Accounting
Anthropology
Archaeology
Art History
Banking
Biology & Life Science
Business
Business Communication
Business Development
Business Ethics
Business Law
Chemistry
Communication
Computer Science
Counseling
Criminal Law
Curriculum & Instruction
Design
Earth Science
Economic
Education
Engineering
Finance
History & Theory
Humanities
Human Resource
International Business
Investments & Securities
Journalism
Law
Management
Marketing
Medicine
Medicine & Health Science
Nursing
Philosophy
Physic
Psychology
Real Estate
Science
Social Science
Sociology
Special Education
Speech
Visual Arts
Science
Q:
Production of excessive amounts of acetyl CoA molecules leads to the synthesis of ____. a. fatty acids only b. fatty acids and glucose only c. fatty acids and fructose only d. fatty acids, glucose, and amino acids e. amino acids only
Q:
Fatty acid oxidation results in the direct production of ____. a. ketones b. fructose c. pyruvate d. acetyl CoA e. lactate
Q:
What is a possible fate of acetyl CoA? a. Degradation to urea b. Synthesis to glycerol c. Synthesis to fatty acids d. Degradation to ammonia e. Storage in lipids
Q:
Which nutrient can be made from compounds composed of 2-carbon skeletons? a. Glucose b. Fructose c. Glycogen d. Fatty acids e. Pyruvate
Q:
What is a possible metabolic reaction in the cell? a. Pyruvate to urea b. Lactate to pyruvate c. Acetyl CoA to pyruvate d. Carbon dioxide to glycerol e. Fatty acids to glucose
Q:
When a person is performing intense physical exercise and begins to feel fatigue and a burning pain in the muscles, the response of the muscles is to synthesize more ____. a. lactate b. glucose c. citric acid d. fatty acids e. galactate
Q:
The Cori cycle involves the interconversion of ____. a. lactate and glucose b. glucose and amino acids c. pyruvate and citric acids d. fatty acids and acetyl CoA e. glycerol and glucose
Q:
An aerobic reaction is one that requires ____. a. alcohol b. oxygen c. nitrogen d. ammonia e. glucose
Q:
Which statement describes lactate production by muscle cells? a. It occurs only during intense exercise. b. When rapid, it causes muscle fatigue. c. It produces lactate that may eventually be used by the liver for glucose production. d. It lowers the pH of the muscle cell, thereby lowering muscle performance. e. It is an aerobic process.
Q:
Which of the following is a feature of aerobic metabolism? a. Little or no oxygen is consumed. b. Lactic acid is a major byproduct. c. Energy is produced more slowly than in anaerobic metabolism. d. Pyruvate is converted to glucose by reverse glycolysis to yield a net of 2 ATPs. e. The process can only be sustained for relatively brief periods of time.
Q:
The series of reactions involving the conversion of glucose to pyruvate is known as ____. a. pyrolysis b. glycolysis c. beta-oxidation d. coupled reaction e. gluconeogenesis
Q:
Glycolysis is the conversion of ____. a. glycogen to fat b. glycogen to protein c. glucose to pyruvate d. glucose to glycogen e. glycogen to glucose
Q:
Which statement describes a correct energy-yielding endpoint? a. Carbohydrates yield glucose only when proteins are not available. b. Proteins cannot yield fat stores. c. Fatty acids yield amino acids. d. Glycerol yields nonessential amino acids when nitrogen is present. e. Fatty acids yield glucose.
Q:
In photosynthesis, the plant uses energy from the sun, plus water and carbon dioxide, to synthesize ____. a. carbohydrates only b. fats and carbohydrates only c. protein and carbohydrates only d. fats, proteins, and carbohydrates e. protein only
Q:
A typical cell contains "powerhouses," which is another name for ____. a. DNA b. ribosomes c. mitochondria d. electron transport chains e. RNA
Q:
A feature of catabolic reactions is that they ____. a. involve the release of energy b. occur only in mitochondria c. involve consumption of energy d. occur only during loss of body weight e. require carbon dioxide
Q:
What term is specific to reactions in which simple compounds are combined into more complex molecules? a. Anabolic b. Catabolic c. Ergogenic d. Gluconeogenic e. Anaerobic
Q:
Which reaction is characterized as anabolic? a. Pyruvate synthesis from glucose b. Acetyl CoA synthesis from cholesterol c. Carbon dioxide synthesis from citric acid d. Cholesterol synthesis from acetyl CoA molecules e. Hydrolysis of glycogen to glucose
Q:
The site of lipid synthesis in the cell is the ____. a. nucleus b. Golgi bodies c. mitochondria d. smooth endoplasmic reticulum e. exoplasm
Q:
Which reaction is characterized as catabolic? a. Glucose formation from glycerol b. Pyruvate formation from glucose c. Albumin formation from amino acids d. Palmitic acid formation from acetate e. Formation of triglycerides from glycerol and fatty acids
Q:
In the adult body, food energy not stored as fat or glycogen is lost as ____. a. heat b. photons c. carbon dioxide d. electromagnetic radiation e. methane
Q:
What is the approximate percent efficiency of conversion of food energy to ATP energy in the body? a. 30% b. 50% c. 70% d. 90% e. 99%
Q:
Which statement defines a coenzyme? a. A unit consisting of an enzyme bound to reactants plus ATP b. An organic molecule required for the functioning of an enzyme c. The small, active part of an enzyme that binds to the organic reactants d. An inactive enzyme that becomes functional upon contact with specific cofactors e. An enzyme precursor
Q:
Which metabolic reaction occurs when a cell uses energy? a. ATP gains a phosphate group and becomes ADP. b. ADP gains a phosphate group and becomes ATP. c. ATP releases a phosphate group and becomes ADP. d. ADP releases a phosphate group and becomes ATP. e. ADP and ATP cycle back and forth repeatedly.
Q:
Which process describes the sum of all chemical reactions that go on in living cells? a. Digestion b. Metabolism c. Absorption d. Catabolism e. Anabolism
Q:
What is the major energy carrier molecule in most cells? a. ATP b. Glucose c. Pyruvate d. A kcalorie e. Acetyl CoA
Q:
Describe the signs and symptoms of phenylketonuria. What is the cause and what is the treatment?
Q:
Provide examples of how the dietary habits of grandparents can influence the body's metabolism and susceptibility to disease in future generations.
Q:
Provide several examples of beneficial and adverse consequences of activating or silencing gene expression.
Q:
What are the assumptions made by the DRI Committee in setting the RDA for protein?
Q:
What are the hazards of consuming amino acid supplements?
Q:
Explain the proposed relationships between body homocysteine levels and heart disease.
Q:
What is a limiting amino acid? What are the four amino acids most likely to be limiting in protein nutrition?
Q:
Compare and contrast the quality of protein foods derived from animals versus plants.
Q:
What is meant by nitrogen balance? How does it differ among infants, adults, and those who are injured or on weight-loss diets?
Q:
What are the signs and symptoms of sickle-cell anemia and what causes it?
Q:
List and define 5 major roles of proteins in the body.
Q:
What are the differences between transcription and translation in the synthesis of proteins?
Q:
Explain the processes of protein digestion and absorption.
Q:
Define protein denaturation and provide an example of a denatured protein.
Q:
Explain the differences among amino acids that are classified as essential, nonessential, or conditionally essential.
Q:
Matching: a. Soy b. Urea c. Pepsin d. Lysine e. Gelatin f. Alanine g. Insulin h. Infection i. Tyrosine j. Collagen k. Denatured l. Ribosome m. Enzyme n. Kwashiorkor o. Pregnancy p. Edema q. Hemoglobin r. Hydrophobic s. Homocysteine t. Buffer 1>A dietary nonessential amino acid 2>A conditionally essential amino acid 3>A small protein 4>A large protein that carries oxygen 5>Substances repelled by water 6>Describes protein exposed to severe heat 7>An active protease 8>A cell structure where protein synthesis takes place 9>A connective tissue protein 10>A protein catalyst 11>Excessive fluid residing between cells 12>Substance that keeps the pH constant 13>A condition that favors positive nitrogen balance 14>A condition that favors negative nitrogen balance 15>A product of amino acid breakdown 16>A dietary protein lacking tryptophan 17>A good quality protein source 18>A typical limiting amino acid 19>A condition of protein malnutrition 20>An amino acid associated with heart disease
Q:
The term ____________________ is used to describe the condition that develops when the diet delivers too little protein, too little energy, or both.
Q:
____________________ provide enough of all the essential amino acids needed to support the body's work.
Q:
The supply of amino acids derived from either food proteins or body proteins that collect in the cells and circulating blood and stand ready to be incorporated in proteins and other compounds or used for energy is called the ____________________.
Q:
Breaking down reactions are called ____________________ and building up reactions are called ____________________.
Q:
____________________ is the process of messenger RNA directing the sequence of amino acids and synthesis of proteins.
Q:
____________________ is the process of messenger RNA being made from a template of DNA.
Q:
____________________ enzymes on the membrane surfaces of the intestinal cells split most of the dipeptides and tripeptides into single amino acids.
Q:
The ____________________ is determined by weak electrical attractions within the polypeptide chain.
Q:
The simplest amino acid, ____________________, has a hydrogen atom as its side group.
Q:
____________________ are composed of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen atoms, arranged into amino acids linked in a chain.
Q:
The area of study that examines how environmental factors influence gene expression without changing the DNA is known as ____. a. genetics b. genomics c. nutritional genomics d. epigenetics e. nutrigenetics
Q:
A variation in a single nucleotide of a DNA strand is called a(n) ____. a. RNA switch b. thymine substitution c. environmental mutation d. single nucleotide polymorphism e. replication failure
Q:
Dietary restriction of phenylalanine combined with adequate tyrosine is the usual treatment for people born with the disorder ____. a. DNA b. ALC c. NLM d. PKU e. BHA
Q:
The study of how food interacts with genes is known as ____. a. nutritional genomics b. chromosomal nutrition c. nucleotide expression d. mutagenic expression e. personalized nutrition
Q:
The disease phenylketonuria is related chiefly to abnormal metabolism of ____. a. lactose b. omega-3 fats c. soy polysaccharides d. a specific amino acid e. glucose
Q:
What amino acid supplement has been advertised in the popular media for treating herpes infections? a. Lysine b. Arginine c. Tryptophan d. Phenylalanine e. Methionine
Q:
What amino acid has been linked to the development of the rare blood disorder eosinophilia-myalgia syndrome in people who took it as a supplement? a. Glycine b. Arginine c. Tryptophan d. Phenylalanine e. Proline
Q:
Which of the following is a feature of whey protein? a. It is a high-priced protein supplement. b. It is chemically extracted from gelatin. c. It is a waste product of cheese production. d. It enhances athletic performance when regularly consumed. e. It is no longer legal to use in over-the-counter products
Q:
Which of the following is an assumption made in the formulation of the RDA for protein? a. Dietary protein is of high quality only. b. Dietary protein is of animal origin only. c. Dietary carbohydrate and fat intakes are adequate. d. Dietary protein should represent 12% of total energy. e. Dietary protein needs are lower in infants and children.
Q:
What is a feature of the protein RDA? a. The recommendations are generous. b. The recommendations are highest proportionately for adult males. c. The recommendations are established at 8 grams per kilogram of ideal body weight. d. The recommendations assume that dietary protein is from animal sources only. e. The recommendations fail to consider the need to replace damaged tissues.
Q:
What would be the primary principle of wise diet planning as related to protein nutrition? a. Variety b. Moderation c. Nutrient density d. kCalorie control e. Balance
Q:
What is the actual ratio of calcium to protein intake (mg to g) for most U.S. women? a. 3:1 b. 9:1 c. 13:1 d. 21:1 e. 36:1
Q:
Which statement describes an association between protein intake and kidney function? a. Low-protein diets increase the risk for kidney stone formation. b. Restricting protein intake may slow the progression of kidney disease. c. High protein intakes over the long term represent a risk factor for kidney disease. d. Liberal protein intakes result in high urea production, which increases the long-term efficiency of the kidneys. e. High protein diets in childhood protect the kidneys from age- and illness-associated damage.
Q:
Which statement describe a relationship between protein/amino acids and heart disease? a. Substituting soy protein for animal protein raises blood cholesterol levels. b. High blood levels of the amino acid arginine are a risk factor for atherosclerosis. c. High levels of homocysteine in food promote elevation of blood low-density lipoproteins. d. Elevated blood homocysteine levels are associated with smoking cigarettes and drinking alcohol. e. High blood levels of phenylalanine dampen inflammatory responses, reducing risk of heart disease.
Q:
Which amino acid has been reported to lower blood pressure and reduce homocysteine levels? a. Arginine b. Cysteine c. Tryptophan d. Phenylalanine e. Methionine
Q:
Excessive amounts of homocysteine in the blood are thought to increase the risk for ____. a. cancer b. diabetes c. heart disease d. protein-energy malnutrition e. hypothyroidism
Q:
In general, the protein quality of legumes would be most improved by the addition of a plant protein rich in ____. a. lysine b. tyrosine c. methionine d. glutamic acid e. phenylalanine
Q:
In general, the protein quality in grains would be most improved by the addition of a plant protein rich in ____. a. lysine b. tryptophan c. phenylalanine d. glutamic acid e. methionine
Q:
Which statement characterizes the protein nutrition in vegetarians? a. Vegetarians in general must practice complementary protein nutrition. b. Most vegetarians should consume gelatin to ensure adequate tryptophan intake. c. Healthy vegetarians typically consume protein sources of very high digestibility. d. Most vegetarians eating a variety of foods need not balance essential amino acid intake at each meal. e. A significant majority of vegetarians experience clinically significant protein malnutrition.
Q:
What is a "limiting" amino acid in a protein? a. A nonessential amino acid present in high amounts, which inhibits protein synthesis b. An amino acid of the wrong structure to be utilized for protein synthesis efficiently c. An essential amino acid present in insufficient quantity for body protein synthesis to take place d. An amino acid that limits the absorption of other essential amino acids by competing with them for transport sites within the GI tract e. An amino acid that has the paradoxical effect of causing catabolism
Q:
If the diet is lacking an essential amino acid, what will be the likely course of action? a. Body cells will synthesize it. b. Protein synthesis will be limited. c. Health will not be affected as long as other nutrients are adequate. d. Proteins will be made but they will lack that particular amino acid. e. Massive muscle wasting will occur.
Q:
Which animal-derived protein is classified as a poor-quality protein? a. Fish b. Cheese c. Gelatin d. Turkey e. Fatty fish
Q:
Which of the following food proteins has the best assortment of essential amino acids for the human body? a. Egg b. Rice c. Corn d. Gelatin e. Soy
Q:
What is the percent digestibility of most animal proteins? a. 50-59 b. 60-69 c. 70-79 d. 80-89 e. 90-99
Q:
What is the percent digestibility of most plant proteins? a. 30-50 b. 50-60 c. 60-70 d. 70-90 e. 90-99
Q:
What is the most likely reason for having an abnormally high blood urea level? a. Liver dysfunction b. Kidney dysfunction c. Protein intake twice the RDA d. Protein intake one-tenth the RDA e. Hyperstimulation of the immune system
Q:
What is the most likely reason for a person to have abnormally high blood ammonia levels? a. Liver dysfunction b. Kidney dysfunction c. Protein intake twice the RDA d. Protein intake one-tenth the RDA e. Hyperstimulation of the immune system
Q:
In the metabolism of amino acids for energy, what is the fate of the amino group? a. Excreted as urea b. Burned for energy c. Stored in the liver d. Converted to glucose e. Recycled in the liver