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Q:
Under normal circumstances, what is the average percentage of dietary iron that is absorbed from a mixed diet? a. 9 b. 18 c. 27 d. 37 e. 45
Q:
Which of the following is known to enhance iron absorption? a. Tea b. Coffee c. Foods containing vitamin C d. Foods containing vitamin E e. Milk
Q:
Which of the following nutrients enhances iron absorption from the intestinal tract? a. Biotin b. Calcium c. Vitamin D d. Vitamin C e. Vitamin A
Q:
Which of the following foods provides iron in the most absorbable form? a. Rice b. Spinach c. Chicken d. Orange juice e. Watermelon
Q:
What percent of the total iron content of a normal diet is heme iron? a. 1 b. 5 c. 10 d. 15 e. 20
Q:
Which of the following compounds provides a major storage reservoir for iron? a. Ferritin b. Myoglobin c. Transferrin d. Hemoglobin e. Metallothionein
Q:
Which of the following is a characteristic of iron transport? a. Albumin is the major iron transport protein in the blood b. Transferrin in the blood carries iron to the bone marrow c. Hemochromatosis results from an inability to absorb and transport iron d. Ferritin functions by transporting iron from the spleen to the bone marrow e. Chelation is used to increase the bioavailability of iron.
Q:
What is the oxygen-carrying protein of muscle cells? a. Transferrin b. Myoglobin c. Hemoglobin d. Cytochrome e. Oxyglobin.
Q:
A measure of the rate at which a nutrient is absorbed and used by the body is termed a. net utilization. b. bioavailability. c. biological value. d. utilization efficiency. e. biofunctionality.
Q:
Which of the following is a characteristic of the trace minerals? a. A deficiency sign common to many trace minerals is dermatitis b. The amounts in foods are dependent, in part, on soil composition c. Deficiencies are more difficult to recognize in children than in adults d. The amount of all trace minerals in the average person totals approximately 100 grams e. Deficiencies of trace minerals are virtually unknown, although toxicities are well documented.
Q:
Outline the adverse effects and mechanisms of alcohol intake and of smoking on bone health.
Q:
Discuss the role of physical activity in reducing the risk for osteoporosis.
Q:
In the body, water that resides between cells is known as a. diuretic fluid. b. interstitial fluid. c. edematous fluid. d. intravascular fluid. e. avascular fluid.
Q:
Which of the following contributes most to the weight of the human body? a. Iron b. Water c. Protein d. Calcium e. Fat
Q:
What is the body's most indispensable nutrient? a. Fat b. Water c. Protein d. Glucose e. Sodium
Q:
Which of the following is a feature of water and nutrition? a. Water intoxication is rare but can result in death b. Water losses from the body are highest through the feces c. Chronic high intakes increase the risk for bladder cancer d. Soft water has significant concentrations of magnesium e. Hard water contributes substantial potassium
Q:
Where is interstitial water found? a. Within cells b. Between cells c. Within the lungs d. Within blood vessels e. Within the digestive system
Q:
Which of the following is present in highest concentration in soft water? a. Sodium b. Calcium c. Manganese d. Phosphorus e. Magnesium
Q:
Approximately how many mL of water/day are produced by metabolism? a. 100-200 b. 200-300 c. 300-400 d. 400-500 e. 500-600
Q:
Abnormally low blood sodium concentration is known specifically as a. hypertension. b. hyponatremia. c. hyperkalemia. d. water intoxication. e. hypodiuresis.
Q:
How does antidiuretic hormone function? a. It activates renin b. It activates angiotensin c. It stimulates water reabsorption by the kidneys d. It stimulates sodium reabsorption by the kidneys e. It activates aldosterone
Q:
What organ provides the major control for homeostasis of body fluids? a. Liver b. Heart c. Kidneys d. Skeletal muscle e. Pancreas
Q:
Which of the following types of drinking water contains the lowest amount of minerals? a. Soft water b. Hard water c. Natural water d. Distilled water e. Carbonated water
Q:
What pituitary hormone regulates kidney retention of water? a. Thyroxine b. Cortisone c. Epinephrine d. Antidiuretic hormone e. Aldosterone
Q:
What is the function of renin? a. Activates angiotensin b. Activates antidiuretic hormone c. Stimulates the thirst mechanism d. Stimulates water absorption from the GI tract e. Stimulates the production of calcitonin.
Q:
Among the following, which promotes constriction of blood vessels, resulting in elevation of blood pressure? a. Phytates b. Angiotensin c. Aldosterone d. Carbonic acid e. Magnesium
Q:
Aldosterone and renin each function to promote a. electrolyte balance. b. retention of sodium. c. excretion of calcium. d. constriction of blood vessels. e. secretion of water.
Q:
Which of the following describes a way to make an electrolyte solution? a. Dissolve a teaspoon of salt in a glass of water b. Vigorously shake a mixture of corn oil and water c. Dissolve a pinch of corn starch in a glass of water d. Vigorously shake a pinch of table sugar in warm water e. Vigorously shake a tablespoon of corn syrup or molasses in warm water
Q:
Ions that carry a positive charge are called a. anions. b. cations. c. mineralytes. d. valence ions. e. proions.
Q:
What is the term for the pressure that develops when two solutions of varying concentrations are separated by a membrane? a. Hypotension b. Hypertension c. Osmotic pressure d. Hypertonic pressure e. Centripetal pressure
Q:
The concentration of electrolyte charges is measured in a. solute minerals. b. milliequivalents. c. ionic dissociates. d. total atomic masses. e. millijoules.
Q:
What is the major intracellular cation? a. Sodium b. Calcium c. Phosphate d. Potassium e. Sulphate
Q:
What is the major extracellular cation? a. Sodium b. Sulfate c. Protein d. Potassium e. Phosphorus
Q:
What is the major intracellular anion? a. Protein b. Sodium c. Phosphate d. Bicarbonate e. Bisphosphonate
Q:
What is the major extracellular anion? a. Sodium b. Lactate c. Sulfate d. Chloride e. Potassium
Q:
When a person loses fluid by sweating or bleeding, what minerals are lost in greatest quantity? a. Sodium and chloride b. Bicarbonate and sulfate c. Calcium and magnesium d. Potassium and phosphate e. Phosphate and potassium
Q:
What is the sodium-potassium pump? a. A cell membrane protein that uses energy to pump sodium into the cell b. A cell membrane protein that uses energy to pump sodium out of the cell c. A mechanism present throughout interstitial fluid for draining sodium from the circulation d. A mechanism present in the kidneys that exchanges sodium with lactic acid in order to regulate organic acid concentration e. A mechanism present in the stomach and small intestine wall that facilitates the absorption of minerals.
Q:
What is the force that moves water into a space where a solute is more concentrated? a. Buffer action b. Osmotic pressure c. Permeable selectivity d. Electrolyte imbalance e. Hypertonic pressure
Q:
What is a chief function of carbonic acid in the body? a. Activates angiotensin b. Activates angiotensinogen c. Helps with gastric digestion d. Helps maintain acid-base balance e. Activates calcitonin
Q:
What organ functions as the chief regulator of the body's acid-base balance by controlling the bicarbonate concentration? a. Skin b. Liver c. Kidneys d. Stomach e. Pineal
Q:
The normal blood pH range is approximately a. 6.75-6.90. b. 7.00-7.25. c. 7.35-7.45. d. 7.55-7.75. e. 8.35-8.85.
Q:
Normally, what is the relationship of the amount of sodium excreted to the amount ingested that day? a. Intake is higher. b. Excretion is higher. c. Intake and excretion are equal. d. Excretion is unrelated to intake. e. At extremes of intake, they are unrelated; at normal intake, intake is greater than excretion.
Q:
In a healthy individual with a daily requirement of 500 mg sodium, what would be the sodium balance after an intake of 10 g of common salt? a. Balanced b. Slight positive balance c. Strong positive balance d. Slight negative balance e. Strong negative balance
Q:
Which of the following is a general property of the minerals? a. When a food is burned, all the minerals are found in the ash b. Absorption efficiency from foods is similar among the minerals c. Minerals in food can be degraded by heating d. Some minerals in food are destroyed by exposure to ultraviolet light e. There are only two important trace minerals
Q:
The DASH diet plan was devised to prevent a. dehydration. b. constipation. c. osteoporosis. d. hypertension. e. diabetes.
Q:
The American Heart Association goal is to lower blood pressure by reducing daily sodium intake to less than a. 1500 mg. b. 1750 mg. c. 2000 mg. d. 2250 mg. e. 2500 mg.
Q:
What percentage of people's salt intake comes from salt added during cooking and at the table?
a. 5
b. 15
c. 50
d. 75
e. 90
Q:
Which of the following is a general characteristic of sodium in processed foods? a. Instant chocolate pudding is a low-sodium food. b. Processed foods contribute less than half of the sodium in our diets. c. Salted peanuts contain less sodium than cereals on a per-gram basis. d. Dairy products represent major sources of sodium in our diets. e. Frozen vegetables often include more salt than canned vegetables.
Q:
What is the greatest single source of sodium in the diet? a. Processed foods b. Unprocessed foods c. Natural salt content of foods d. Salt added during cooking e. Salt added at the table
Q:
What is hydroxyapatite? a. Abnormal cellular structures seen in osteoporosis b. The calcium-rich crystalline structure of teeth and bones c. A calcium regulatory hormone secreted from the trabeculae region of bone d. A compound in plant foods that binds to calcium and phosphorus and inhibits absorption e. Potassium crystals found in the framework of bones
Q:
Almost all (99%) of the calcium in the body is used to a. provide energy for cells. b. provide rigidity for the bones and teeth. c. regulate the transmission of nerve impulses. d. maintain the blood level of calcium within very narrow limits. e. maintain muscle health and function.
Q:
Which of the following is a feature of potassium supplements? a. Can cause toxicity b. Should always be taken with diuretics c. Necessary in treatment of low blood pressure d. Absorption of the mineral decreases markedly as intake increases e. Are important to take during pregnancy
Q:
Which of the following people are at known risk for potassium depletion? a. Athletes who are body-builders b. Construction workers in cold climates c. Those who ingest low amounts of fresh fruits/vegetables d. Those who consume insufficient amounts of salted foods e. Women with heavy menstrual periods
Q:
Which of the following is a symptom of potassium deficiency? a. Extreme thirst b. Muscle weakness c. Profound sweating d. Lowered blood pressure e. Hypoglycemia
Q:
Which of the following is a feature of potassium? a. Its levels are unrelated to blood pressure. b. Liberal intakes may correct hypertension. c. Major dietary sources are processed foods. d. Deficiencies are usually the result of deficient intakes. e. It is present at high levels in cheddar cheese.
Q:
Which of the following is the primary function of potassium? a. Participates in wound healing b. Helps maintain gastric acidity c. Acts as principal intracellular electrolyte d. Protects bone structures against degeneration e. Acts as a neurotransmitter
Q:
Which of the following is a major function of chloride? a. Participates in wound healing b. Helps maintain gastric acidity c. Acts as principal intracellular electrolyte d. Protects bone structures against degeneration e. Supports immune system functioning
Q:
What adverse response is known to occur in people who drink copious amounts of water while participating in intense physical activity? a. Dehydration b. Hyponatremia c. Metabolic alkalosis d. Elevated blood sodium e. Ketoacidosis
Q:
Hyponatremia refers to low blood concentration of a. renin. b. sodium. c. chloride. d. aldosterone. e. potassium.
Q:
Which of the following is a feature of calcium in the body? a. High blood calcium levels correlate with tetany. b. Abnormal dietary calcium intakes promote calcium rigor. c. Higher calcium intakes correlate with lower body fatness. d. Efficiency of intestinal calcium absorption is similar for children and adults. e. High calcium diets are highly effective in reducing body weight.
Q:
What is calmodulin? a. A calcium-binding protein b. A drug that treats osteoporosis c. A calcium supplement with high bioavailability d. A form of calcium used in fortifying soy products e. A drug that increases calcium availability
Q:
The muscle stiffness that results from abnormally high calcium levels in the blood is termed a. calcium rigor. b. calcium tetany. c. myosinotoxicosis. d. calmodulin dysfunction. e. hyperkalemia.
Q:
Calcium absorption is facilitated by the presence of a. fiber. b. vitamin D. c. phytic acid. d. oxalic acid. e. glucose.
Q:
Which of the following foods are significant sources of oxalates? a. Seeds and nuts b. Processed cheeses c. Fermented dairy products d. Spinach and sweet potatoes e. Cauliflower and cabbage
Q:
Calcium-binding protein acts within the a. kidneys. b. intestine. c. cortical bone. d. trabecular bone. e. stomach.
Q:
What is the calcium UL (mg/day) for college-aged adults? a. 1,500 b. 2,500 c. 3,000 d. 5,000 e. 7,500
Q:
People in the United States who are meeting their recommended intake for calcium usually are a. taking calcium supplements. b. consuming liberal amounts of spinach. c. on prescription osteoporosis medications. d. low consumers of phytate-containing foods. e. lacto-ovo-vegetarians.
Q:
Which of the following are good sources of dietary calcium? a. Berries and some tree fruits b. Pasta and rice c. Enriched grains d. Certain greens such as mustard and turnip greens e. Dark green leafy vegetables like spinach and Swiss chard
Q:
Which of the following is a feature of osteoporosis? a. It is most common in men over 45 years of age b. It has virtually no effect on blood calcium levels c. It results from short-term deprivation of dietary calcium d. It causes significant alterations in the blood levels of parathormone and calcitonin e. It affects about 30 million people in the U.S.
Q:
Which of the following is a feature of phosphorus? a. Involved in energy exchange b. Activates fat-soluble vitamins c. Ranks lowest among the minerals in amount present in the body d. Ranks highest among the minerals in amount present in the body e. In the U.S., phosphorous intake has decreased as fast food intake has increased
Q:
Which of the following is a feature of phosphorus in nutrition? a. Rich sources include fresh vegetables b. Dietary deficiencies are virtually unknown c. Absorption is known to be reduced by soft drink consumption d. Its participation in bone synthesis requires equivalent intake of dietary calcium e. Organ meats, such as liver, are relatively poor sources
Q:
Where is the majority of the body's magnesium found? a. Bones b. Teeth c. Fatty tissue d. Cells of soft tissue e. Muscle
Q:
Which of the following is a feature of magnesium in nutrition? a. Toxicity is common in people taking diuretics b. High intakes interfere with stability of tooth enamel c. The amounts present in hard water are poorly utilized d. Average intakes from food are below recommendations e. There is no upper level for intake set for adults
Q:
What is the major source of dietary sulfur? a. Fats b. Protein c. Mineral salts d. Carbohydrates e. Water
Q:
The outer, hard shell of bone is called a. cortical bone. b. dolomitic bone. c. trabecular bone. d. hydroxyl bone. e. structural bone
Q:
Which of the following is a feature of bone metabolism? a. Cortical bone mass alone is diagnostic of osteoporosis b. Trabecular bone is the chief supplier of blood calcium on a low-calcium diet c. The strongest predictor of bone density is calcium intake during the third decade of life d. Bone density of former smokers never achieves the level found in people who never smoked e. Heavy alcohol intake is modestly protective of bone density when beer and wine are consumed but not when liquor is
Q:
The incidence of death within 1 year of sustaining an osteoporosis-related hip fracture is about a. 2%. b. 6%. c. 20%. d. 33%. e. 50%
Q:
What does a DEXA scan measure? a. Bone density b. Severity of bone microfractures c. Bioavailability of calcium supplements d. Calcium absorption and excretion balance e. Movement of calcium throughout the body
Q:
The development of osteoporosis in men typically occurs at what age in relation to the appearance of osteoporosis in women? a. 5 years earlier b. About the same time c. 5 years later d. 10 years later e. 15 years later
Q:
The primary mechanism by which soy consumption may lower the risk for osteoporosis is related to a. greater kidney retention of calcium. b. the presence of bioavailable calcium. c. more stable hydroxyapatite crystal formation. d. the estrogen-like activity of soy phytochemicals. e. the use of calcium alginate in processing soy beans.