Q&A Hero

Q: Jasmine and her fetus are Rh incompatible. This means that: A. the fetus will need a blood transfusion immediately after birth. B. the fetus' immune system will attack the mother's blood during the fetal stage. C. Jasmine has type A blood, whereas her fetus has type B blood. D.

Q: The most common treatment for heroin addiction, methadone, is associated with: A. very low birth weight in newborns. B. very severe withdrawal symptoms in newborns. C. lower intelligence in children. D.

Q: It is well documented that infants whose mothers are addicted to _____ show several behavioral difficulties at birth, which include withdrawal symptoms such as tremors, irritability, abnormal crying, disturbed sleep, and impaired motor control. A. methamphetamine B. nicotine C. marijuana D.

Q: Which of the following statements is true about the effects of marijuana exposure on ones offspring? A. Research has concluded that marijuana use by pregnant women is associated with memory deficits in their offspring. B. Research has indicated that mothers who use marijuana while pregnant have a higher risk of having a child who develops depression by age 10. C. Research has shown that mothers who use marijuana while pregnant risk their offspring using marijuana by age 14. D.

Q: Which of the following statements is FALSE about the effect of substance abuse by pregnant mothers? A. Infants whose mothers are addicted to heroin show several behavioral difficulties at birth, including withdrawal symptoms. B. Prenatal marijuana exposure is related to higher intelligence in children. C. Use of methamphetamine during pregnancy increases risk of low birth weight in offspring. D.

Q: Which of the following is true about the effects of cocaine use by pregnant women? A. Cocaine exposure during prenatal development is associated with increased birth weight. B. Prenatal cocaine exposure has been linked to higher arousal. C. Cocaine exposure during prenatal development is associated with reduced length and head circumference. D.

Q: Which of the following statements about cocaine use during pregnancy is true? A. Cocaine quickly crosses the placenta to reach the fetus. B. Cocaine is broken down in the mother's bloodstream before it can reach the fetus. C. Cocaine molecules are too large to pass through the placenta. D.

Q: Prenatal cocaine exposure has been linked to all of the following EXCEPT: A. less effective self-regulation. B. lower quality of reflexes at 1 month of age. C. increased head circumference and lower excitability. D.

Q: According to recent research, which of the following risks is linked to environmental tobacco smoke? A. Reduced head circumference B. Withdrawal symptoms C. Lower quality reflexes at 1 month of age D.

Q: Alicia is pregnant and is a heavy smoker. Which of the following risks does her baby face? A. Facial and limb deformities B. Sudden infant death syndrome C. Cleft palate D.

Q: Which of the following is a consequence of maternal smoking during pregnancy? A. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder B. High birth weight C. Autism D.

Q: Which of the following is the U.S. Surgeon General's recommendation regarding alcohol intake during pregnancy? A. It is wise to consume alcohol in moderation at the time of conception. B. One or two servings of beer or wine a few days a week can have positive effects on the fetus. C. No alcohol should be consumed during pregnancy. D.

Q: Which of the following is recommended for pregnant women by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration? A. Pregnant women should consume no caffeine or consume it only sparingly. B. Pregnant women can consume as much caffeine as they want in chocolate but not in coffee. C. Pregnant women can safely drink three cups of coffee each day after the third month of pregnancy. D.

Q: _____ act on the nervous system to alter states of consciousness, modify perceptions, and change moods. A. Antiemetics B. Biofeedback therapies C. Antihypertensives D.

Q: During which period of development is the unborn baby most at risk of developing a structural defect due to the effects of a teratogen? A. At conception B. During the germinal period C. During the embryonic period D.

Q: Which of the following statements is true about the impact of teratogens? A. Very few fetuses are exposed to teratogens, so it is easy to determine which teratogen causes which defect. B. Fetuses are safe from the effects of teratogens during the first trimester. C. Teratogens cause anatomical defects only after organogenesis is complete. D.

Q: A teratogen is any agent that can cause: A. organogenesis. B. birth defects. C. fetal movement. D.

Q: "Teratogen" comes from the Greek word "tera", which means "_____". A. deformed B. monster C. earth D.

Q: Neuronal migration occurs approximately _____ weeks after conception. A. 1 to 8 B. 3 to 12 C. 4 to 15 D.

Q: Sarah is a 20-year-old college student who is paralyzed from the waist down. She can walk with difficulty using crutches, but prefers her wheelchair. Sarah tells you that her condition is due to a birth defect that occurs when the neural tube fails to close during gestation. Which of the following birth defects does Sarah most likely have? A. Anencephaly B. Neuronal migration C. Multiple sclerosis D.

Q: At the peak of neurogenesis, it is estimated that as many as _____ neurons are being generated every minute. A. 500 B. 3,000 C. 10,000 D.

Q: A strategy that can help to prevent neural tube defects is for women to take: A. food rich in vitamin C. B. adequate amounts of the vitamin B folic acid. C. medication for diabetes. D.

Q: _____ and _____ are the two birth defects that occur when the neural tube fails to close 24 days after conception. A. Down syndrome; Tay-Sachs disease B. Trisomy 13; Trisomy 18 C. Spina bifida; anencephaly D.

Q: By the time babies are born, they have approximately _____ neurons. A. 10 million B. 200 million C. 1 billion D.

Q: Uma has just given birth. Assuming that the baby is perfectly average, and was born in the U.S., he is most likely to weigh _____ pounds, and would be approximately _____ inches long. A. 7 pounds; 20 inches B. 6 pounds; 18 inches C. 5 pounds; 15 inches D.

Q: Petra is in the fourth month of her pregnancy. Her unborn child is now referred to as a _____. A. gamete B. zygote C. fetus D.

Q: During pregnancy, which of the following organs or systems are the first to develop? A. Visual system B. Spinal cord C. Urogenital system D.

Q: Sidney is expecting her first child. She has recently begun to feel the fetus kicking. Sidneys current stage of pregnancy would fall under which of the following periods of prenatal development? A. Embryonic period B. Fetal period C. Germinal period D.

Q: The fetus that Calista is carrying has reached the age of viability, meaning that it has a chance of surviving outside of the womb. Therefore, it can be inferred that Calista is _____ weeks pregnant. A. 4 to 8 B. 16 to 18 C. 24 to 25 D.

Q: By the end of the fourth month of pregnancy, the fetus measures approximately _____ inches. A. 3 B. 6 C. 8 D.

Q: Tara has just entered the fetal period. Therefore, it has been _____ months since conception. A. two B. three C. four D.

Q: During the fourth week of prenatal development, the urogenital system becomes apparent, and _____ emerge. A. fingernails and toenails B. hair and eyelashes C. arm and leg buds D.

Q: The process of organ development during the first two months of prenatal development is known as _____. A. organogenesis B. spermatogenesis C. urogenesis D.

Q: Which of the following substances is a large molecule that would NOT be able to pass through the placental wall? A. Salt B. Water C. Hormones D.

Q: Which of the following is a small molecule that would be able to pass through the placental wall? A. Red blood cells B. Carbon dioxide C. Hormones D.

Q: The _____ provides an environment that is temperature and humidity controlled, as well as shockproof. A. placental wall B. pericardial fluid C. umbilical cord D.

Q: The _____ is like a bag or envelope, and contains a clear fluid in which the developing embryo floats. A. placenta B. umbilical cord C. amnion D.

Q: The _____ prevents large molecules like red blood cells and harmful substances, such as most bacteria and maternal wastes, from entering the fetus. A. umbilical cord B. placental wall C. amniotic sheath D.

Q: The structure that contains two arteries and one vein, and connects the developing embryo to the mother's body, is called the _____. A. amnion B. placenta C. embryo D.

Q: The _____ consists of a group of tissues in which small blood vessels from the mother and offspring intertwine, but do not connect. A. amnion B. placenta C. embryo D.

Q: The life-support systems for the embryo include the: A. umbilical cord, placenta, and amnion. B. circulatory, nervous, and digestive systems. C. digestive system, umbilical cord, and amnion. D.

Q: The _____ is a layer of the embryo, which will become the nervous system and brain, sensory receptors, and skin parts. A. mesoderm B. ectoderm C. trophoblast D.

Q: The _____ is a layer of the embryo, which will become the circulatory system, bones, muscles, excretory system, and reproductive system. A. endoderm B. ectoderm C. mesoderm D.

Q: The middle layer of the embryo is called the _____. A. mesoderm B. cytoderm C. endoderm D.

Q: The outermost layer of the embryo is called the _____. A. mesoderm B. cytoderm C. endoderm D.

Q: The embryo's _____ develops into the digestive and respiratory systems. A. ectoderm B. endoderm C. trophoblast D.

Q: The inner layer of cells of the embryo is referred to as the: A. mesoderm. B. epidermis. C. endometrium. D.

Q: The _____ consists of three layers of cells: the endoderm, the mesoderm, and the ectoderm. A. blastocyst B. fetus C. embryo D.

Q: Five weeks after conception, the developing organism is called a(n) _____. A. blastocyst B. zygote C. fetus D.

Q: Cell differentiation intensifies and organs appear in the _____ period of prenatal development. A. embryonic B. zygotic C. fetal D.

Q: The attachment of the blastocyst to the uterine wall begins the _____ period of prenatal development. A. germinal B. embryonic C. fetal D.

Q: Carla is three-and-a-half weeks pregnant. This indicates that her child is in which of the following stages of prenatal development? A. Embryonic B. Fetal C. Placental D.

Q: Which of the following is a feature of the embryonic period of prenatal development? A. The creation of the fertilized egg. B. Formation of the blastocyst. C. The attachment of the zygote to the uterine wall. D.

Q: Implantation, the attachment of the zygote to the uterine wall, takes place about _____ days after conception. A. 6 to 8 B. 8 to 10 C. 11 to 15 D.

Q: The _____ is the outer layer of cells of the blastocyst that later provides nutrition and support for the embryo. A. ectoderm B. perineum C. cytocyst D.

Q: The blastocyst is composed of an inner layer of cells that develops during the germinal period and that will finally develop into the _____. A. embryo B. placenta C. umbilical cord D.

Q: The _____ consists of an inner mass of cells that eventually develops into an embryo. A. trophoblast B. blastocyst C. endoblast D.

Q: _____ refers to the attachment of the zygote to the uterine wall. A. Implantation B. Conception C. Fertilization D.

Q: Voletta is at the stage of pregnancy where the zygote has attached itself to the uterine wall. This scenario indicates the _____ stage of prenatal development. A. embryonic B. postpartum C. germinal D.

Q: An egg is fertilized in the _____ period of prenatal development. A. fetal B. embryonic C. implantation D.

Q: The germinal period of development takes place in the _____ after conception. A. first two weeks B. first two months C. first three months D.

Q: Rachel is in the first period of prenatal development. This scenario indicates the _____ of prenatal development. A. fetal period B. embryonic period C. implantation period D.

Q: Which of the following identifies the order of the three periods of prenatal development in the correct sequence? A. Fertile; embryonic; postterm B. Preterm; germinal; postterm C. Gestational; germinal; postnatal D.

Q: Typical prenatal development lasts between: A. 38 to 40 weeks. B. 24 to 30 weeks. C. 28 to 33 weeks. D.

Q: _____ occurs when a single sperm cell from the male unites with an ovum (egg) in the female's fallopian tube in a process called fertilization. A. Ovulation B. Meiosis C. Conception D.

Q: Summer and Clark are considering undergoing fertility treatments. What is one of the main risk factors that the couple must be aware of while weighing their options? A. High birth weight in babies conceived through such treatments. B. An increase in the possibility of multiple births when such treatments are used. C. Negative psychological impact on children conceived through such treatments. D.

Q: David and Kelly are seeking help for infertility. Under their physician's guidance, they decide to undergo a procedure in which Kelly's eggs are combined in a laboratory dish with her husband's sperms. What is this procedure called? A. Gamete transfer B. Intracytoplasmic sperm injection C. Zygote intrafallopian transfer D.

Q: By far the most common high-tech assisted reproduction technique used is _____. A. artificial insemination B. in vitro fertilization C. spermatogenesis D.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a possible explanation for infertility in a woman? A. Abnormal ova B. Blocked fallopian tubes C. Eggs lack motility D.

Q: Don and Ellie are trying to conceive a baby. How long should they wait before they suspect infertility? A. 3 months B. 12 months C. 18 months D.

Q: _____ mainly focuses on the isolation and examination of fetal cells circulating in the mother's blood and analysis of cell-free fetal DNA in maternal plasma. A. Amniocentesis B. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) C. Noninvasive prenatal diagnosis (NIPD) D.

Q: The current maternal blood-screening test is called the triple screen because: A. it is performed three times. B. it diagnoses three diseases. C. it measures three substances in the mother's blood. D.

Q: Which of the following statements regarding chorionic villus sampling (CVS) and amniocentesis is true? A. Both CVS and amniocentesis provide valuable information about the presence of birth defects. B. Both CVS and amniocentesis increase the risk of miscarriage. C. Both CVS and amniocentesis increase the risk of limb deformities in the fetus. D.

Q: Amniocentesis brings a small risk of: A. mental retardation. B. limb deformity. C. miscarriage. D.

Q: Identify a risk related to the use of chorionic villus sampling (CVS) as a prenatal diagnostic test. A. Limb deformity B. Spina bifida C. Down syndrome D.

Q: Which of the following is the vascular organ that links the fetus to the mother's uterus? A. Fallopian tube B. Ovary C. Placenta D.

Q: Esperanza is having a prenatal test to remove a small sample of the placenta for genetic testing. Identify the test that her doctor is performing. A. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) B. Amniocentesis C. Noninvasive prenatal diagnosis (NIPD) D.

Q: _____ uses a powerful magnet and radio images to generate detailed images of the body's organs and structures. A. Triple screen B. MRI C. Ultrasound sonography D.

Q: _____ refers to a form of mental retardation involving an abnormally small brain. A. Spina bifida B. Klinefelter syndrome C. Hemophilia D.

Q: Gwendolyn is having a prenatal test where her doctor uses high-frequency sound waves directed into her abdomen to check her fetus. She is most likely having a(n) _____. A. chorionic villus sampling B. triple screen C. amniocentesis D.