Q&A Hero

Q: Which of the following is an effect of alcohol intake in the mother who breastfeeds? a. It alters the flavor of the breast milk. b. It stimulates lactation. c. It passes into the breast milk and stimulates the infant's acceptance. d. It first appears in the breast milk approximately 12 hours after ingestion. e. It has no clinically significant impact.

Q: Which of the following is a characteristic of alcohol intake and lactation? a. Alcohol easily enters breast milk. b. Alcohol actually stimulates lactation. c. Infants drink slightly more breast milk when the mother consumes up to 1 drink per day. d. The small amounts of alcohol that are secreted along with breast milk stimulate infant digestion. e. The positive impact of alcohol consumption on the mother outweighs any slight negative impact on the infant.

Q: Which of the following statements describes an association between nutrient intake and lactation? a. Milk production is increased by higher fluid intake. b. Ingestion of garlic may lead to an off-flavor of the milk. c. Inadequate protein intake lowers the protein concentration of the milk. d. The energy RDA for milk production calls for an additional 1000 kcalories per day. e. Nicotine does not pass into a woman€s breast milk.

Q: Why might a lactating woman need to take an iron supplement? a. To improve the flavor of breast milk b. To increase iron content of breast milk c. To replace the iron stores she lost during pregnancy d. To account for the re-start of menstruation that usually occurs 1-2 months postpartum e. To increase the volume of breast milk

Q: Which of the following is a feature of lactation? a. Breast milk protein content may be enhanced by moderate exercise. b. The volume of breast milk may be increased by drinking plenty of fluid. c. The iron content of breast milk may be increased by taking iron supplements. d. Breast milk quantity but not quality is most affected by nutritional inadequacies. e. Breastfeeding is an automatic physiological response.

Q: The number of extra kcalories per day needed to produce a normal supply of milk during the first six months of lactation is approximately a. 100. b. 250. c. 500. d. 1000. e. 1500.

Q: What causes the "let-down reflex"? a. Oxytocin b. Estrogen c. Prepartum amenorrhea d. Postpartum amenorrhea e. FSH

Q: A feature of heavy caffeine use in human pregnancy is that it may a. worsen edema. b. increase the risk of preterm birth. c. increase the risk of birth defects. d. increase the risk of stillborn infants. e. dampen respiratory function

Q: Which of the following is a feature of heavy metal intake and pregnancy? a. Mercury, but not lead, can easily cross the placenta. b. Lead and mercury both damage the fetal nervous system. c. Pregnant women are advised to limit consumption of shark and swordfish to no more than once per week. d. Pregnant women are advised to avoid shellfish around the critical period of brain development but may resume normal intake thereafter. e. King mackerel and tilefish are both safe to consume as much as desired.

Q: Which of the following recommendations for pregnant women and alcohol intake has been issued by the U.S. Surgeon General? a. They should drink absolutely no alcohol. b. They should refrain from drinking hard liquor only. c. They are permitted to ingest no more than 2 drinks per day. d. They are permitted to ingest small amounts of alcohol during the first 3 months but none thereafter. e. Organic beer and wine is acceptable.

Q: Which of the following is a characteristic associated with adolescent pregnancy? a. The recommended weight gain is approximately 35 lbs. b. The incidence of stillbirths and preterm births is 5-10% lower compared with adult women. c. The incidence of pregnancy-induced hypertension is 5-10% lower compared with older women. d. The time in labor is usually shorter than for older women because there are fewer overweight teenagers. e. Maternal death rates are 5 to 7 times greater among adolescent mothers in the developed world.

Q: Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of eclampsia? a. Convulsions by the mother b. Convulsions by the newborn c. Low blood pressure in the mother d. Low blood pressure in the newborn e. Poor glycemic control in mother and infant

Q: What is the name of the condition characterized by high blood pressureand protein in the urine of a pregnant woman? a. Preeclampsia b. Gestational diabetes c. Teratogenic hypertension d. Pregnancy-induced blood pressure crisis e. Malignant renal hypertension syndrome

Q: Which of the following is a characteristic of gestational diabetes? a. It predicts risk of diabetes for the infant. b. It leads to type 2 diabetes in some women. c. It occurs in over one-half of normal weight women. d. It occurs more often in women with a history of having premature births. e. It may be dangerous for the woman but has little impact on the developing fetus.

Q: What is gestational diabetes? a. A severe form of type 1 diabetes in newborns. b. Abnormal blood glucose maintenance during pregnancy. c. Reactive hypoglycemia expressed during the third trimester of pregnancy. d. A temporary loss of insulin secretion during the first trimester of pregnancy. e. A complication of pre-existing diabetes that can occur during pregnancy.

Q: Which of the following is a feature of the WIC program? a. It caps the number of children in the program at 2 million. b. It is strictly remedial and available chiefly to women living in the inner city c. It offers assistance to all at-risk pregnant women regardless of economic means d. It saves an estimated $3 in medical costs in the first two months after birth for every dollar spent e. It serves pregnant and nursing women as well as children up to age 7

Q: Which of the following is the standard classification for a very-low-birthweight infant? a. 3 1/2 lbs or less b. 4 1/2 lbs or less c. 5 1/2 lbs or less d. 6 1/2 lbs or less e. 7 1/2 lbs or less

Q: Which of the following is the standard classification for a low-birthweight infant? a. 3 1/2 lbs or less b. 4 lbs or less c. 5 1/2 lbs or less d. 6 1/2 lbs or less e. 9 lbs or less

Q: What is the most likely reason for a pregnant woman to crave pickles? a. A change in hormones b. A hypoglycemic episode c. A physiologic need for fluid d. A physiologic need for sodium e. Cultural expectations that she will crave them

Q: Which of the following statements reflects current knowledge of food choices in pregnancy? a. A craving for pickles is a strong indicator that the body needs salt. b. A craving for milk is a strong indicator that the body needs calcium and/or phosphorus. c. Careful and appropriate selection of foods can prevent food cravings for most women. d. Cravings and aversions to certain foods are probably the result of altered taste and smell sensitivities induced by hormones. e. Aversions to specific foods often indicate that the woman has a deficient diet.

Q: Which of the following is one of the recommendations to treat pregnancy-associated heartburn? a. Eat many small meals. b. Drink fluids only with meals. c. Exercise within 30 minutes after eating. d. Lie down within 30 minutes after eating. e. Recline while eating.

Q: In pregnant women unable to meet their calcium needs, a daily supplement providing how many mg of calcium is advised? a. 150 b. 300 c. 600 d. 1000 e. 1200

Q: The amount of vitamin D needed in pregnancy can be obtained by consumption of fortified milk and a. low-mercury fish. b. exposure to the sun. c. tropical fruit juices. d. vitamin D supplements. e. tree nuts.

Q: Which of the following is a characteristic of calcium nutrition in pregnancy? a. Calcium intakes usually meet the recommendations. b. The RDA for calcium is the same as before pregnancy. c. Calcium absorption efficiency is the same as before pregnancy. d. Calcification of the fetal skeleton begins during the 14th week of pregnancy. e. It is better for pregnant women to take a calcium supplement than to increase dairy intake.

Q: Which of the following is a feature of calcium nutrition in pregnancy? a. The RDA increases by over 100%. b. Calcium absorption increases substantially. c. Supplements are required for most women due to the increased needs. d. Transfer of calcium from maternal stores to the fetus increases rapidly at the beginning of the second trimester and falls during the last trimester. e. During the last trimester, about 500 mg of calcium are transferred from the mother to the fetus each day.

Q: During pregnancy, which of the following nutrients show a dramatic increase in absorption? a. Salt and sugar b. Protein and fat c. Calcium and iron d. Thiamin and ascorbic acid e. Copper and magnesium

Q: Of the following nutrient needs, which is considered the most difficult to meet during pregnancy, often because of low body stores? a. Iron b. Protein c. Vitamin D d. Vitamin B6 e. Essential fatty acids

Q: Which of the following nutrients are required in higher amounts during pregnancy due to their roles in the synthesis of red blood cells? a. Protein and chromium b. Folate and vitamin B12 c. Calcium and vitamin A d. Vitamin E and vitamin C e. Selenium and iron

Q: What is the recommended increase in daily energy intake, in kcal, for the third trimester of pregnancy? a. 200 b. 340 c. 450 d. 540 e. 600

Q: Jenny has just learned that she is one month pregnant (1st trimester). She has been looking forward to all the ice cream, chips, and cakes she has seen women on TV and in the movies eating when they are pregnant. What is the most appropriate advice for Jenny? a. She can eat these foods, but only up to 340 kcalories extra per day. b. She can eat these foods, but only up to 550 kcalories extra per day. c. She does not have increased energy needs in the first trimester and should not indulge herself. d. She should not eat these foods, but rather include one extra serving from each food group per day. e. While she should avoid salty foods like chips, she is free to indulge in all of the other treats she wants.

Q: Which of the following is a characteristic of body weight changes associated with pregnancy? a. Weight gain is generally steady throughout pregnancy for normal-weight women. b. Most women are unable to lose all of the weight that was gained during pregnancy. c. Sudden, large weight gain in pregnancy may signal the development of hypotension. d. Overweight pregnant women should gain as much weight as underweight pregnant women. e. Exercise is the best way to lose weight after pregnancy.

Q: The component of weight gain during pregnancy that is similar to the average weight of the infant at birth is the a. placenta. b. amniotic sac fluid. c. maternal fat stores. d. uterus and supporting muscles. e. additional blood volume.

Q: What is the minimum recommended weight gain for the obese pregnant woman? a. 5 lbs b. 8 lbs c. 11 lbs d. 14 lbs e. 17 lbs

Q: What is the recommended minimum weight gain, in lbs, of a normal-weight woman who is expected to bear twins? a. 22 b. 37 c. 45 d. 55 e. 62

Q: Usually, what is the first sign of preeclampsia? a. Fall in blood pressure b. Elevated blood glucose c. A large weight gain over a short time d. Chronic episodes of pica over the last 2 trimesters e. Mental confusion

Q: For the normal-weight woman, weight gain ideally follows a pattern of ____ during the first trimester and ____ per week thereafter. a. 1 pound; 2 pounds b. 1½ pounds; 2 pounds c. 2 pounds; 1 pound d. 2½ pounds; 2 pounds e. 3½ pounds; 1 pound

Q: Which of the following describes a relationship between body weight and pregnancy? a. Overweight women bear the greatest number of low-birth-weight infants. b. Weight gain during pregnancy is the sole determinant of fetus€s weight at birth. c. The increased incidence of neural tube defects of infants born to underweight women is due primarily to folate insufficiency. d. Underweight women who gain 30 lbs during pregnancy tend to birth smaller babies than heavier women who gain 30 lbs. e. Amniotic fluid accounts for nearly 1/3 of pregnancy-associated weight gain.

Q: In obese pregnant women, the risk for neural tube defects in the infant is believed to result from a. insufficient exercise. b. poor glycemic control. c. insufficient folate intake. d. higher prevalence of cesarean section. e. inadequate fetal circulation.

Q: What is the recommended range of weight gain, in lbs, during pregnancy for an underweight woman? a. 15-25 b. 28-40 c. 42-50 d. 55-62 e. 65-80

Q: What is the recommended range of weight gain, in lbs, during pregnancy for a normal-weight woman? a. 10-18 b. 19-24 c. 25-35 d. 36-44 e. 45-55

Q: Which of the following increases the risk of macrosomia? a. Folate deficiency b. Prepregnancy obesity c. Postpregnancy infection d. Gestational oxygen deprivation e. Very young maternal age

Q: What is macrosomia? a. A neural tube defect b. A high-birthweight infant c. Excessive weight gain of the mother d. Abnormal cravings for carbohydrate during pregnancy e. Abnormal weakness of uterine muscles

Q: What is the most reliable indicator of an infant€s future health status? a. Infant′s birthweight b. Mother′s weight before pregnancy c. Mother′s weight gain during pregnancy d. Mother′s nutrition status prior to pregnancy e. Maternal age

Q: The process by which maternal nutrient intake affects the child's development of diseases later in life is known as a. retrogenetics. b. reverse genetics. c. fetal programming. d. postpartum degenerative expression. e. genetic mutation.

Q: Approximately what percentage of pregnancies in the United States are unplanned? a. 10 b. 20 c. 35 d. 50 e. 75

Q: Studies report that folate supplements for women may lower the incidence of neural tube defects of infants when the vitamin is taken during the a. last trimester of pregnancy. b. second trimester of pregnancy. c. second and third trimesters of pregnancy. d. month before conception through the first trimester of pregnancy. e. prior to conception but stopping when pregnancy occurs.

Q: Which of the following nutrients taken as a prenatal supplement has been found to be associated with a lower incidence of neural tube defects? a. Iron b. Folate c. Calcium d. Cobalamin e. Iodine

Q: What organ is most affected in anencephaly? a. Liver b. Heart c. Brain d. Pancreas e. Lungs

Q: An infant born with incomplete closure of the spinal cord has a. spina bifida. b. macrosomia. c. anencephaly. d. FAS. e. spinal agenesis.

Q: The neural tube develops into the a. umbilical cord. b. liver and pancreas. c. gastrointestinal tract. d. brain and spinal cord. e. cardiovascular system.

Q: At what stage of pregnancy does an embryo show a beating heart and a complete central nervous system? a. 8 weeks b. 12 weeks c. 16 weeks d. 20 weeks e. 24 weeks

Q: What is the term for the developing infant from the eighth week after conception until birth? a. Fetus b. Ovum c. Zygote d. Embryo e. Blastocyst

Q: What name is given to the time period during which irreversible damage to the fetus may occur from specific events such as malnutrition or exposure to toxins? a. Period of maximal sensitivity b. Critical period c. Fertility period d. Conceptual period e. Teratogenic period

Q: Gestation is generally divided into equal periods of a. 10 weeks, called quarters. b. 8 weeks, called quintiles. c. 4 months, called semesters. d. 3 months, called trimesters. e. 5 weeks, called periods.

Q: A newborn infant at full gestational age has an average length of a. 15 inches. b. 17 inches. c. 20 inches. d. 22 inches. e. 2 feet.

Q: A newly fertilized egg is known as a(n) a. fetus. b. ovum. c. zygote. d. embryo. e. blastocyst.

Q: What is the placenta? a. An organ from which the infant receives nourishment b. A muscular organ within which the infant develops before birth c. The developing infant from the eighth week after conception until birth d. The developing infant during its second through eighth week after conception e. The sac in which the developing infant is contained prior to birth

Q: Which of the following describes the capacity of a man to produce sperm and a woman to periodically produce a normal egg? a. Zygote b. Fertility c. Conception d. Implantation zone e. Reproductive competence

Q: Describe the hazards of using anabolic steroids and human growth hormone as ways of improving physical performance.

Q: Discuss the pros and cons of caffeine use in competitive athletic events.

Q: Why do many people and especially athletes believe in ergogenic aids?

Q: Describe an appropriate diet for physically active people.

Q: Discuss the need for water in maintaining physical performance.

Q: Describe the risks for hyperthermia and hypothermia in physically active people. What is the role of fluid support in prevention and treatment?

Q: How might supplemental vitamin E adversely affect physically active people?

Q: Compare the protein needs of endurance and strength athletes.

Q: Describe three factors that influence fat use during physical activity.

Q: What is the role of lactate in physical activity?

Q: Discuss the theory and application of resistance training.

Q: Define the progressive overload principle as it applies to physical fitness.

Q: Explain the meaning and significance of cardiorespiratory endurance.

Q: Define and provide examples of aerobic physical activity, moderate-intensity physical activity, and vigorous-intensity physical activity.

Q: Describe at least five major benefits associated with being physically fit.

Q: a. 2 k. Glucose b. 8 l. Creatine c. 20 m. Glycogen d. 70 n. Hydration e. 102 o. Flexibility f. 600 p. Lactate g. Oxygen q. Hypertrophy h. Fitness r. Hypothermia i. Alcohol s. Hyperthermia j. Caffeine t. Sports anemia 1)The body's ability to deal with stress 2)The capacity of the joints to move with less chance of injury 3)Increase in muscle size and strength 4)A precursor in the formation of a high-energy compound in muscle cells 5)Required for aerobic metabolism 6)A chief substance of the Cori cycle that is released by muscles 7)Depletion of this substance leads runners to experience "hitting the wall" 8)Recommended amount of carbohydrate as percentage of total energy intake of endurance athletes 9)Substance in muscle that serves as a source of energy and water 10)Maximum number of minutes that high intensity activity can be supported by the aerobic system 11)The U.S. average protein intake for males in grams 12)Transient condition of low blood hemoglobin in athletes 13)Early symptoms of this disorder include nausea and stumbling 14)Number of kcalories expended from evaporation of one liter of sweat 15)Early symptoms of this disorder include shivering and feeling cold 16)The replacement of fluids during physical activities 17)Recommended amount of water intake, in cups, for each pound of body weight lost from physical activity 18)Stimulant used to enhance performance during exercise 19)Depressant that promotes fluid losses 20)Recommended carbohydrate intake, in g/kg body weight, of athletes in heavy training

Q: ____________________ is a transient condition of low hemoglobin in the blood, associated with the early stages of sports training or other strenuous activity.

Q: ____________________ involves training the muscles to store as much glycogen as they can, while supplying the dietary glucose to enable them to do so.

Q: To meet the more prolonged demands of sustained activity, the muscles rely on the ____________________ to provide ATP for muscle contraction.

Q: After the first 10 seconds or so of intense activity, energy from the phosphagen system diminishes, so muscle cells call upon the ____________________.

Q: Immediately after the onset of a demand, before muscle ATP pools dwindle, a muscle enzyme begins to break down ____________________.

Q: ____________________ is the volume of blood discharged by the heart each minute.