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Q:
What is the process whereby an amino group is combined with a keto acid to form an amino acid? a. Deamination b. Ureagenesis c. Transamination d. Ammoniogenesis e. Ketoacidosis
Q:
What is a consequence of excess protein intake? a. Decreased excretion of calcium b. Decreased size of the liver and kidneys c. Increased production and excretion of urea d. Increased protein storage by the liver and kidneys e. Improved renal functioning
Q:
What is the most likely side effect of a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet? a. Diarrhea b. Increased thirst c. Nitrogen toxicity d. Increased water retention in the body e. Weight gain
Q:
Approximately how much urea (g) can be produced daily by the average adult? a. 5 g b. 50 g c. 100 g d. 250 g e. 500 g
Q:
Protein sparing in the body is best achieved when a person ingests ____. a. proteins of plant origin only b. proteins of animal origin only c. adequate levels of carbohydrate and fat d. mixed protein sources on alternate days e. consumes a very low fat diet
Q:
When amino acids are deaminated, the immediate products are ammonia and often a ____. a. uric acid b. keto acid c. folic acid d. gluco acid e. phyto acid
Q:
What is meant by protein turnover? a. Nitrogen equilibrium b. The antibody-antigen complex c. The synthesis and degradation of body proteins d. The secondary structure of proteins that initiates folding e. The failure of the body to form needed proteins
Q:
What amino acid is used to synthesize the neurotransmitter serotonin and the vitamin niacin? a. Glycine b. Tyrosine c. Methionine d. Tryptophan e. Valine
Q:
What is the usual state of nitrogen balance for healthy infants, children, and pregnant women? a. Equilibrium b. Metabolic c. Positive d. Negative e. Homeostatic
Q:
What is the amino acid pool? a. The total amino acid content derived from a 24-hour dietary intake b. A measure of the circulating essential amino acid levels available for protein synthesis c. The total amount of free amino acids in the circulation destined for deamination and excretion d. A mix of essential and nonessential amino acids derived from protein breakdown and dietary protein intake e. The essential and nonessential amino acids from dietary intake that are available for protein synthesis
Q:
When nitrogen taken into the body exceeds nitrogen losses, we say the person is in ____. a. a healthy state b. nitrogen equilibrium c. positive nitrogen balance d. negative nitrogen balance e. nitrogen homeostasis
Q:
Which of the following may be used to determine protein utilization? a. Calorimetry b. Nitrogen balance c. Amino acid pool d. Supplementary value e. Body mass index
Q:
Which substance is involved in the clotting of blood? a. Opsin b. Fibrin c. Collagen d. Transferrin e. Thyroxin
Q:
Which of the following describes the structure of an antibody? a. Tripeptide b. Small nucleic acid c. Huge protein molecule d. Large peptide molecule e. Location of carbons
Q:
What is opsin? a. An antigen b. An antibody c. A light-sensitive protein d. A blood transport protein e. A sterol
Q:
How do sodium and potassium travel into and out of cells? a. Antidiuretic hormone transports potassium and prodiuretic hormone carries sodium. b. Specific transport proteins in the blood deliver the minerals to the cell cytoplasm. c. The balance of insulin and glucagon determines the movement of these minerals into and out of cells. d. Transport proteins within the cell membrane pick up and release the minerals across the membrane. e. A negative feedback loop uses blood glucose levels for transfer.
Q:
What function does a buffer perform? a. It helps emulsify fats. b. It helps maintain a constant pH. c. It facilitates chemical reactions. d. It helps protect against plaque buildup. e. It prevents degradation of proteins.
Q:
What is the relationship between body proteins and water? a. Proteins attract water. b. Water attracts proteins. c. Water degrades proteins. d. Proteins form polymers of water. e. Proteins repel water.
Q:
What type of protein would the body make in order to heal a wound? a. Ferritin b. Albumin c. Collagen d. Hemoglobin e. Enzyme
Q:
A common genetic variation which causes a change in the amino acid sequence in the structure of hemoglobin leads to the disease ____. a. diabetes b. marasmus c. phenylketonuria d. sickle-cell anemia e. hemolytic anemia
Q:
What is a ribosome? a. A template for protein synthesis b. A hard knot of subcutaneous protein mass c. A structure upon which proteins are assembled d. An antibody synthesized by specialized immune cells e. The product of failed protein synthesis
Q:
The process whereby messenger RNA is made from a DNA template is ____. a. expression b. sequencing c. transcription d. ribosome assembly e. translation
Q:
What best describes the structure of pepsin? a. Lipid b. Protein c. Nucleic acid d. Carbohydrate e. Sterol
Q:
What is the usual fate of orally ingested enzyme supplements? a. Digestion by gastrointestinal proteases b. Rapidly degradation by salivary secretions c. Almost complete absorption in original form from the stomach d. Complete absorption in original form from the jejunum e. Rapid excretion through the digestive system
Q:
The chief function of pepsin is to ____. a. emulsify dietary proteins b. activate hydrochloric acid c. activate pancreatic proteases d. cleave proteins into smaller polypeptides e. renature nonessential proteins
Q:
The function of a protease is to ____. a. hydrolyze proteins b. synthesize proteins c. hydrolyze ribosomes d. synthesize ribosomes e. synthesize macrophages
Q:
What digestive enzyme would be most affected in people who are unable to produce hydrochloric acid? a. Pepsin b. Transaminase c. Pancreatic protease d. Intestinal peptidase e. Salivary protease
Q:
In what organ is pepsin active? a. Stomach b. Pancreas c. Small intestine d. Large intestine e. Liver
Q:
The application of heat or acid to a protein that causes its shape to change is known as ____. a. stiffening b. condensation c. denaturation d. destabilization e. hydrolization
Q:
What is the process by which heat or acidity disrupts the normal shape of a protein chain? a. Digestion b. Condensation c. Denaturation d. Hydrogenation e. Hydrolysis
Q:
An example of a protein with quaternary polypeptide structures is ____. a. insulin b. tryptophan c. hemoglobin d. disulfide bridges e. valine
Q:
Which of the following is a feature of hemoglobin? a. It has no tertiary structure. b. It holds the mineral calcium. c. It is constructed of four polypeptide chains. d. It has no primary or secondary structure. e. It is a ring protein.
Q:
When two amino acids are chemically joined together, the resulting structure is called a ____. a. dipeptide b. diglyceride c. polypeptide d. disaccharide e. polysaccharide
Q:
What type of reaction is required to bind two molecules of glycine together and release a molecule of water? a. Hydrolysis b. Deamination c. Denaturation d. Condensation e. Transnaturation
Q:
What amino acid is classified as conditionally essential when dietary intake of phenylalanine is insufficient or the body cannot normally metabolize phenylalanine? a. Cysteine b. Tyrosine c. Glutamine d. Isoleucine e. Asparagine
Q:
Which item is an essential amino acid? a. Cysteine b. Leucine c. Glutamine d. Serine e. Alanine
Q:
Which item is a nonessential amino acid in human nutrition? a. Proline b. Threonine c. Methionine d. Tryptophan e. Phenylalanine
Q:
What is the simplest amino acid? a. Valine b. Glycine c. Alanine d. Methionine e. Tryptophan
Q:
Which item is contained in an amino acid? a. An acid group b. An ester group c. An aldehyde group d. A central hydrogen atom e. A central oxygen atom
Q:
Which term is used to classify amino acids in the diet? a. Essential b. Unessential c. Partially essential d. Moderately essential e. Rarely essential
Q:
Which element is found in certain amino acids? a. Iron b. Sulfur c. Calcium d. Potassium e. Mercury
Q:
What is the primary factor that differentiates one amino acid from another? a. The side group b. The central carbon atom c. The number of oxygen atoms d. The number of nitrogen atoms e. The presence of a central hydrogen atom
Q:
What is a conjugated linoleic acid? a. A type of cis-fatty acid b. A partially hydrogenated omega-6 lipid c. A fatty acid with the chemical make-up of linoleic acid but with a different configuration d. A fatty acid resulting from the partial hydrolysis of dietary phospholipids in the intestinal tract e. A nitrogen-containing compound found in foods and made in the body from the amino acid methionine.
Q:
Which product is considered a major source of polyunsaturated fat? a. Corn oil b. Palm oil c. Peanut oil d. Chicken fat e. Olive oil
Q:
Which product provides abundant amounts of omega-3 fatty acids? a. Palm oil b. Walnut oil c. Soybean oil d. Flaxseed oil e. Corn oil
Q:
Which product has the highest percentage of its fat in polyunsaturated form? a. Butter b. Corn oil c. Beef tallow d. Coconut oil e. Palm oil
Q:
What product has the highest percentage of its fat in saturated form? a. Butter b. Walnut oil c. Beef tallow d. Coconut oil e. Chicken fat
Q:
The easiest way to increase intake of oleic acid is to consume more ____. a. lard oil b. corn oil c. olive oil d. safflower oil e. tallow oil
Q:
Which compound is missing four or more hydrogen atoms? a. Monounsaturated fatty acid b. Polyunsaturated fatty acid c. Long-chain saturated fatty acid d. Short-chain saturated fatty acid e. Triglycerides
Q:
What is a common dietary saturated fatty acid? a. Oleic acid b. Stearic acid c. Linolenic acid d. Arachidonic acid e. Lineolic acid
Q:
Lipids differ in their degree of saturation or unsaturation due to their number of ____. a. amino acids b. double bonds c. saccharide units d. peptide linkages e. oxygen atoms
Q:
Which item is a chief source of short-chain and medium-chain fatty acids? a. Fish b. Eggs c. Dairy d. Soybeans e. Fruit
Q:
What is the chemical composition of fats? a. Hexose polymers b. Glycogen granules c. Fatty acids and glycerol d. Combinations of long-chain fatty acids e. Esters of carbon and hydrogen
Q:
Lipids that are liquid at room temperature are known as ____. a. oils b. fats c. omegas d. glycerols e. phospholipids
Q:
Lipids that are solid at room temperature are known as ____. a. oils b. fats c. omegas d. glycerols e. phospholipids
Q:
In which form are most dietary lipids found? a. Sterols b. Glycerols c. Triglycerides d. Monoglycerides e. Polyglycerides
Q:
Which statement characterizes the lipase enzymes? a. Gastric lipase plays a significant role in fat digestion in adults b. Intestinal mucosal lipase is responsible for most dietary fat digestion c. Salivary gland lipase (lingual lipase) plays an active role in fat digestion in infants d. Pancreatic lipase hydrolyzes most dietary triglycerides completely to glycerol and free fatty acids e. Pancreatic lipase forms emulsified fats from monoglycerides
Q:
What term may be used to describe a hydrophobic substance? a. Lipophilic b. Lipophobic c. Glycerophilic d. Glycerophobic e. Emulsifiable
Q:
Which of the following is a characteristic of cholesterol? a. It is absorbed directly into the blood b. It is a precursor for bile and vitamin D synthesis c. It is not formed in the body when provided by the diet d. It is found in abundance in tropical fats such as palm oil e. It has no functions in the healthy body.
Q:
What is the major source of "good" cholesterol? a. Fatty fish b. Fatty meat c. Endogenous synthesis d. Monounsaturated and polyunsaturated fatty acids e. Dairy foods
Q:
Which food contains cholesterol? a. Corn b. Olives c. Roasted turkey d. Roasted peanuts e. Boiled potatoes
Q:
About how much cholesterol is synthesized by the liver every day? a. 100 to 300 mg b. 300 to 500 mg c. 500 to 800 mg d. 800 to 1500 mg e. 1500 to 2500 mg
Q:
Which statement describes is a feature of choline? a. It is a part of lecithin. b. It is a type of cis-fatty acid. c. It is a type of trans-fatty acid. d. It is attached to omega-3 fatty acids. e. It has a multiple ring structure.
Q:
What type of compound is lecithin? a. Bile salt b. Glycolipid c. Lipoprotein d. Phospholipid e. Sterol
Q:
Which statement describes a feature of trans-fatty acids? a. In nature, most double bonds are trans. b. Hydrogenation converts trans-fatty acids to cis-fatty acids. c. The conversion of cis-fatty acids to trans-fatty acids is inhibited by the presence of antioxidants. d. In the body, trans-fatty acids are metabolized more like saturated fats than like unsaturated fats. e. The hydrogen atoms are located on the same side of a double bond.
Q:
Bile is known to assist in the absorption of ____. a. fat b. carbohydrate c. protein d. vitamins e. minerals
Q:
How is soluble fiber in the diet thought to help lower blood cholesterol level? a. It denatures cholesterol in the stomach. b. It hydrolyzes cholesterol in the intestinal tract. c. It traps cholesterol in the intestinal tract and thus inhibits its absorption. d. It enhances excretion of bile leading to increased cholesterol turnover. e. It binds to the fats and denatures them.
Q:
Chylomicrons are synthesized within the ____. a. liver b. intestinal cells c. lymphatic system d. storage compartment of plant seeds e. spleen
Q:
What part of the gastrointestinal tract is the predominant site of dietary fat hydrolysis? a. Mouth b. Stomach c. Small intestine d. Large intestine e. Esophagus
Q:
In the digestion of fats, emulsifiers function as ____. a. enzymes b. hormones c. detergents d. chylomicrons e. macrophages
Q:
Which lipoprotein contains the highest percentage of cholesterol? a. Chylomicron b. Low-density lipoprotein c. High-density lipoprotein d. Very-low-density lipoprotein e. Very-high density lipoprotein
Q:
In comparison to a low-density lipoprotein, a high-density lipoprotein contains ____. a. less lipid b. less protein c. more cholesterol d. more carbohydrate e. more triglyceride
Q:
Which example characterizes enterohepatic circulation? a. Chylomicron conversion to LDLs and HDLs b. Recycling of bile from the intestine to the liver c. Hormonal control of pancreatic digestive secretions d. Liver secretion of eicosanoids that promote absorption of eicosanoid precursors e. Cholesterol that is made from bile in the small intestine and transported to the liver
Q:
Spherical complexes of emulsified fats are known as ____. a. micelles b. chylomicrons c. monolipomicrons d. endogenous bilayer aggregates e. polymerized lipids
Q:
What are the substances resistin and adiponectin? a. Glycolipids that regulate synthesis of lipoproteins b. Intestinal cell hormones that regulate secretion of bile c. Intestinal cell hormones that trigger secretion of pancreatic juice d. Proteins secreted from fat cells that help regulate energy balance e. Substances that dampen inflammation and decrease insulin resistance
Q:
A high risk of heart attack correlates with high blood levels of ____. a. free fatty acids b. high-density lipoproteins c. low-density lipoproteins d. very low-density lipoproteins e. omega-3 fatty acids
Q:
What tissue contains special receptors for removing low-density lipoproteins from the circulation? a. Liver b. Adipose c. Arterial walls d. Skeletal muscle e. Smooth muscle
Q:
After a fat-containing meal is absorbed, about how many hours does it take the body to remove the chylomicrons from the blood? a. 2 b. 5 c. 10 d. 14 e. 16
Q:
Aspirin works to reduce the symptoms of infection or pain by retarding the synthesis of a. arachidonic acid. b. certain eicosanoids. c. certain saturated fatty acids. d. certain unsaturated fatty acids. e. certain adipokines
Q:
What is the immediate precursor for the eicosanoids? a. Glucose b. Hormones c. Fatty acids d. Cholesterol e. Lipases