Q&A Hero

Q: The interval from new Moon to first quarter is about a(n) A) hour. B) day. C) week. D) month. E) year.

Q: The time for the Moon to orbit Earth, relative to the stars is A) 23 hours, 56 minutes. B) about 7 days. C) 27.3 days. D) 29.5 days. E) 18 years, 11.3 days.

Q: If you are in the Moon's umbral shadow, then you are witnessing A) nighttime. B) a total solar eclipse. C) a total lunar eclipse. D) a partial solar eclipse. E) some kind of lunar eclipse.

Q: What will occur when the full moon is on the ecliptic? A) a total lunar eclipse B) a total solar eclipse C) a partial solar eclipse D) an annular lunar eclipse E) a partial lunar eclipse if the Moon is at perigee

Q: A solar eclipse can only happen during a A) new moon. B) solstice. C) first quarter moon. D) full moon. E) perihelion passage of the Sun.

Q: If new moon fell on March 2nd, what is the Moon's phase on March 14th? A) waxing crescent B) first quarter C) waxing gibbous D) full E) waning crescent

Q: If the Moon appears half lit, and is almost overhead about 6:00 AM, its phase is A) waxing crescent. B) first quarter. C) full. D) third quarter. E) waning crescent.

Q: The synodic month is A) 29.5 days. B) about two days shorter than the sidereal month. C) based on the Moon's position relative to the stars. D) the basis of the year we use in our modern calendar. E) caused by both the Earth's and Moon's rotations.

Q: If you are in the Earth's umbra on the Earth's surface, then A) it must be a total solar eclipse. B) it must be a lunar eclipse of some type. C) it is night time. D) the Sun is always visible. E) the Moon is always visible.

Q: In an annular eclipse, A) the Sun is totally blocked by the Moon. B) the Moon is totally blocked by the Earth. C) the Moon appears as a thin, bright ring. D) the Sun appears as a thin, bright ring. E) the Sun is partially blocked by the Earth.

Q: The greatest distance above or below the ecliptic the Moon can move is A) 5.2 degrees. B) 23.5 degrees. C) 27.3 degrees. D) 29.5 degrees. E) 30 degrees.

Q: The star Wolf 1061 has a parallax of 2.34 arc seconds, while the star Ross 652 has a parallax of 1.70 arc seconds. What can you correctly conclude? A) Both stars are outside the Milky Way galaxy. B) Wolf 1061 must have a larger proper motion than Ross 652. C) Ross 652 must have a larger proper motion than Wolf 1061. D) Ross 652 is closer to Earth than Wolf 1061. E) Wolf 1061 is closer to Earth than Ross 652.

Q: Drawing on Eratosthenes' method, if two observers are due north and south of each other and are separated by 400 km, what is the circumference of their spherical world if they see the same star on their meridian at altitudes of 23 degrees and 47 degrees respectively, and at the exact same time? A) 2,000 km B) 4,000 km C) 6,000 km D) 8,000 km E) 12,000 km

Q: In the scientific method, it is not necessary to test your theory.

Q: Increasing the baseline will increase the parallax angle.

Q: The parallax shift for all stars is very small.

Q: The larger the parallax shift, the closer an object is to us.

Q: A total solar eclipse will only occur when the new moon is both on the ecliptic and at its greatest distance from Earth.

Q: Eighteen days past new moon, the Moon's phase is waning gibbous.

Q: There is a solar eclipse of some kind every new moon.

Q: If we are the Moon's penumbra, then we will see a partial lunar eclipse.

Q: Only people in the Moon's umbral shadow can see a total solar eclipse.

Q: From full moon to third quarter moon takes about a week.

Q: As it orbits the Earth, the Moon appears to move its own diameter (0.5 degrees) eastward every hour against the background stars.

Q: At the equinoxes, the declination of the Sun must be zero degrees.

Q: At the solstices, the Sun's declination will be 23.5 degrees from the equator.

Q: From Earth, the Sun and Moon have about the same angular diameter.

Q: An hour of right ascension corresponds to 60 degrees in the sky.

Q: There are 3,600 arc seconds in a degree.

Q: The vernal equinox marks the beginning of spring in the northern hemisphere.

Q: The sidereal day is determined by the Earth's rotation with respect to the stars.

Q: A tropical year is the same as a sidereal year.

Q: A star with a right ascension of 2.6 hrs will rise 2.6 hours after the vernal equinox.

Q: Over 20,000 stars are visible to the naked eye on the darkest, clearest nights.

Q: The closest terrestrial analog to hours of right ascension is angle of longitude.

Q: Constellations are close clusters of stars, all at about the same distance from the Sun.

Q: In general, the brightest star in a given constellation is designated as alpha.

Q: The south celestial pole is located at a declination of -90 degrees.

Q: In the sky, declination is measured in degrees north or south of the celestial equator.

Q: The celestial sphere is divided into 88 modern constellations.

Q: Latitude and right ascension are coordinate systems used to find objects on the celestial sphere.

Q: Right ascension in the sky is very similar to latitude on the Earth.

Q: Discuss the advantages of obtaining foods grown locally versus globally.

Q: What is meant by a person's "food footprint", and how is it determined?

Q: Discuss the environmental impact of raising livestock.

Q: Discuss the effects of water misuse in agricultural production.

Q: Discuss how biodiversity is changing and how this affects food production.

Q: List 3 ways the food industry could substantially reduce fossil fuel use and still remain sustainable.

Q: Discuss the magnitude and impact of food waste.

Q: What are the characteristics associated with acute and chronic malnutrition in children?

Q: Compare and contrast the features of kwashiorkor and marasmus.

Q: Discuss issues related to specific nutrient deficiencies in the developing world.

Q: How does population growth contribute directly and indirectly to hunger?

Q: Discuss the role of modern-day political crises as the primary cause of worldwide food shortages.

Q: Explain how the provision of food to hungry poor people lowers their risk for obesity.

Q: List and discuss the causes of hunger in the United States. What population groups are most vulnerable?

Q: Define the subcategories of food security and food insecurity.

Q: a. 1.4 k. Famine b. 7 l. Methane c. 8 m. Irrigation d. 20 n. Dead zones e. 25 o. Poverty f. 85.5 p. Sustainable g. 100 q. SNAP h. 300 r. Food insecurity i. 1500 s. Feeding America j. Fossil t. ORT 1)Intermittent hunger caused by lack of money 2)The primary cause of hunger 3)USDA program aimed at preventing or remediating domestic malnutrition and hunger for the poor 4)Name of the largest national food recovery program 5)Approximate number, in billions, of people in the world 6)Extreme scarcity of food 7)How much more pesticides are used to produce a meat-based diet than a vegetarian diet 8)Treatment for diarrhea-related dehydration 9)Percentage of the world€s population with iron-deficiency anemia 10)Number of children, in millions, under age 5 with vitamin A deficiency 11)Percentage of the U.S. population classified as €food secure€ 12)Coal is an example of this type of fuel 13)Produced in large quantities by cows 14)This source of water for crops increases the salinity of the soil 15)Oxygen-depleted areas of bodies of water in which marine life cannot survive 16)Number of pounds of grain needed to produce one pound of beef weight gain 17)Percentage of energy used in the U.S. that is consumed by the food industry 18)Number of barrels of oil, in millions, wasted as a result of food waste 19)Term that describes using resources at a replaceable rate with no net accumulation of pollution 20)Number of miles, on average, a food item is transported before it is eaten

Q: ____________________ is a paste made of local commodities such as peanut butter and powdered milk and fortified with vitamins and minerals and used to rehabilitate children with uncomplicated, severe acute malnutrition.

Q: Severe malnutrition characterized by poor growth, dramatic weight loss, loss of body fat and muscle, and apathy is called ____________________.

Q: Severe malnutrition characterized by failure to grow and develop, edema, changes in the pigmentation of hair and skin, fatty liver, anemia, and apathy is called ____________________

Q: Malnutrition caused by recent severe food restriction; characterized in children by underweight for height (wasting) is called ____________________ malnutrition.

Q: Of the world’s 7 billion people, ____________________ percent have no land and no possessions at all.

Q: Neighborhoods and communities characterized by limited access to nutritious and affordable foods are known as ____________________.

Q: In the United States, the largest federal food assistance program is ____________________.

Q: Individuals who have access to enough food to sustain a healthy and active life with one or two indications of food-access problems but with little or no change in food intake have ____________________.

Q: Individuals who have limited or uncertain access to foods of sufficient quality or quantity to sustain a healthy and activelife with reduced quality of life with little or no indication of reduced food intake have ____________________.

Q: Collecting crops from fields that either have already been harvested or are not profitable to harvest is called ____________________.

Q: On average, how many miles is a food item transported before a consumer eats it? a. 25 b. 100 c. 750 d. 1500 e. 3000

Q: How much more grain is consumed by livestock than by people? a. Twice as much b. Three times as much c. Five times as much d. Ten times as much e. Twenty times as much

Q: Compared to vegetarian diets, meat based diets use ____ times as much water. a. 1.9 b. 2.9 c. 3.9 d. 4.9 e. 5.9

Q: Compared to vegetarian diets, meat based diets use ____ times as much energy. a. 1.5 b. 2.0 c. 2.5 d. 3.0 e. 3.5

Q: What is the nutritional advantage of eating range-fed buffalo? a. The iron content is higher. b. The nutrients are more stable and less prone to oxidation. c. The fat content includes more omega-3 fatty acids. d. There is a greater variety of phytonutrients, especially those that reduce risk of heart disease and cancer. e. Range-fed buffalo has lower levels of polyunsaturated fats.

Q: About how many kcalories of fuel are used to produce 1 kcalories of grains? a. <1 b. 2 c. 5 d. 10 e. 15

Q: What term describes agricultural practices that are designed to minimize use of energy and chemicals? a. Integrated production b. Progressive agriculture c. Sustainable agriculture d. Resource management production e. Balanced farming

Q: Which of the following is a major contributor to the world's supply of food energy? a. Barley b. Maize c. Rye d. Sorghum e. Adzuki beans

Q: Approximately what percentage of all energy use in the U.S. is devoted to the food industry? a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 30 e. 40

Q: Which of the following is a feature of aquaculture? a. All farmed fish must be fed to sustain the practice. b. It provides about 10% of the world’s fish for consumption. c. It is successful in freshwater lakes but not in ocean waters. d. Currently available technologies cannot yet make it sustainable. e. It provides nearly all of the world’s shellfish for consumption.

Q: What is aquaculture? a. A seaweed growth system b. The practice of fish farming c. Replenishment of fish in the wild d. The raising of plants in a water environment e. Raising food crops in fluid rather than soil

Q: Which of the following is a characteristic of farm irrigation? a. It makes the soil more porous. b. It helps preserve the water supply. c. It contributes to soil preservation. d. It increases the salt content in the soil. e. It raises water tables.