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Q:
Explain the association of type 2 diabetes with insulin resistance and insulin deficiency.
Q:
Describe the major lifestyle modifications for reducing hypertension risk.
Q:
How does hypertension develop? Why does obesity aggravate the hypertensive state?
Q:
Outline the recommendations for reducing the risk of coronary heart disease.
Q:
Explain the defining features and significance of the metabolic syndrome.
Q:
What is meant by the term atherogenic diet?
Q:
Discuss the major risk factors for coronary heart disease.
Q:
Discuss the role of nutrition and genetics in assessing risks for chronic diseases.
Q:
List ways that malnutrition affects immunity.
Q:
a. B-cells k. Thrombus
b. T-cells l. Aneurysm
c. Stroke m. Metastasis
d. Tumor n. Acrylamide
e. Plaque o. Macrophages
f. Initiator p. Heart disease
g. Platelets q. Atherosclerosis
h. Embolus r. Type 1 diabetes
i. Promoter s. Type 2 diabetes
j. Gangrene t. Immunoglobulin
1)Immune cells that produce antibodies
2)Immune cells that attack antigens
3)A type of protein that can act as an antibody
4)Immune cells that practice phagocytosis
5)The primary cause of death in the United States
6)Disease characterized by the accumulation of lipids on the inner arterial walls
7)An accumulation of lipid material embedded in arterial walls
8)A blood clot that has broken loose and circulates in the bloodstream
9)A blood clot that is attached to arterial plaque
10)Small, cell-like bodies required for formation of a blood clot
11)The bulging of an artery commonly caused by elevated blood pressure
12)Consequence of a clot that stops blood flow to the brain
11)This type of diabetes is always controlled by insulin injections
14)This type of diabetes is usually controlled without insulin injections
15)Term that describes the death of tissue due to deficient blood supply, common in severe cases of diabetes
16)When cancers spread to other tissues of the body
17)An abnormal mass of cells
18)Substance or event that gives rise to a cancer
19)Substance that favors cancer development after cellular DNA has been altered
20)A carcinogen in fried potato products
Q:
Pain and pressure in the area around the heart is called ____________________.
Q:
A clot that breaks free from an artery wall and travels through the circulatory system until it lodges in a small artery and suddenly shuts off blood flow to the tissues is called a(n) ____________________.
Q:
High levels of ____________________ have proved to more accurately predict future heart attack than high LDL cholesterol.
Q:
The abnormal bulging of a blood vessel wall is called a(n) ____________________ .
Q:
The most common form of cardiovascular disease is ____________________.
Q:
AIDS develops from infection by ____________________.
Q:
____________________ are large phagocytic cells that serve as scavengers of the blood, clearing it of old or abnormal cells, cellular debris, and antigens.
Q:
____________________ are white blood cells, including B-cells and T-cells, which participate in acquired immunity.
Q:
____________________ are special proteins that direct immune and inflammatory responses.
Q:
____________________ are large proteins of the blood and body fluids, produced by the immune system in response to the invasion of the body by foreign molecules.
Q:
What is the name of the cancer-treatment substance first extracted from the bark of old Pacific yew trees (and now synthesized in the laboratory)? a. Ephedra b. Paclitaxel c. Kombucha d. Germanium e. Echinacea purpurea
Q:
What is ayurveda? a. A system that combines biofeedback with hypnosis b. An oriental plant that suppresses colon and breast tumor growth c. A Hindu system for enhancing the body€s ability to prevent illness and to heal itself d. A variation of standard acupuncture technique that applies electromagnetic impulses to the needles e. A manual healing method that directs a healing force from an outside source
Q:
Which of the following foods is known to be a protective factor for esophageal cancer? a. Alcoholic beverages b. Nonstarchy vegetables c. Mate tea d. Broiled meats e. Salted fish
Q:
Which of the following dietary components is thought to be protective against certain types of cancer? a. Fiber b. Inositol and biotin c. Certain saturated fats d. Protein from animal sources e. Certain sugars
Q:
Which of the following cooking techniques for meats results in formation of the highest amounts of carcinogens? a. Broiling b. Roasting c. Marinating before cooking d. Wrapping the food in foil when cooking e. Steaming
Q:
The higher risk for breast cancer in obese women after menopause is thought to result mainly from chronic exposure to a. estrogen. b. aflatoxin. c. high-fat diets. d. sedentary lifestyles. e. progesterone.
Q:
A substance that causes cancer is best termed a(n) a. carcinogen. b. antipromoter. c. DNA-modifier. d. RNA-modifier. e. mutagen
Q:
A tumor that releases cells, leading to the spread of cancer to other regions of the body, is said to a. promote. b. augment. c. metastasize. d. infiltrate downstream. e. become necrotic.
Q:
Which of the following describes the actions of a carcinogen? a. Initiates cancer b. Inhibits cancer c. Treats cancer d. Acts as an antipromoter e. Stimulates tumor necrosis
Q:
In the otherwise stable person with type 1 diabetes, a potential problem associated with physical activity is a. hypoglycemia. b. hyperglycemia. c. nausea and vomiting. d. temporary kidney shutdown. e. sudden-onset blindness.
Q:
Which of the following is a leading cause of both blindness and kidney failure? a. Cancer b. Diabetes c. HIV/AIDS d. Atherosclerosis e. Stroke
Q:
Microangiopathies are disorders of the a. kidneys. b. pancreas. c. capillaries. d. coronary vessels. e. eyes.
Q:
The excessive thirst common in diabetes is known as a. hydration. b. polyuresis. c. polydipsia. d. hyperhydration. e. paradoxical thirst.
Q:
The frequent urination common in diabetes is known as a. polyuria. b. polyphagia. c. polyuresis. d. pseudodiuresis. e. enuresis.
Q:
A complication of diabetes is blurry vision, which results from swelling of the lenses of the eye caused by conversion of excess glucose to a. sugar alcohols. b. glycated fructose. c. long-chain ketones. d. glycated corneal membranes. e. glycoproteins.
Q:
Insulin resistance is defined as a. reduced sensitivity of cells to blood insulin. b. impaired secretion of insulin by the pancreas. c. increased destruction of insulin-producing cells. d. increased persistence of insulin molecules in the blood. e. relative excess of insulin-binding proteins in muscle tissue.
Q:
Which of the following conditions is characterized by insulin resistance of fat cells? a. Hypoglycemia b. Atherosclerosis c. Type 1 diabetes d. Type 2 diabetes e. Juvenile diabetes
Q:
Most people with type 2 diabetes have a. sarcopenia. b. osteoporosis. c. excess body fat. d. insulin dependency. e. relative insulin excess.
Q:
Which of the following is a characteristic of type 1 diabetes? a. It is an autoimmune disorder. b. It occurs exclusively in people under 40 years of age. c. It must be treated by daily oral intake of insulin pills. d. It accounts for approximately 50% of all cases of diabetes. e. It is typically preceded by metabolic syndrome.
Q:
What percentage of people with diabetes have type 1? a. 5-10 b. 10-15 c. 15-20 d. 20-25 e. 25-30
Q:
Type 2 diabetes usually develops after people reach the age of a. 21. b. 30. c. 40. d. 55. e. 65.
Q:
In which of the following conditions would the pancreas be unable to synthesize insulin? a. Hyperglycemia b. Type 1 diabetes mellitus c. Type 2 diabetes mellitus d. Adult-onset diabetes mellitus e. Hypoglycemia
Q:
What is believed to be the primary cause of type 1 diabetes? a. Defect in insulin sensitivity b. Excessive body weight gain c. Defect of the immune system d. Excessive intake of simple carbohydrates e. Environmental toxins
Q:
Among the leading causes of death in the United States diabetes ranks number a. 1. b. 3. c. 5. d. 7. e. 9.
Q:
A person who hasn€t consumed anything except water for the past 8 hours has a blood glucose concentration of 101 mg/dL. This person would be classified as a. normal. b. diabetic. c. prediabetic. d. impaired glucose tolerant. e. hypoglycemic.
Q:
Which of the following is a difference between DASH and USDA recommendations? a. USDA has a higher intake recommendation for grains. b. DASH has a higher recommendation for milk. c. DASH has a separate recommendation for seeds, nuts and legumes. d. USDA has a higher intake recommendation for lean meats, poultry, and fish e. USDA has a higher intake recommendation for fruits.
Q:
Which of the following is a characteristic of drug therapy for hypertension? a. Antihypertensive drugs called diuretics work by lowering blood volume. b. The most frequently prescribed drug therapies are DASH inhibitors. c. Most people with hypertension need only one medicine to reduce blood pressure.. d. Major side effects of antihypertensive drugs are depletion of body sodium and phosphorus. e. Unless weight is also reduced, antihypertensive drugs are unlikely to reduce blood pressure.
Q:
Diuretics act to lower blood pressure by a. increasing fluid loss. b. decreasing potassium loss. c. reducing arterial plaque formation. d. increasing retention of calcium and potassium. e. increasing stroke volume.
Q:
People who use diuretics are most at risk of developing imbalances of a. sodium. b. calcium. c. potassium. d. phosphate. e. manganese.
Q:
Which of the following describes a relationship between sodium/salt and high blood pressure? a. People with chronic kidney disease are less likely to be salt-sensitive. b. Lowering sodium intakes reduces blood pressure only in certain ethnic groups. c. People less 30 years of age are most likely to be salt-sensitive. d. Weight loss is often as effective as sodium restriction in lowering blood pressure. e. Of all racial groups, whites tend to be most salt sensitive.
Q:
Among the following lifestyle changes, which is least effective at reducing blood pressure? a. Adopting the DASH eating plan b. Limiting daily alcohol intake to 1-2 drinks c. Reducing body weight to achieve a BMI of less than 25 d. Performing physical exercise for 30 minutes per day, 5 days a week e. Restricting sodium to less than 2500 mg per day
Q:
Which of the following statements describes lifestyle modifications suggested to treat high blood pressure? a. Three alcohol drinks per day decreases the risk for developing high blood pressure. b. Optimal body mass in from 25.0 to 29.9. c. Sodium intake should be reduced to 1500mg among persons who are 51and older. d. Perform aerobic physical activity for at least 90 minutes per day, most days of the week. e. Recommended sodium intakes are higher for African Americans than for other groups.
Q:
Peripheral resistance is the resistance blood encounters in the a. veins. b. arteries. c. venules. d. arterioles. e. heart.
Q:
The lifetime percent risk of developing hypertension later in life when the blood pressure is normal at age 55 is a. 10. b. 25. c. 50. d. 75. e. 90.
Q:
How does obesity increase the risk for developing hypertension? a. Obesity is associated with altered kidney function and fluid retention leading to higher blood pressure. b. The excess fat pads surrounding the kidneys impair blood flow to these organs and lead to a higher output of renin. c. Sodium intake in obese people significantly exceeds the recommended intake, thereby predisposing them to higher blood pressure. d. Higher lipoprotein lipase activity in obese people triggers the angiotensin cascade, leading to increased peripheral resistance to blood flow. e. Obesity alters inflammatory responses, which in turn alters the elasticity of arterial walls.
Q:
Which of the following is the most likely reason that a blood pressure reading should be repeated before confirming a diagnosis of hypertension? a. The person reacted emotionally to the procedure. b. Blood pressure measuring devices often give inaccurate readings. c. The cuff of the blood pressure measuring device was wrapped too tightly on the arm. d. The cuff of the blood pressure measuring device was wrapped too loosely on the arm. e. The person failed to fast before the test was performed.
Q:
Hypertension contributes to an estimated ____ strokes in the U.S. each year. a. 400,000 b. 600,000 c. 800,000 d. 1,000,000 e. 1,200,000
Q:
Which of the following is a characteristic of factors associated with hypertension? a. Most people with hypertension have BMIs <25. b. Most people with hypertension are extremely salt sensitive. c. Three to four alcohol drinks per day lowers risk for hypertension. d. African Americans develop high blood pressure earlier in life and their average blood pressure is higher than others. e. About 1/3 of people 65 and older have hypertension.
Q:
What is the best predictor for risk of a stroke? a. Blood pressure b. LDL-cholesterol c. HDL-cholesterol d. Trans-fatty acid intake e. Family history
Q:
Approximately what proportion of people in the United States are believed to have hypertension? a. 1/10 b. 1/5 c. 1/4 d. 1/3 e. 1/2
Q:
Among the following, which should be the first action taken to lower blood cholesterol? a. Begin drug treatment. b. Consume a high-protein diet. c. Consume large amounts of fish and fish oils. d. Achieve and maintain appropriate body weight. e. Increase alcohol intake and/or use an antianxiety medication.
Q:
What should be the next course of action for a person who was unsuccessful in lowering LDL or blood pressure by lifestyle changes? a. Obtain prescription medications. b. Consider coronary bypass surgery. c. Obtain regular nutrition counseling. d. Consider gastric surgery to reduce body weight. e. Try again with a more stringent diet and exercise program.
Q:
Which of the following is true of progress in the treatment and prevention of CHD in the United States? a. Mortality rates have increased among men. b. CHD is no longer the number 1 cause of death in women. c. Blood cholesterol levels have been declining since 1960. d. By age 45, about 1/3 of adults have at least one major risk factor for CHD, down from 1/2 20 years ago. e. Efforts to reduce CHD incidence by reducing cigarette smoking have largely failed.
Q:
A desirable HDL cholesterol is a. 20-30 mg/dl. b. 30-40 mg/dl. c. 40-50 mg/dl. d. 50-60 mg/dl. e. >60 mg/dl.
Q:
A person who produces a normal amount of insulin but whose cells show suboptimal response is said to be a. polydipsic. b. insulin resistant. c. hyperglucagonemic. d. pancreatic beta-cell deficient. e. glucophillic.
Q:
Which of the following is considered a desirable blood level for triglycerides? a. < 150 b. 150-200 c. 200-250 d. 250-300 e. 300-350
Q:
What blood cholesterol carrier is of greatest concern in atherosclerosis? a. HDL b. LDL c. HDK d. VLDK e. NK
Q:
What is prehypertension? a. A predictor of stroke risk b. Slightly high blood pressure c. A precursor for Syndrome X d. A component of the metabolic syndrome e. A cluster of risk factors that predict the likelihood of hypertension
Q:
What proportion of adults in the U.S. have high blood triglycerides? a. 1/10 b. 1/4 c. 1/3 d. 1/2 e. 2/3
Q:
Which of the following is true of coronary heart disease (CHD)?
a. By age 20, half of the adults in the United States have at least one major risk factor for CHD.
b. Women who take estrogen to reduce the risk for osteoporosis are at significantly higher risk for CHD.
c. Aging becomes a significant risk factor for women who are 75 and older.
d. Women younger than 45 years of age tend to have higher LDL cholesterol than do men of that age, but this difference disappears after menopause.
e. Levels of the amino acid homocysteine, which protects artery walls, are typically higher in women than in men.
Q:
What disease accounts for the majority of deaths in U.S. women? a. Diabetes b. Lung cancer c. Breast cancer d. Coronary heart disease e. Stroke
Q:
Which of the following blood pressure readings first signifies a diagnosis of hypertension? a. 110 over 50 b. 120 over 70 c. 130 over 80 d. 140 over 90 e. 150 over 100
Q:
A significant reduction in blood flow to the brain is termed a. angina. b. a stroke. c. a vascular event. d. metabolic syndrome. e. Chiari event.
Q:
The obstruction of a blood vessel by a clot that broke away from arterial plaque is termed a. an anginism. b. an embolism. c. circulatory hypoxia. d. a de-plaquing event. e. plaque rupture.
Q:
In the development of plaque, what is thought to be responsible for oxidation of LDL cholesterol during the inflammatory phase? a. Free radicals b. Beta-blockers c. P-reactive protein (PRP) d. Lipoprotein-associated phospholipase A e. Cytokines
Q:
Which of the following may be classified as a risk factor for coronary heart disease? a. BMI of 26 b. Low LDL-cholesterol levels c. High HDL-cholesterol levels d. High C-reactive protein levels e. Low blood triglyceride (VLDL) levels
Q:
A person’s level of C-reactive protein appears to be a strong predictor for
a. cancer.
b. diabetes.
c. a heart attack.
d. HIV progression.
e. rheumatoid arthritis progression.
Q:
The ballooning out of an artery wall at a point where it has been weakened by deterioration is called a(n) a. aorta. b. plaque. c. aneurysm. d. diverticula. e. pouch.
Q:
Which of the following is a feature of atherosclerosis? a. It is characterized by inflammation in all stages. b. It is improved by high blood homocysteine levels. c. It is characterized by infiltration of platelets in the arterial wall. d. It is worsened by elevated blood high-density lipoproteins. e. It is the second most common cause of coronary heart disease.
Q:
By what age do most people first have well-developed arterial plaque? a. 20 b. 30 c. 40 d. 50 e. 60