Q&A Hero

Q: The poorer the mother's diet, the __________, especially if malnutrition occurs during the last trimester. A) greater the birth weight B) greater the loss in brain weight C) greater the brain weight D) smaller the heart

Q: Dana is pregnant with her first child and wonders how much weight she should gain during the pregnancy. You should recommend a healthy diet that results in a weight gain of __________ pounds. A) 10 to 15 B) 15 to 25 C) 25 to 30 D) 45 to 50

Q: Frequent, vigorous exercise, especially late in pregnancy, results in A) increased birth weight. B) lower birth weight than in healthy, nonexercising controls. C) serious damage to the central nervous system. D) suppressed development of the immune system.

Q: To avoid exposure to toxoplasmosis, Kaye should ask other family members to A) stop smoking. B) pick up after the dogs. C) change the litter box. D) feed the fish.

Q: Untreated HIV-infected expectant mothers pass the deadly virus to the developing organism __________ percent of the time. A) 10 to 20 B) 20 to 30 C) 40 to 50 D) 80 to 90

Q: Which of the following statements about prenatal rubella is true? A) The greatest damage occurs when rubella strikes during the fetal period. B) The organ damage inflicted by prenatal rubella can lead to lifelong health problems in adulthood. C) Routine vaccination has made new rubella outbreaks extremely rare worldwide. D) Infection during the embryonic period is less harmful than during other prenatal periods.

Q: Men affected by even tiny amounts of dioxin in their bloodstream father A) nearly twice as many girls as boys. B) more boys than girls. C) more twins and triplets than unaffected men. D) fewer children than unaffected men.

Q: High levels of prenatal lead exposure are related to A) deformities of the gums and nails. B) difficulty in chewing and swallowing. C) breast and uterine cancers in women. D) prematurity, low birth weight, and brain damage.

Q: Regina eats a mostly vegetarian diet, but she eats a lot of fish. When she becomes pregnant, what should Regina know about environmental pollution in fish? A) Long-lived predatory fish, such as swordfish, albacore tuna, and shark, can be heavily contaminated with mercury. B) Fresh water fish, such as perch and trout, carry a startling array of industrial contaminants287 in all. C) While some fish are contaminated with polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs), steady, low-level PCB exposure is not harmful. D) Fish can be heavily contaminated with lead, exposure to which is related to prematurity and brain damage.

Q: Low-level radiation, resulting from industrial leakage or medical X-rays, A) is only harmful when combined with other teratogens. B) can increase the risk of childhood cancer. C) rarely causes lasting damage. D) is safe during the last trimester.

Q: About _____ percent of U.S. mothers report drinking at some time during their pregnancies. A) 10 B) 15 C) 20 D) 25

Q: The more alcohol a woman consumes during pregnancy, the A) poorer the child's intelligence and achievement test scores during the school years. B) greater the likelihood of ARND instead of FAS or p-FAS. C) higher the birth weight of the child. D) greater the child's speed of information processing.

Q: Recent evidence suggests that paternal alcohol use around the time of conception A) can cause fetal alcohol syndrome. B) has no negative effect on the developing organism. C) can cause alcohol-related neurodevelopment disorder. D) can alter gene expression.

Q: Which of the following statements about fetal alcohol syndrome is true? A) It is distinguished by rapid physical growth and facial abnormalities, but not cognitive impairment. B) It is distinguished by slow physical growth, a pattern of three facial abnormalities, and brain injury. C) It is extremely rare in the United States. D) The mental impairment associated with it is temporary.

Q: Maryann is pregnant and works in a smoke-filled environment. What can you tell her about passive smoking? A) The negative effects of smoking are only evident in children born to heavy smokers. B) Passive smoking is related to low birth weight, infant death, and childhood respiratory illnesses. C) Smoke-filled environments are harmful to expectant mothers, but not to their unborn children. D) The effects of passive smoking are not yet known.

Q: Adolescents prenatally exposed to smoking tend to have __________ than those born to mothers who did not smoke. A) higher levels of disruptive, aggressive behavior B) higher mental test scores C) longer attention spans D) earlier onset of puberty

Q: The best-known effect of smoking during the prenatal period is A) colic. B) high birth weight. C) low birth weight. D) delayed language development.

Q: Victoria is a pregnant smoker. Victoria is among the estimated _____ percent of American women who smoke during their pregnancies. A) 8 B) 14 C) 20 D) 26

Q: It is difficult to isolate the precise damage caused by illegal drugs during pregnancy because A) most drug-using mothers refuse to participate in teratology research. B) the majority of babies born to drug-using mothers do not survive for more than a few days. C) most drug-using mothers quit during the first trimester of pregnancy. D) drug-using mothers often take several drugs, display other high-risk behaviors, and suffer from poverty and other stresses.

Q: Mateo was born prematurely to Yvonne, a cocaine addict. Mateo's caregivers can expect that A) he will have characteristics of Down syndrome. B) his cries might be abnormally shrill and piercing. C) he will overcome the harmful effects of drug exposure by age 3. D) his motor development will be especially rapid during the first year.

Q: Willa gets regular headaches. While pregnant, Willa begins using aspirin to ease the pain because she is convinced that aspirin is harmless. Which of the following effects can Willa's regular aspirin use have on the developing organism? A) None. Aspirin use is completely safe during pregnancy. B) Aspirin can cause gross deformities of the arms and legs during the embryonic period. C) Regular aspirin use is linked to low birth weight and poorer motor development. D) Even moderate aspirin use is linked to elevated incidence of birth complications, including respiratory distress.

Q: Currently, the most widely used potent teratogen is A) aspirin. B) diethylstilbestrol (DES). C) thalidomide. D) Accutane.

Q: Which of the following statements about prenatal sensitive periods with respect to teratogens is true? A) The fetal period is the time when serious defects are most likely to occur. B) During the embryonic period, teratogens usually affect the growth of sensory organs, such as the eyes and ears. C) In the period of the zygote, before implantation, teratogens rarely have any impact. D) During the fetal period, teratogens have no impact on the developing organism.

Q: Which of the following statements about the harm done by teratogens is true? A) Passive smoking is rarely harmful to the developing fetus. B) The genetic makeup of the mother and the developing organism plays an important role. C) The negative impact of teratogens is usually reversible. D) The most serious defects occur in the period of the zygote.

Q: The effects of teratogens A) are predictable and straightforward. B) are usually the most serious during the fetal period. C) vary with the age of the organism at the time of exposure. D) are always detectible at birth.

Q: The term teratogenrefers to A) any environmental agent that causes damage during the prenatal period. B) a limited time span during which a part of the body is biologically prepared to develop rapidly. C) a rapid period of prenatal neurological development. D) a synthetic hormone used to prevent miscarriage.

Q: In the last weeks of pregnancy, A) the fetus usually loses a pound or two. B) most fetuses assume an upside-down position. C) fetal growth increases dramatically. D) the fetus begins relying on its own well-developed immune system.

Q: In the final month of pregnancy, A) fetal growth doubles. B) a layer of fat is added to assist with temperature regulation. C) most fetuses assume an upright position. D) neurons are produced at a rapid rate.

Q: In one study, more active fetuses during the third trimester became 2-year-olds who A) were easily overwhelmed by sensory stimulation. B) had trouble establishing a regular sleep"wake pattern. C) had irregular eating schedules. D) were less fearful.

Q: A baby born between the seventh and eighth months of pregnancy A) is just as healthy as a full-term baby. B) usually needs oxygen assistance to breathe. C) only has about a 10 percent survival rate. D) is considered small-for-date.

Q: Viability occurs between __________ weeks. A) 18 and 21 B) 22 and 26 C) 27 and 30 D) 31 and 36

Q: While the senses of __________ have begun to emerge by 20 weeks, a fetus born at this time cannot survive because __________. A) sight and sound; its brain cannot yet control breathing and body temperature B) touch and sight; the billions of neurons of its brain are not yet produced C) smell and sound; the cerebral cortex, the seat of human intelligence, is too large D) sight and sound; the neurons of its brain have not begun forming synapses

Q: Lanugo A) permits food and oxygen to reach the organism. B) provides the fetus a cushion against jolts caused by the mother's movements. C) helps regulate the fetus's body temperature. D) is a white, downy hair that covers the fetus's entire body.

Q: By the middle of the second trimester, the A) new being has grown large enough that the mother can feel its movements. B) development of the cerebral cortex is nearly complete. C) fetus reaches the age of viability. D) production of glial cells is nearly complete.

Q: Katie wonders when she will first be able to hear her fetus's heartbeat through a stethoscope. You tell her that this should happen by the A) fourth week of pregnancy. B) third month. C) end of the second trimester. D) beginning of the third trimester.

Q: By the __________ week of pregnancy, Monica will be able to learn the sex of her fetus. A) second B) fourth C) eighth D) twelfth

Q: During the __________ month of pregnancy, the embryo responds to touch. A) second B) third C) fifth D) seventh

Q: By the end of Greta's first month of pregnancy, her embryo A) can sense its world. B) is about inch long. C) can suck its thumb. D) can curl its toes.

Q: The __________ folds over to form the __________, which will become the spinal cord and brain. A) mesoderm; neuron tract B) ectoderm; neural tube C) endoderm; neural tube D) ectoderm; neuron tract

Q: At the beginning of the embryonic period, the __________ system develops fastest. A) circulatory B) endocrine C) digestive D) nervous

Q: During the period of the embryo, the __________ becomes the __________. A) mesoderm; nervous system, lungs, internal organs, and skin B) chorion; endocrine system, muscles, placenta, and skeleton C) ectoderm; circulatory system, skin, skeleton, and internal organs D) endoderm; digestive system, lungs, urinary tract, and glands

Q: The __________ eventually becomes the muscles, skeleton, circulatory system, and other internal organs. A) mesoderm B) chorion C) endoderm D) ectoderm

Q: The most rapid prenatal changes take place in the period of the A) zygote. B) blastocyst. C) embryo. D) fetus.

Q: The umbilical cord A) appears as a tiny stalk and eventually grows to a length of 6 to 12 inches. B) contains one large artery that delivers nutrients to the embryo. C) connects the placenta to the developing organism. D) permits the blood of the mother and the embryo to mix directly.

Q: The placenta A) forms in the second trimester of pregnancy. B) encloses the developing organism in amniotic fluid. C) contains one large vein that delivers nutrients to the embryo. D) delivers food and oxygen to the developing organism.

Q: As many as _____ percent of zygotes do not survive the first two weeks. A) 20 B) 30 C) 40 D) 50

Q: The amniotic fluid A) delivers food and oxygen to the developing organism. B) helps keep the temperature of the prenatal world constant. C) delivers nutrients and removes waste products. D) produces blood cells until the organs are mature enough to take over this function.

Q: The amnion A) develops into the nervous system and the skin. B) surrounds the chorion. C) contains one large vein that delivers blood to the developing organism. D) encloses the developing organism in amniotic fluid.

Q: Which of the following statements about a blastocyst is true? A) It consists of a single cell. B) It is a structure that feeds the developing organism. C) Between the seventh and ninth day, it burrows deep into the uterine lining. D) It is a membrane that helps to keep the temperature of the prenatal world constant.

Q: Following fertilization, a one-celled __________ multiplies and forms a __________. A) embryo; fetus B) blastocyst; embryo C) zygote; blastocyst D) blastocyst; zygote

Q: The embryonic disc A) becomes the new organism. B) is the outer ring of cells on a blastocyst. C) has a good chance of survival outside the womb. D) is a protective membrane that surrounds the amnion.

Q: The outer ring of cells on a blastocyst, termed the trophoblast, will become the A) new organism. B) structures that provide protective covering and nourishment. C) embryonic disk. D) embryo.

Q: The male produces sperm in the __________, two glands located in the __________. A) penis; scrotum B) scrotum; penis C) testes; penis D) testes; scrotum

Q: The male produces an average of __________ sperm a day, yet only __________ reach the ovum. A) 300 to 500; 1 to 10 B) 1 million; 10 to 50 C) 1 million; 300 to 500 D) 300 million; 300 to 500

Q: The __________ secretes hormones that prepare the lining of the uterus to receive a fertilized ovum. A) corpus luteum B) fallopian tubes C) cervix D) embryo

Q: An ovum bursts from one of a woman's two __________ and is drawn into one of two __________. A) ovaries; testes B) fallopian tubes; ovaries C) corpus luteum; fallopian tubes D) ovaries; fallopian tubes

Q: One reason that the majority of children prenatally exposed to nicotine are at high risk for learning and behavior problems is that the DD genotype is A) rare. B) the only gene that contributes to ADHD symptoms. C) widespread. D) impossible to study.

Q: A study of maternal smoking during pregnancy and the DD genotype revealed that A) by itself, the DD genotype was related to impulsivity, overactivity, and oppositional behavior. B) children whose mothers had smoked during pregnancy scored lower than children of nonsmokers in impulsivity. C) children whose mothers had smoked during pregnancy scored lower than children of nonsmokers in overactivity. D) children whose mothers had smoked during pregnancy scored higher than children of nonsmokers in impulsivity, overactivity, and oppositional behavior.

Q: Animal evidence suggests that one reason for an inconsistency in results from studies regarding the risk of attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) in individuals who are homozygous for a chromosome-5 gene (DD) may be that A) there are no environmental influences associated with ADHD. B) environmental influences associated with ADHD modify the gene's activity. C) the gene has no role in the occurrence of ADHD symptoms. D) the DD genotype is only present in about 10 percent of the population.

Q: According to the concept of epigenesis, A) heredity determines individual responsiveness to varying environments. B) gene"environment correlation is entirely driven by genetics. C) development results from ongoing, bidirectional exchanges between heredity and the environment. D) heredity restricts the development of some behaviors.

Q: Which of the following concepts places the most emphasis on bidirectional exchanges between heredity and the environment? A) range of reaction B) canalization C) epigenesis D) niche-picking

Q: Accumulating evidence reveals that the relationship between heredity and the environment is A) biased toward genetic factors. B) unidirectional. C) bidirectional. D) biased toward environmental factors.

Q: The concept of __________ helps explain why pairs of identical twins reared apart during childhood and later reunited may find that they have similar hobbies, food preferences, and vocations. A) passive gene"environment correlation B) gene therapy C) evocative gene"environment correlation D) niche-picking

Q: Which age group is likely to do more niche-picking? A) adolescents B) preschoolers C) infants D) toddlers

Q: Emma, an intellectually curious child, is a familiar patron at her local library. This is an example of A) passive gene"environment correlation. B) niche-picking. C) evocative gene"environment correlation. D) canalization.

Q: Anthony, a well-coordinated and muscular boy, decides to play high school football. This is an example of a(n) __________ gene"environment correlation. A) active B) passive C) dynamic D) evocative

Q: __________ gene"environment correlation becomes common at older ages. A) Passive B) Active C) Evocative D) Stagnant

Q: Angela, a cooperative and attentive child, receives more patient and sensitive interactions from her parents than Carlos, who is inattentive and hyper. This is an example of a(n) __________ gene"environment correlation. A) active B) evocative C) dynamic D) passive

Q: Bart and Nadia are gymnasts. Their son, 4-year-old Dylan, participates in children's gymnastics. This is an example of A) range of reaction. B) an evocative correlation. C) an active correlation. D) a passive correlation.

Q: According to the concept of __________, our genes influence the environments to which we are exposed. A) canalization B) gene"environment correlation C) heritability estimation D) natural selection

Q: __________ is a strongly canalized skill. A) Playing the piano B) Swimming C) Doing crossword puzzles D) Walking

Q: Which of the following is strongly canalized? A) personality B) intelligence C) infant motor development D) athletic ability

Q: If a behavior is strongly canalized, then A) it is relatively unaffected by genetic influences. B) only powerful environmental forces can change it. C) only extreme genetic factors can modify it. D) it is easily modifiable.

Q: According to the concept of gene"environment interaction, A) people respond similarly to the same qualities of the environment. B) people have unique, genetically influenced reactions to particular experiences. C) people with different gene"environment combinations never respond similarly. D) heredity restricts the development of some characteristics to just one or a few outcomes.

Q: Heritability estimates A) are likely to exaggerate the role of the environment. B) are difficult to misapply. C) cannot be used to study complex traits, such as intelligence and personality. D) are likely to exaggerate the role of heredity.

Q: Because the environments of most twin pairs are less diverse than those of the general population, it is often difficult to A) generalize heritability findings to the whole population. B) generate reaction ranges. C) conduct kinship studies. D) determine heritability estimates.

Q: Twin studies of schizophrenia A) fail to demonstrate a strong genetic link. B) yield unreliable heritabilities, ranging from .20 to .75. C) consistently yield high heritabilities, around .80. D) consistently yield low heritabilities, around .30.

Q: Research on heritability suggests that A) heritability of personality does not increase over the lifespan. B) genetic factors play only a minimal role in personality. C) heritability of personality increases drastically over the lifespan. D) heritability of intelligence does not increase over the lifespan.

Q: Dr. Rudy wants to compare the characteristics of family members. What kind of research method would you recommend that Dr. Rudy use? A) a kinship study B) a case study C) a structured observation D) a passive correlation

Q: A growing number of researchers regard the question of how much heredity and environment contribute to differences among people as A) unanswerable. B) mainly answered by DNA. C) unimportant. D) easily answered with kinship studies.