses.