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Q:
What is thought to account, in part, for the rise in the prevalence of peanut allergy? a. Excess sodium consumed as part of the peanuts. b. Roasting peanuts at very high temperatures makes them more allergenic. c. Impaired digestion/absorption resulting from elevated leptin and adiponectin levels. d. Increased inflammation of the immune system due to altered ratio of omega-6 to omega-3 fatty acids. e. Hyperstimulation of the immune system by multiple vaccines.
Q:
What percentage of young school aged children exhibit hyperactivity? a. 5% b. 7% c. 9% d. 11% e. 13%
Q:
Which of the following is a characteristic of lead exposure and health? a. Absorption of lead is higher on an empty stomach. b. Lead toxicity is most prevalent in children around the time of puberty. c. Lead-induced anemia is similar to the anemia of vitamin B12 deficiency. d. The symptoms of lead toxicity can be reversed by adding iron to the diet. e. Lead exposure is extremely rare in the U.S..
Q:
Which of the following is a characteristic of iron deficiency in children? a. It affects brain function before anemia sets in. b. It rarely develops in those with high intakes of milk. c. It is the primary factor in tension-fatigue syndrome. d. Mild deficiency enhances mental performance by lowering physical activity level, thereby leading to increased attention span. e. Children who had iron deficiency as infants recover completely when iron levels are normalized.
Q:
Which of the following is characteristic of children who regularly eat breakfast or skip breakfast? a. Breakfast-skippers actually show lower scores on IQ tests than those who eat breakfast. b. Attention spans are similar but a significant number of breakfast-skippers show hyperglycemia. c. Breakfast-skippers initially show decreased mental performance but with time they adapt and show almost identical achievements. d. Breakfast-skippers who change to eating breakfast show a temporary improvement in mental concentration but also a moderate degree of hypoglycemia. e. Children who skip breakfast and often quite thin and malnourished.
Q:
Which of the following is a characteristic of hunger and behavior in children? a. Children who fail to eat breakfast typically become hyperactive after eating lunch. b. The nutrient deficit arising from skipping a breakfast is usually made up over the following 2 days. c. Children who eat nutritious breakfasts are absent from school less often than their friends who do not. d. Although breakfast-skippers show reduced attention spans, their scores on intelligence tests remain unaffected. e. While hunger can have short-term effects, there is little evidence for long-term effects.
Q:
Which of the following was a finding of the Feeding Infants and Toddlers Study? a. Most toddlers but not infants consumed insufficient intakes of sodium. b. The most popular food among these population groups was baked potatoes. c. Most infants but not toddlers demonstrated food intake patterns consistent with MyPlate recommendations. d. About one-fourth of the infants and toddlers failed to consume even one serving of fruits or vegetables daily. e. Less than 10% of young preschoolers consumed nutrient-poor, energy-dense beverages, desserts, and snack foods each day.
Q:
Which of the following is a feature of nutrition in childhood? a. Very few children take nutrient supplements of any kind. b. Total energy requirements are higher for a typical 3 year old than a 12 year old. c. Iron-deficiency anemia in children is prevalent in Canada but not the United States due to fortification. d. Children who fail to consume vitamin D-fortified foods should receive a daily supplement of 10 micrograms. e. Vegetarian and vegan diets are unsafe for children.
Q:
Which of the following is the most prevalent nutrient deficiency among U.S. and Canadian children? a. Iron b. Protein c. Calcium d. Vitamin C e. Vitamin A
Q:
Which of the following is a characteristic of fat in the diet of children? a. The recommended daily fat intake up to age 12 is age plus 20 g. b. There is an RDA for total fat for children beginning at 3 years of age. c. Low-fat diets usually provide sufficient amounts of the micronutrients. d. Fat intakes below 30% of total energy do not impair growth provided that total energy intake is adequate. e. Children between 4 and 18 years of age should get at least 50% of their energy from fat.
Q:
Children should spend no more than ____ hours per day watching television, playing electronic games, and using the computer (except for homework) a. 1 to 2 b. 2 to 3 c. 3 to 4 d. 4 to 5 e. 5 to 6
Q:
Approximately how many kcal per day does an average 6 year old need to obtain? a. 400 b. 800 c. 1600 d. 2400 e. 3200
Q:
Which of the following is true regarding energy metabolism of the preschool child? a. Food intake is remarkably similar from meal to meal. b. Overweight individuals have appetites similar to normal-weight individuals. c. Energy needs per kg body weight increase from 1 year of age to 5 years of age. d. A 1 year old who needs 800 kcal/day would require only about 1600 kcal at 6 years of age. e. An active 10 year-old requires about 3200 kcal/day.
Q:
Young children who drink more than 2 to 3 1/2 cups of milk a day are most likely at increased risk for deficiency of a. iron. b. folate. c. vitamin A. d. vitamin C. e. vitamin D.
Q:
Infants fed honey or corn syrup are at increased risk for a. protein malnutrition. b. botulism. c. osteopenia. d. type 1 diabetes. e. lead poisoning.
Q:
Which of the following nutrients need to be supplied first by solid foods in a baby’s diet?
a. Vitamin C and iron
b. Vitamin A and zinc
c. Vitamin B12 and fluoride
d. Vitamin E and magnesium
e. Sodium and manganese
Q:
What should be the first cereal introduced to the infant? a. Oat b. Corn c. Rice d. Wheat e. Barley
Q:
Why should new foods be introduced to an infant one at a time?
a. It prevents overfeeding.
b. Any allergic reactions can be detected.
c. Immunological protection hasn't been developed.
d. The swallowing reflex is not under voluntary control.
e. It reduces risk of upset stomach.
Q:
At what age does the normal infant first develop the ability to swallow nonliquid food? a. 1 to 2 months b. 2 to 4 months c. 4 to 6 months d. 6 to 9 months e. 9 to 12 months
Q:
Which of the following represents a good age to introduce solid foods to infants? a. Two weeks b. Two months c. Five months d. Nine months e. One year
Q:
Of the following cereals, which is most likely to result in an allergic reaction upon first feeding? a. Oat b. Rice c. Corn d. Wheat e. Barley
Q:
Which of the following feeding practices is recommended for preterm infants?
a. They should be fed exclusively on breast milk.
b. They should be fed on breast milk enriched in a 1 to 1 ratio with cow’s milk.
c. They should be fed preterm breast milk, occasionally fortified with specific nutrients.
d. They should be fed only on special formulas because the nutrient content of breast milk is too low.
e. They should be fed raw cow’s milk fortified with infant vitamins.
Q:
Which of the following defines nursing bottle tooth decay? a. Caries development resulting from frequent use of non-sterile bottles and nipples. b. Bacterial attack of teeth due to severe tooth misalignment from sucking on oversized bottle nipples. c. Marked tooth decay of an infant due to prolonged exposure to carbohydrate-rich fluids from a bottle. d. Tooth decay resulting from constant exposure to food due to inability of the infant to swallow normally. e. Tooth decay resulting from the rubbing of the nipple against the teeth and consequent thinning of enamel.
Q:
Goat’s milk is inappropriate for infants due to its low content of
a. iron.
b. folate.
c. protein.
d. calcium.
e. vitamin D.
Q:
What is the most realistic advice for reducing lead exposure from the tap water used to prepare infant formula? a. Because the lead in hot water pipes settles out overnight, draw the water from this source first. b. Whenever possible, boil the water to vaporize the lead and thus decrease the amount remaining in the water. c. Because the first water drawn from the tap each day is highest in lead, let the water run a few minutes before using it. d. To inhibit lead absorption, add a small amount of citrus juice to the water to provide citric acid to complex with the lead. e. Filtering the water through a clean coffee filter will typically remove the majority of lead contamination.
Q:
Which of the following is a common source of lead poisoning in infants? a. Maternal passage of lead to fetus b. Baby bottles made from lead crystal c. Contaminated water used to make infant formula d. Preparation of infant formula in galvanized containers e. Environmental contamination from leaded gasoline
Q:
Which of the following formulas is available for infants with lactose intolerance?
a. Egg
b. Soy
c. Barley
d. Powdered cow€s milk
e. Goat’s milk
Q:
To gradually replace breast milk with infant formula or other foods appropriate to an infant’s diet is to
a. feed.
b. wean.
c. nurse.
d. breastfeed.
e. mature.
Q:
Compared with cow’s milk, breast milk contains
a. less protein and calcium.
b. less lactose and vitamin C.
c. more fat and less carbohydrate.
d. more energy and less vitamin E.
e. more vitamin D.
Q:
What is lactadherin? a. An iron-binding protein in breast milk b. A vitamin D-binding protein in breast milk c. A breast milk protein that inactivates a GI virus that causes diarrhea d. A protein supplement to infant formulas that simulates the digestibility properties of alpha-lactalbumin e. A protein that promotes epidermal growth
Q:
What factor in breast milk binds iron and prevents it from supporting the growth of the infant's intestinal bacteria?
a. Colostrum
b. Lactoferrin
c. Hemoferritin
d. Bifidus factor
e. Lysozyme
Q:
Which of the following is associated with bifidus factors? a. Increased iron absorption b. Increased bacterial growth c. Decreased allergy protection d. Decreased hormone production e. Impaired immune response
Q:
Which of the following is a feature of infant development and nutrition?
a. Overfeeding a breast-fed infant is easier than with a formula-fed infant.
b. Breast-fed infants obtain iron-binding proteins that inhibit bacterial infections.
c. Breast-fed infants are at high risk of iron deficiency for the first 6 months of life.
d. For optimal development, infants should be transitioned to formula after one year of breast-feeding.
e. Goat's milk is an appropriate substitute for infants who cannot tolerate cow’s milk.
Q:
What is colostrum? a. A clot in the bloodstream b. A major protein in breast milk c. A hormone that promotes milk production d. A milk-like substance secreted right after delivery e. Antibodies found in breast milk
Q:
What is thought to be the primary function of the oligosaccharides in breast milk? a. Stimulation of the let-down reflex b. Protection from infections in the infant c. Stimulation of salivary amylase in the infant d. Enhanced bioavailability of DHA and arachidonic acid e. Increase the permeability of intestinal mucous
Q:
What is the chief protein in human breast milk? a. Casein b. Lactose c. Albumin d. Alpha-lactalbumin e. Lactoferrin
Q:
For optimal breast-feeding benefits, it is recommended that the infant be encouraged to suckle on the first breast offered a. for about 1-2 minutes. b. for no more than 5 minutes. c. before he shows signs of hunger. d. until he stops actively suckling. e. until he begins to cry.
Q:
The recommended amounts of vitamins and minerals for infants are based on the
a. average amounts present in body tissues of thriving infants.
b. adult RDA scaled down to infants on a per kg body weight basis.
c. older child’s RDA scaled down to the infant on a per kg body weight basis.
d. average amounts ingested by thriving infants breastfed by well-nourished mothers.
e. average amounts found in breast milk.
Q:
What is the relative weight of an infant brain compared to an adult’s brain?
a. Half as much
b. About the same
c. Three times as much
d. Six times as much
e. Ten times as much
Q:
What organ in the infant uses more than half of the day’s total energy intake?
a. Liver
b. Brain
c. Kidney
d. Skeletal muscle
e. Small and large intestines
Q:
What would be a normal body weight after one year for a healthy infant with a birthweight of 8 lbs? a. 12 lbs b. 16 lbs c. 24 lbs d. 30 lbs e. 36 lbs
Q:
What is the typical weight gain (lbs) of an infant between the first and second year of life? a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 e. 25
Q:
Describe the risks associated with caffeine intake during pregnancy.
Q:
Describe the two most common neural tube defects and what is known about their development.
Q:
Describe the physical and mental abnormalities associated with fetal alcohol syndrome.
Q:
List the benefits of breastfeeding for the infant and for the mother.
Q:
Provide examples of the effects of environmental contaminants on pregnancy outcomes.
Q:
Discuss the effects of tobacco use in the pregnant woman and its effects on health of the newborn.
Q:
Describe the condition known as preeclampsia. What are its risk factors and what is known about its prevention?
Q:
Define gestational diabetes and list risk factors. How is it managed?
Q:
List the complications experienced by low-birthweight infants.
Q:
Discuss important concerns for vegetarian diets during pregnancy or lactation.
Q:
Discuss the changes in macronutrient needs in pregnancy.
Q:
Discuss the consequences of being overweight or obese at the time of pregnancy.
Q:
Discuss the association between maternal nutrition and the risk for development of chronic diseases in her child.
Q:
Discuss the term ′critical periods′ in relation to pregnancy.
Q:
What is the role of the placenta and how does it develop?
Q:
a. 1 in 75 k. Zygote
b. 1 in 13 l. Embryo
c. 7 1/2 m. Alcohol
d. 17-30 n. Eclampsia
e. 25 o. Amniotic
f. 35 p. Birthweight
g. 38 q. Preeclampsia
h. Iron r. Breastfeeding
i. Pica s. Eat small, frequent meals
j. Folate t. Drink at least 8 glasses of liquid a day
1)A newly fertilized ovum
2)Fluid in which the fetus floats
3)Developing infant from 2 to 8 weeks after conception
4)Number of days after conception during which the neural tube is highly vulnerable to nutrient deficiency
5)Number of U.S. women who report binge drinking during pregnancy
6)Adequate intakes of this nutrient within the 30 days prior to conception are especially important to lower risk of birth defects
7)Most reliable indicator of an infant's health
8)An infant born prior to this number of weeks of pregnancy is classified as preterm
9)Upper limit for the recommended number of pounds that a pregnant woman of normal weight should gain
10)Approximate weight, in pounds, of average newborn baby
11)Number of grams of extra protein per day recommended for the pregnant woman
12)Dietary supplements of this nutrient are recommended early in pregnancy
13)A recommended practice to prevent or relieve heartburn
14)A recommended practice to prevent or alleviate constipation
15)A craving for non-food substances
16)A condition characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine
17)A condition characterized by seizures
18)Number of women who report drinking during pregnancy
19)Excess intake of this substance in pregnancy is known to result in mental retardation of the child
20)A practice that conserves maternal iron stores
Q:
Low-birthweight infants are defined as infants who weigh ____________________ or less.
Q:
The recommended gain for a woman who begins pregnancy at a healthy weight and is carrying a single fetus is ____________________ to ____________________ pounds.
Q:
An infant with a birthweight at the 90th percentile or higher for gestational age (roughly 9 pounds or higher) is said to have ____________________.
Q:
The influence of substances during fetal growth on the development of diseases in later life is called ____________________.
Q:
The embedding of the blastocyst in the inner lining of the uterus is called ____________________.
Q:
The developing infant from 2 to 8 weeks after conception is called a(n) ____________________.
Q:
The developing infant from 8 weeks after conception until term is called a(n) ____________________.
Q:
A newly fertilized ovum is called a(n) ____________________.
Q:
The ropelike structure through which the fetus′s veins and arteries reach the placenta is called the ____________________.
Q:
The "bag of waters" in the uterus, in which the fetus floats is called the ____________________.
Q:
Which of the following is a feature of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)?
a. FAS cannot be treated, only prevented.
b. Cognitive function is affected the least when physical abnormalities are most severe.
c. Diagnosis is apparent within 6 months of birth for virtually all children with FAS.
d. The most severe physical abnormalities in most FAS children are covert rather than overt.
e. No harm will result to the infant unless the mother is actually drunk.
Q:
Approximately how many infants each year are born in the United States with fetal alcohol syndrome? a. 2,000 b. 4,000 c. 6,000 d. 12,000 e. 18,000
Q:
Which of the following is a feature of hypertension in pregnancy? a. Chronic hypertension increases risk for stillbirth. b. Chronic hypertension often leads to macrosomia. c. Gestational hypertension usually develops in the first trimester. d. Gestational hypertension is most common in women who had normal blood pressure before pregnancy. e. Gestational diabetes typically persists after pregnancy.
Q:
Which of the following is a characteristic of preterm infants? a. They are often underweight and have difficulty breathing. b. Even with adequate nutrition support, they rarely show catch-up growth. c. If they are merely small-for-gestational age, they usually show catch-up growth. d. They are typically born to women of high socioeconomic status. e. Even very-low birthweight infants typically have good survival and outcomes.
Q:
Which of the following physical activities would be permitted for the pregnant woman? a. Scuba diving b. Water aerobics c. Exercising in hot, humid weather d. Exercising while lying on her back e. Kick boxing
Q:
Which of the following is a feature of being overweight and pregnant? a. Folate-related neural tube defects b. Increased prevalence of caesarian section c. Inability to carry twins to birth completion d. Increased risk of birthing a small-for-gestational age infant e. Decreased risk of gestational hypertension
Q:
Which of the following is a characteristic of low-birth-weight infants? a. They show greater prevalence for liver fat infiltration. b. They demonstrate catch-up growth within 3 months of birth. c. They have an increased risk for insulin resistance later in life. d. They have proportionately larger kidneys and greater risks for low blood pressure. e. They are more commonly born to upper socioeconomic status women.
Q:
What is a blastocyst? a. The 5-day-old zygote that becomes implanted in the uterine wall b. The terminal end of the umbilical cord that attaches to the placenta c. Fingerlike projections on the uterine wall that act to separate fetal from maternal tissues d. The network of placental blood vessels that exchanges nutrients and waste products from mother to fetus e. The structure that develops in place of the brain in an anencephalicinfant
Q:
What is an acceptable range of weight (lbs) of a healthy newborn infant? a. 4-4 ½ b. 5-6 c. 6 1/2-8 d. 8 1/2-10 e. 10 1/2-12
Q:
What is the acronym for the food assistance program designed to help nutritionally at-risk children, infants, and pregnant women? a. FAP b. WIC c. EAT d. MOW e. ARND
Q:
Which of the following statements describes a relationship between alcohol intake and fetal development? a. Birth defects are most severe when the woman drinks around the time of conception. b. Infants born with fetal alcohol syndrome typically show immediate signs of brain impairment. c. Eating well and maintaining adequate nutrient stores will prevent alcohol-induced placenta damage. d. Toxicity to the fetus begins to occur when fetal blood alcohol levels rise above maternal blood alcohol levels. e. Most of the fetal abnormalities associated with maternal alcohol consumption can be corrected after birth.
Q:
What is the benefit of postpartum amenorrhea? a. It stimulates milk production. b. It conserves iron in the mother. c. It stimulates the let-down reflex. d. It stimulates the suckling reflex in the infant. e. It is a reliable form of birth control.