Q&A Hero

Q: A health magazine contacts you for your expert opinion on what measure best describes the amounts of nutrients that should be consumed by the population. How should you reply? a.The Dietary Reference Intakes, because they are a set of nutrient intake values for healthy people in the United States and Canada b.The Tolerable Upper Intake levels, because they are the maximum daily amount of a nutrient that appears safe for most healthy people c.The Estimated Average Requirements, because they reflect the average daily amount of a nutrient that will maintain a specific function in half of the healthy people of a population d.The Recommended Dietary Allowances, because they represent the average daily amount of a nutrient considered adequate to meet the known nutrient needs of practically all healthy people. e.The Estimated Energy Requirement, because it represents what will maintain energy balance and good health in a person of a given age, gender, weight, height, and level of physical activity

Q: A group of people consumes an amount of protein equal to the estimated average requirement for their population group. What percentage of people will receive insufficient amounts? a.10 b.25 c.33 d.40 e.50

Q: What is the smallest amount of a nutrient that, when consumed over a prolonged period, maintains a specific function? a.nutrient allowance b.nutrient requirement c.nutrient tolerable limit d.nutrient adequate intake e.nutrient recommendation

Q: Before publication in a reputable journal, the findings of a research study must undergo scrutiny by experts in the field in a process known as ____. a.peer review b.cohort review c.research intervention d.double-blind examination e.peer replication

Q: An increase in exercise accompanied by a decrease in body weight is an example of a ____. a.variable effect b.positive correlation c.negative correlation d.randomization effect e.placebo effect

Q: You have been asked to help a top nutrition researcher conduct human experiments on vitamin C. As the subjects walk into the laboratory, you distribute all the vitamin C pill bottles to the girls and all the placebo pill bottles to the boys. The researcher instantly informs you that there are two errors in your research practice. What steps should you have taken to conduct your experiment correctly? a.Giving all the boys the vitamin C and the girls the placebo, and telling them what they were getting b.Distributing the bottles randomly, randomizing the subjects, and telling them what they were getting c.Telling the subjects which group they were in, but preventing yourself from knowing the contents of the pill bottles d.Preventing yourself from knowing what is in the pill bottles, and distributing the bottles randomly to the subjects e.Allowing the subjects to decide whether they take Vitamin C or the placebo, and then giving them the opposite of what they requested

Q: What is one benefit of using a large sample size in an experiment? a.Chance variation is less likely to affect the results. b.The possibility of a placebo effect is eliminated. c.The experiment will be double-blind. d.The control group will be similar to the experimental group. e.Experimenter bias is less likely to have an effect.

Q: What is one benefit of using controls in an experiment? a.The size of the groups can be very large. b.The subjects do not know anything about the experiment. c.The subjects who are treated are balanced against the placebos. d.The subjects are similar in all respects except for the treatment being tested. e.The costs associated with the study are usually much lower.

Q: What is one major weakness of a laboratory-based study? a.The costs are typically prohibitive. b.Findings are difficult to replicate. c.Results from animal testing cannot be applied to human beings. d.Experimental variables cannot be easily controlled. e.Causality cannot be inferred.

Q: In the scientific method, a tentative solution to a problem is called a ____. a.theory b.prediction c.hypothesis d.correlation e.deduction

Q: How does a double-blind experiment work? a.Both subject groups take turns getting each treatment. b.Neither subjects nor researchers know which subjects are in the control or experimental group c.Neither group of subjects knows whether they are in the control or experimental group, but the researchers do know. d.Both subject groups know whether they are in the control or experimental group, but the researchers do not know. e.Neither the subjects nor the persons having contact with the subjects know the true purpose of the experiment.

Q: What is the study of how a person's genes interact with nutrients? a.genetic counseling b.nutritional genomics c.genetic metabolomics d.nutritional genetics e.biogenetic nutrition

Q: Your friend Carrie took a daily supplement of vitamin C and tells you that she feels a lot better. Her statement to you is best described as a(n) ____. a.anecdote b.theory. c.interpretation d.conclusion. e.hypothesis

Q: How many minerals are known to be essential for human nutrition? a.8 b.12 c.16 d.20 e.24

Q: Which statement is true of minerals in their role as nutrients? a.They are organic. b.They yield 4 kcalories per gram. c.Some become dissolved in body fluids. d.Some may be destroyed during cooking. e.They are more fragile than vitamins.

Q: How many vitamins are known to be required in the diet of human beings? a.5 b.8 c.10 d.13 e.17

Q: Which statement best describes the composition of most foods? a.Most contain only one of the three energy nutrients, although a few contain all of them. b.They contain equal amounts of the three energy nutrients. c.They contain mixtures of the three energy nutrients, although only one or two may predominate. d.They contain only two of the three energy nutrients, and those two are contained in equal amounts. e.They contain only two of the three energy nutrients, and one is present in far greater amounts than the other.

Q: What results from the metabolism of energy nutrients? a.Energy is released. b.Body fat increases. c.Energy is destroyed. d.Body water decreases. e.Body mass increases.

Q: Which nutrient source will yields more than 4 kcalories per gram? a.plant fats b.plant proteins c.animal proteins d.plant carbohydrates e.animal carbohydrates

Q: A weight reduction regimen calls for a daily intake of 1400 kcalories, which includes 30 g of fat. Approximately what percentage of the total energy is contributed by fat? a.8.5% b.15.0% c.19.0% d.25.5% e.32.0%

Q: A normal half-cup vegetable portion weighs approximately how many grams? a.5 b.50 c.100 d.150 e.200

Q: Approximately how many milliliters are contained in a half-cup of milk? a.50 b.85 c.120 d.170 e.200

Q: Units of energy used by most scientists and nutritionists, aside from those in the United States, are expressed in ____. a.newtons b.liters c.kilojoules d.kilocalories e.grams

Q: Food energy is commonly expressed in kcalories and in ____. a.kilojoules b.kilograms c.kilometers d.kilonewtons e.kiloliters

Q: Gram for gram, which class of nutrient provides the most energy? a.fats b.alcohols c.proteins d.carbohydrates e.vitamins and minerals

Q: How much energy is required to raise the temperature of one kilogram (liter) of water 1°C? a.10 calories b.100 calories c.1 kilocalorie d.10 kilocalories e.100 kilocalories

Q: The term organic, as related to compounds, would be best defined as ____. a.products sold at health food stores b.products grown without use of pesticides c.foods having superior nutrient qualities d.substances with carbon-carbon or carbon-hydrogen bonds e.substances that contain water

Q: An essential nutrient is one that ____. a.must be made in large quantities by the body b.can only by synthesized by the body c.cannot be made in sufficient quantities by the body d.is used to synthesize other compounds in the body e.must be both consumed and synthesized to be complete

Q: Which nutrient is an organic compound? a.salt b.water c.calcium d.vitamin C e.iron

Q: Which nutrient is classified as a micronutrient? a.minerals b.proteins c.alcohols d.carbohydrates e.fats

Q: Which nutrient is an example of a macronutrient? a.proteins b.minerals c.water-soluble vitamins d.fat-soluble vitamins e.water

Q: By chemical analysis, what nutrient is present in the highest amounts in most foods? a.fats b.water c.proteins d.carbohydrates e.vitamins and minerals

Q: What type of nutrient is needed by the body and must be supplied by foods? a.nutraceutical. b.metabolic nutrient c.organic nutrient d.essential nutrient e.phytonutrient.

Q: Nonnutrient substances found in plant foods that may demonstrate biological activity in the body are commonly known as a.bioenhancements b.inorganic fibers c.phytochemicals d.phytoactive chemicals e.nonnutritive additives

Q: What term describes foods that contain nonnutrient substances whose known action in the body is to promote well-being to a greater extent than that contributed by the food's nutrients? a.fortified foods b.enriched foods c.functional foods d.health-enhancing foods e.bioavailable foods

Q: Farah is viewing an exciting sports match of her favorite team and eating because of nervousness. Her food choice will most likely be based on ____. a.regional cuisines b.preferences c.emotional comfort d.positive association e.functional value

Q: The motive for a person who alters his diet due to religious convictions is most likely related to his ____. a.values b.body image c.ethnic heritage d.functional association e.comfort

Q: Which individual is making a food choice based on negative association? a.A tourist from China who rejects a hamburger due to unfamiliarity b.A child who spits out his mashed potatoes because they taste too salty c.A teenager who grudgingly accepts an offer for an ice cream cone to avoid offending a close friend d.An elderly gentleman who refuses a peanut butter and jelly sandwich because he considers it a child's food e.An adult who refuses to eat foods that are not locally-sourced and organic

Q: A person who eats a bowl of oatmeal for breakfast every day is most likely making a food choice based on ____. a.habit b.availability c.body image d.environmental concerns e.cultural values

Q: A child develops a strong dislike of noodle soup after she consumes a bowl while sick with the flu. Her reaction is an example of a food-related ____. a.habit b.social interaction c.emotional turmoil d.negative association e.comfort eating

Q: What is the chief reason most people choose the foods they eat? a.cost b.taste c.convenience d.nutritional value e.habit

Q: Which characteristic is most typical of a chronic disease? a.It has a rapid onset. b.It rarely has noticeable symptoms. c.It produces sharp pains d.It progresses gradually. e.It disrupts daily life, but is unlikely to be life-threatening.

Q: When someone is emotionally aroused, the hippocampus plays a modulatory role in strengthening the consolidation of amygdala-based memory.

Q: In some of the fear-conditioning experiments described in your text, simple shapes like a blue square are used as the conditioned stimulus (CS).

Q: The role of the amygdala in learning to respond to stimuli that have come to represent aversive events through fear conditioning is primarily implicit.

Q: One pathway through which information about unconditioned or conditioned stimuli reaches the amygdala is known as the high road and has a cortical component.

Q: A common conditioned stimulus (CS) in fear-conditioning experiments is an electric shock.

Q: The role of the amygdala in emotion and memory has been studied using a form of classical conditioning known as fear conditioning.

Q: The Papez circuit includes the hypothalamus, anterior thalamus, cingulate gyrus, and hippocampus.

Q: Paul Ekman argued that the perception of facial expressions of emotion is highly relative across cultures.

Q: Evidence from cognitive neuroscience suggests that the recognition of the six basic facial expressions of emotion is processed in the amygdala.

Q: Patient S.M., who had damage to the amygdala, had difficulty recognizing sadness in the expressions of other people.

Q: The insula is involved in which of the following? a. happiness b. disgust c. love d. none of the above

Q: Which area of the frontal lobe does NOT show increased activity in the cognitive control of emotion? a. left lateral prefrontal cortex b. left dorsomedial prefrontal cortex c. left dorsolateral prefrontal cortex d. left rostromedial prefrontal cortex

Q: A friend comes into your house and eats all the chocolate in your pantry. You come in and at first are very angry. Then you think to yourself, Thats actually better for me. Now I dont have to eat all those calories. What have you done? a. antecedent-focused regulation b. reappraisal c. reduction of your anger d. all of the above

Q: EEG studies have found that those with more __________ activity are better able to suppress negative emotion voluntarily. a. anterior b. posterior c. right-sided d. left-sided

Q: Emotional regulation refers to the processes that influence emotions in which of the following ways? a. the type of emotions we have b. when emotions occur c. how emotions are experienced and expressed d. all of the above

Q: Cunningham and colleagues (2004) suggested that although the amygdala plays a role in the automatic evaluation of social groups, controlled processing may implicate which of the following brain regions? a. the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex b. the parahippocampal cortex c. the ventrolateral prefrontal cortex d. the hippocampus

Q: Which of the following is true regarding the amygdala and indirect evaluations of racial bias? a. White participants who show greater amygdala activity during the presentation of black faces tend to have stronger racial bias as measured by an implicit behavioral task. b. People with bilateral amygdala damage do not show evidence of a racial bias on implicit behavioral tasks. c. Choices a and b are both correct. d. Neither a nor b is correct.

Q: Research on racial stereotypes conducted by Phelps and colleagues (2000) suggested that when EuropeanAmerican participants viewed pictures of unfamiliar AfricanAmerican men, activity in the __________ of these participants was correlated with the results of __________ behavioral measures of racial beliefs and attitudes. a. orbitofrontal cortex ; direct or explicit b. orbitofrontal cortex ; indirect or implicit c. amygdala ; direct or explicit d. amygdala ; indirect or implicit

Q: The implicit association test (IAT) measures the degree to which social groups are automatically associated with positive and negative evaluations. Which of the following is FALSE regarding this test? a. One variant of the test examines attitudes toward different racial groups. b. The primary measures of this test are response latencies. c. The IAT is designed to reflect declarative memories. d. Part of this test involves categorizing words as good or bad.

Q: Which of the following is typically true of people with bilateral damage to the amygdala? a. They do not produce a full range of facial expressions. b. They are like controls in their implicit and explicit reactions to race. c. They are unable to recognize emotional prosody. d. All of the above.

Q: The amygdala responds to fearful facial expressions a. regardless of whether the face is consciously perceived. b. only in cases where the face is consciously perceived. c. only in cases where the face is not consciously perceived. d. more strongly if the face is consciously perceived.

Q: Neuroimaging of the perception of facial expression suggests that a. the amygdala is selectively active when we view angry faces. b. the amygdala responds most strongly to angry faces, but it also shows some response to other expressions. c. the amygdala is selectively active when we view fearful faces. d. the amygdala responds most strongly to fearful faces, but it also shows some response to other expressions.

Q: The mechanism through which the amygdala modulates hippocampus-based learning may be related to the observation that a. arousing stimuli decay less quickly than nonarousing stimuli do. b. arousing stimuli decay more quickly than nonarousing stimuli do. c. arousing stimuli are more likely to create interference effects. d. arousing stimuli are less likely to create interference effects.

Q: Which of the following results best supports the notion that the amygdala modulates the consolidation of hippocampus-based memories? a. Hippocampus-based learning occurs only if the learner is not experiencing stress or arousal. b. Modulation of hippocampus-based learning occurs only if the learner is stressed or aroused. c. Modulation of hippocampus-based learning by arousal occurs only if the arousal is initiated prior to learning. d. Modulation of hippocampus-based learning by arousal occurs after the initial encoding of the task, during retention.

Q: A rats performance on the Morris water maze, a test of spatial ability and memory, will be affected in what way by a lesion to the amygdala? a. The rat will be impaired in learning all aspects of the water maze. b. The rat will not be impaired in a basic water maze task, but it will fail to show the stronger retention that would otherwise be expected if the task includes a physical stressor. c. The rat will be impaired in the basic aspects of the water maze task, but it will still show an improvement in retention if the task includes a physical stressor. d. The rat will be unimpaired in learning the water maze task because the amygdala is important only for the expression of previously learned conditioned responses.

Q: Which of the following is true regarding the amygdala and emotional learning? a. The amygdala plays a role in the expression of fear responses, regardless of whether the initial learning was implicit or explicit. b. The amygdala plays a role in the expression of fear responses only when the initial learning was implicit. c. The amygdala plays a role in the expression of fear responses only when the initial learning was explicit. d. The amygdala does not play a role in the expression of fear responses but does play a role in their acquisition.

Q: Which of the following is a way in which the amygdala interacts with hippocampus-dependent memories? a. inhibiting the parahippocampal cortex during encoding of emotional memories b. encoding the temporal relationship between conditioned and unconditioned stimuli c. filtering emotional stimuli and preventing the hippocampus from processing them d. enhancing the strength of explicit or declarative memories for emotional events

Q: A double dissociation has been demonstrated between people with damage to the __________, who show impairment in the explicit or declarative aspects of fear conditioning, and people with damage to the __________, who show impairment in the implicit or nondeclarative aspects of fear conditioning. a. frontal lobe ; hippocampus b. hippocampus ; amygdala c. amygdala ; basal ganglia d. basal ganglia ; frontal lobe

Q: In a fear-conditioning experiment, you find a person who shows a normal skin conductance response to a conditioned stimulus (such as a blue square) but who does not consciously remember the pairing of the conditioned stimulus with the unconditioned stimulus (such as a shock). This person may have damage to the a. amygdala. b. hippocampus. c. anterior cingulate. d. basal ganglia.

Q: Which of the following is true about the role of the amygdala in explicit emotional learning? a. The amygdala performs a modulatory role in declarative memory. b. The amygdala is thought to enhance explicit memory retrieval in the hippocampus. c. The amygdala is thought to enhance the initial encoding of explicit memories. d. None of the above: The amygdala is primarily involved in implicit, not explicit, emotional learning.

Q: Patient S.P., who had bilateral damage to the amygdala, participated in a study involving the pairing of a blue square with an electric shock. S.P.s skin conductance response (SCR) and verbal report indicated that a. she had an explicit expectation that the shock would occur after seeing the blue square and demonstrated an implicit fear-conditioning SCR response. b. she had an explicit expectation that the shock would occur after seeing the blue square but did not demonstrate any implicit fear-conditioning SCR response. c. she did not have any explicit expectation that the shock would occur after seeing the blue square but did demonstrate an implicit fear-conditioning SCR response. d. she did not have an explicit expectation that the shock would occur after seeing the blue square, nor did she demonstrate any implicit fear-conditioning SCR response.

Q: One of the two pathways of the amygdala is known as the high road. This pathway can be characterized as ___________ and involves a __________. a. slow and analytical ; direct signal from the thalamus to the amygdala. b. slow and analytical ; project to the cortex. c. quick and dirty ; direct signal from the thalamus to the amygdala. d. quick and dirty ; projection to the cortex.

Q: One of the two pathways of the amygdala is known as the low road. This pathway can be characterized as __________ and involves a __________. a. slow and analytical ; direct signal from the thalamus to the amygdala b. slow and analytical ; projection to the cortex c. quick and dirty ; direct signal from the thalamus to the amygdala d. quick and dirty ; projection to the cortex

Q: Lesions to the amygdala __________ unconditioned responses to aversive events, __________ the ability to acquire and express a conditioned response to neutral stimuli. a. do not block ; nor do they block b. do not block ; but they do block c. block ; but they do not block d. block ; and they also block

Q: Fear conditioning is a more specific instance of a. classical conditioning. b. operant conditioning. c. explicit memory. d. semantic memory.

Q: You conduct an experiment in which you expose a rat repeatedly to a 440 Hz tone and an electric shock. After a few trials, the rat begins to show signs of fear in response to the tone. In this paradigm, the electric shock is the __________ while the tone is the __________. a. conditioned stimulus ; unconditioned stimulus b. unconditioned stimulus ; conditioned stimulus c. conditioned response ; unconditioned response d. unconditioned response ; conditioned response

Q: The amygdala consists of several subnuclei. During fear conditioning, information converges on the __________ of the amygdala and from there projects to the __________. a. lateral nucleus ; central nucleus b. central nucleus ; lateral nucleus c. lateral geniculate nucleus ; medial geniculate nucleus d. medial geniculate nucleus ; lateral geniculate nucleus

Q: Which of the following is NOT true of the amygdala? a. It is highly interconnected with the forebrain. b. It is involved in the encoding of memory. c. It contains hormone receptors. d. It contains peptide receptors.