Q&A Hero

Q: Sets of expectations that prescribe how females and males should think, act, and feel are known as gender: A. roles. B. identities. C. expectancies. D.

Q: Gender _____ involves a sense of one's own gender, including knowledge, understanding, and acceptance of being male or female. A. role B. typing C. identity D.

Q: Nicola tries to take steps to avert potential misbehavior by her children before it takes place. The moment she sees that her four-year-old daughter is going to have a meltdown, she distracts her with a favorite activity. She has regular talks with her ten-year-old son where she tries to impart her cherished values to him and indicates what is expected of him as he grows older. Nicola is: A. being overly cautious in her parenting approach. B. being too authoritative in her approach to her children's moral development. C. acting as moral police to her children and may have a detrimental effect on their moral development. D.

Q: Among the most important aspects of the relationship between parents and children that contribute to children's moral development are relational quality, parental discipline, proactive strategies, and _____. A. religious affiliation B. family culture C. conversational dialogue D.

Q: In Thompson's view, young children are moral _____, striving to understand what is moral. A. apprentices B. novices C. explorers D.

Q: _____ refers to an internal regulation of standards of right and wrong that involves an integration of all three components of moral development, namely, moral thought, feeling, and behavior. A. Ethics B. Protocol C. Constitution D.

Q: Twice each month, Gini helps to serve dinner at the "Community Table", a program that assists homeless people in the town. She brings her two children, aged nine and eleven, with her and talks to them about the need to share time, food, and kindness with others who are less fortunate. Social cognitive theorists would say that Gini's children: A. are likely to develop moral behavior that includes helping others. B. are not likely to be impacted by this as their moral behavior is modeled on peers, not parents. C. will not benefit from these experiences until they are teens. D.

Q: Which of the following approaches holds that the processes of reinforcement, punishment, and imitation explain the development of moral behavior? A. Freud's psychoanalytic approach. B. The evolutionary psychology approach. C. The behavioral and social cognitive approach. D.

Q: Social cognitive theory provides several important principles to help us understand moral behavior of children. Which one of the following is NOT one of those principles? A. Moral behavior is always influenced by the situation. B. Self-control is evidenced by the child's ability to delay gratification. C. Punishment will always increase modeling of moral behavior. D.

Q: According to Jean Piaget, parent-child relations are less likely to advance moral reasoning than peer relations because: A. parents are inconsistent in delivering the consequences for broken rules. B. peers are less likely to allow negotiation and reasoning about broken rules. C. parents take an authoritative approach to handing down the rules. D.

Q: Piaget concluded that the changes in moral reasoning in children come about through: A. authoritative parent-child relations. B. religious and social conditioning. C. the children's family experiences. D.

Q: Young children tend to believe that if a rule is broken, punishment will be meted out immediately. This indicates a belief in the concept of: A. immanent justice. B. swift justice. C. concrete justice. D.

Q: Older children, who are _____, recognize that punishment occurs only if someone witnesses the wrongdoing and that even then, punishment is not inevitable. A. moral autonomists B. empathic thinkers C. gender-typed D.

Q: As children develop into moral autonomists,: A. consequences become more important than intentions. B. they think of justice and rules as unchangeable properties of the world. C. they start recognizing the principle of immanent justice. D.

Q: Katrina becomes extremely upset when her brother tries to change the rules of their game, and yells, "You can't do that! You can't change rules!" Katrina is exhibiting which of the following types of moral reasoning? A. Autonomous morality B. Heteronomous morality C. Peer-negotiated morality D.

Q: Dante is a 10-year-old boy who likes to play soccer during recess. One day a friend teaches him a different set of rules about the game that Dante accepts. He now plays soccer in a new way. Dante is in which stage of moral development? A. Autonomous morality B. Heteronomous morality C. Basic morality D.

Q: Julie believes that Jason's accidental act of breaking 12 plates is worse than Peter intentionally breaking two plates. Julie can be best described as a(n) _____. A. moral autonomist B. gender-typed individual C. empathic thinker D.

Q: Because young children are _____, they judge the rightness or goodness of behavior by considering its consequences, not the intentions of the actor. A. autonomous thinkers B. heteronomous moralists C. egocentric D.

Q: Jerome, 6, and Hani, 10, get up early on Saturday morning and decide to make "breakfast in bed" for their mother. While reaching for the bed tray in the back of the hall cabinet, they accidentally break one of their mother's favorite porcelain dolls. Jerome knows that he's going to get into "big trouble". Hani tells him not to worry because Mom would understand that it was an accident. In what stage would Jean Piaget categorize the moral reasoning of Jerome and Hani? A. Jeromeautonomous morality; Haniheteronomous morality B. Jeromeheteronomous morality; Haniautonomous morality C. Jeromeuniversal law morality; Hanicontext-specific morality D.

Q: From about _____, children show autonomous morality. A. 5 to 8 years of age B. 4 to 7 years of age C. 10 years of age and older D.

Q: According to Piaget's theory, from _____ years of age, children are in a transition showing some features of the first stage of moral reasoning and some features of the second stage, autonomous morality. A. 7 to 10 B. 4 to 7 C. 10 to 12 D.

Q: From about _____ years of age, children display heteronomous morality. A. 1 to 3 B. 4 to 7 C. 10 to 12 D.

Q: Which of the following is the first stage of Piaget's theory of moral development? A. Autonomous morality B. Initiative versus guilt C. Heteronomous morality D.

Q: The ability to discern another's inner psychological state is known as: A. correspondence. B. congruence. C. perspective taking. D.

Q: When her mother asks Selena why she feels so sad, Selena says it is because her best friend just lost her puppy. Selena is exhibiting: A. guilt. B. empathy. C. correspondence. D.

Q: _____ is responding to another person's feelings with an emotion that echoes the other's feelings. A. Guilt B. Empathy C. Correspondence D.

Q: According to Freud, to reduce anxiety, avoid punishment, and maintain parental affection, children identify with parents, internalizing their standards of right and wrong, and thus form the: A. alter ego. B. ego. C. superego. D.

Q: Feelings of anxiety and guilt are central to the account of moral development provided by _____ theory. A. Vygotsky's sociocultural cognitive B. Piaget's cognitive development C. Erikson's psychosocial D.

Q: According to Freud, the moral element of the personality is called the _____. A. id B. superid C. ego D.

Q: _____ development involves the development of thoughts, feelings, and behaviors regarding rules and conventions about what people should do in their interactions with other people. A. Conventional B. Superego C. Moral D.

Q: Marjorie chooses to deny, ignore, or change the negative emotions of her children. She is an: A. emotion-coaching parent. B. emotion-criticizing parent. C. emotion-dismissing parent. D.

Q: Barbara monitors her children's emotions, views their negative emotions as opportunities for teaching, and assists her children in labeling their emotions. She is an: A. emotion-facilitator parent. B. emotion-supportive parent. C. emotion-coaching parent. D.

Q: Developmental psychologists would describe Jennifer as an "emotion-dismissing" parent to her son. In which of the following types of behavior is Jennifer most likely to engage? A. She praises her son when he performs a task well. B. She ignores her child when he cries. C. She engages in more scaffolding with her son. D.

Q: The children of _____ parents are better at soothing themselves when they get upset, more effective in regulating their negative affect, focus their attention better, and have fewer behavior problems than the children of emotion-dismissing parents. A. emotion-coaching B. emotion-facilitator C. emotion-encouraging D.

Q: _____ parents interact with their children in a less rejecting manner, use more scaffolding and praise, and are more nurturant than are emotion-dismissing parents. A. Emotion-dismissing B. Emotion-facilitator C. Emotion-coaching D.

Q: When Brianna is upset, her mother facilitates open discussion about why she is upset and helps her figure out how to deal with the negative emotions. Therefore, Brianna's mother takes an _____ approach to parenting. A. emotion-dismissing B. emotion-criticizing C. emotion-coaching D.

Q: Self-conscious emotions do not appear to develop until self-awareness appears at approximately _____. A. 1 to 2 months of age B. 4 to 8 months of age C. 6 to 12 months of age D.

Q: Hans feels ashamed when his parents say "You should feel bad about biting your sister!" To experience a _____ emotion like shame, Hans must be able to refer to himself as distinct from others. A. social B. self-conscious C. penitent D.

Q: _____ especially plays a key role in children's ability to manage the demands and conflicts they face in interacting with others. It is an important component of executive function. A. Moral integrity B. Emotion regulation C. Moral development D.

Q: Four-year-old Harlan says, "I'm always happy!" Researchers suggest that Harlan, like other kids his own age, has self-descriptions that are typically: A. reflective of reality. B. reflective of what others think about them. C. abstract and magical. D.

Q: In Erikson's portrait of early childhood, the young child clearly has begun to develop _____, which is the representation of self, the substance and content of self-conceptions. A. self-control B. self-confidence C. self-understanding D.

Q: According to Erik Erikson, the great governor of initiative is: A. conscience. B. independence. C. fear. D.

Q: According to Erik Erikson, the psychosocial stage that characterizes early childhood is: A. initiative versus guilt. B. autonomy versus shame and doubt. C. industry versus inferiority. D.

Q: Identify the inability to distinguish between one's own perspective and the perspective of another.

Q: Identify the substage of preoperational thought in which the young child gains the ability to mentally represent an object that is not present.

Q: Identify a common nutritional problem in early childhood that results from the failure to eat adequate amounts of quality meats and dark green vegetables and causes chronic fatigue.

Q: Identify an Italian physician-turned-educator who at the beginning of the twentieth-century crafted a revolutionary approach to young children's education. In this approach, children are given considerable freedom and spontaneity in choosing activities. Maria Montessori

Q: Identify a cognitive theorist who emphasized the social contexts of learning and the construction of knowledge through social interaction.

Q: Identify the researcher who showed that when the child's attention to relevant aspects of the conservation task is improved, the child is more likely to conserve. Rochel Gelman

Q: Critics of universal preschool education say that: A. quality preschools prepare children for school readiness and academic success. B. it is more important to improve preschool education for young children who are disadvantaged rather than funding preschool education for all 4-year-old children. C. preschool programs decrease the likelihood that once children go to elementary and secondary school they will be retained in a grade or drop out of school. D.

Q: Critics of universal preschool education argue that: A. quality preschools prepare children for school readiness and academic success. B. research has not proven that non-disadvantaged children benefit from attending a preschool. C. the gains attributed to preschool and kindergarten education are often understated. D.

Q: Which of the following was cited by Zigler and his colleagues supporting universal preschool in the United States? A. It is more important to improve preschool education for young children who are disadvantaged rather than funding preschool education for all 4-year-old children. B. The quality of inner-city schools has often been found to be questionable. C. Research has proven that the gains attributed to preschool and kindergarten education are often overstated. D.

Q: Competent early childhood programs should focus: A. on cognitive development and socioemotional development. B. exclusively on cognitive development. C. on preoperational skills. D.

Q: Two current controversies in early childhood education involve: A. curriculum and universal preschool education in the United States. B. the quality of inner-city schools and free education to all. C. the use of corporal punishment in schools and the use of uniforms. D.

Q: Which of the following is TRUE about Head Start programs? A. They only provide for low-income families. B. They focus on children of a particular ethnic origin. C. They have negative effect on young children's language development. D.

Q: Early Head Start was established in 1995 to serve children from _____ of age. A. 3 to 5 years B. birth to 6 years C. 5 to 7 years D.

Q: In 1965, the federal government began an effort to break the cycle of poverty and poor education for young children in the United States through: A. the Maria Montessori Program. B. Emancipation Undertaking. C. the Reggio Emilia Project. D.

Q: _____ is based on knowledge of the typical progress of children within an age span, as well as the uniqueness of the child. A. The child-centered kindergarten B. Developmentally appropriate practice C. The Montessori approach D.

Q: Which of the following is a criticism related to the Montessori approach? A. It lays too much emphasis on social interaction. B. It does not employ self-corrective materials. C. It lays too much emphasis on imaginative play. D.

Q: Dorothy is enrolled in a preschool where she spends much of her time in unstructured activity. She plays with the different toys she chooses, and her teacher acts as a facilitator rather than a director. Which of the following approaches is Dorothy's preschool using? A. Kindergarten B. Rogerian C. Montessori D.

Q: Nurturing is a key aspect of the _____, which emphasizes the education of the whole child and concern for his or her physical, cognitive, and socioemotional development. A. child-centered kindergarten B. Montessori approach C. developmentally appropriate practice D.

Q: The _____ is a philosophy of education in which children are given considerable freedom and spontaneity in choosing activities. A. child-centered kindergarten B. Montessori approach C. developmentally appropriate practice D.

Q: Developmentally appropriate practices at the kindergarten level are likely to be: A. child-centered. B. standardized. C. purpose-centered. D.

Q: Five-year-old Donna speaks in shorter, simpler sentences to her baby brother. She speaks in a very informal way with her friends and uses a more formal language with her father's friends. Donna is demonstrating her grasp of: A. pragmatics. B. morphology. C. syntax. D.

Q: Around _____ years of age, children learn to change their speech style to suit the situation. A. 6 to 7 B. 7 to 8 C. 2 to 3 D.

Q: By the time they enter first grade, it is estimated that children know about _____ words. A. 1,200 B. 8,000 C. 14,000 D.

Q: Jean Berko's experiment involving "wugs" demonstrated that young children who took part in the experiment knew: A. the phonological rules. B. the rules of syntax. C. the pragmatic rules. D.

Q: 3-year-old Zelda always asks questions like "Where Daddy is going?" and "What Mommy is doing?" This indicates that she is yet to learn the auxiliary-inversion rule and also to apply the rules of: A. pragmatics. B. morphology. C. syntax. D.

Q: Pointing to a tree, young Leo says "Bird flied away." Leo's interesting but incorrect use of "-ed" in "flied" shows that he is trying to learn the _____ rules of language. A. phonological B. morphological C. pragmatic D.

Q: Which of the following statements regarding autism in children is TRUE? A. Higher-functioning children with autism show reasonable progress in understanding others' desires. B. Children with autism have difficulty in understanding others' beliefs and emotions solely due to theory of mind deficits. C. Children with autism are a homogeneous group. D.

Q: Cynthia shows a number of behaviors different from children her age, including deficits in social interaction and communication as well as repetitive behaviors or interests. She is indifferent toward others and prefers to be alone. She is more interested in objects than people. It is MOST likely that she suffers from _____. A. insomnia B. narcolepsy C. anemia D.

Q: It is now accepted that autism is linked to: A. genetic and brain abnormalities. B. personality characteristics of the parents. C. ineffective vaccination. D.

Q: Approximately _____ children is estimated to have some sort of autism spectrum disorder. A. 1 in 50 B. 1 in 150 C. 1 in 300 D.

Q: A group of children were put through a task in which they were asked to say the word "night" when they saw a picture of a sun and the word "day" when they saw a picture of a moon and stars. This is an example of a(n) _____ function that describes several functions, such as inhibition and planning, that are important for flexible, future-oriented behavior. A. executive B. social C. recall D.

Q: Several operations, such as inhibition and planning, that are important for flexible, future-oriented behavior and may also be connected to theory of mind development are known as: A. operational thought. B. instrumental activities. C. executive function. D.

Q: It is only by age 7 that children begin to recognize all of the following EXCEPT: A. there can be more than one correct opinions on an issue. B. people's behaviors do not necessarily reflect their thoughts and feelings. C. people have different interpretations of the same event. D.

Q: One of the criticisms for using a false-belief task as an indicator for understanding the thoughts of children is that: A. a false-belief task is a complicated one that involves a number of factors. B. it has at least four possible outcomes. C. a false belief task is too simple. D.

Q: The realization that people can have false beliefs develops in a majority of children by the time they are _____ years old. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D.

Q: 18-month-old Alan hates spinach but says "Yum!" when he sees his mother eating her favorite spinach casserole. This indicates that: A. he will also like spinach when he grows up. B. he recognizes that someone else may have different desires from his own. C. he has started to recognize false beliefs. D.

Q: In the context of perception, by _____ years of age, a child recognizes that another person will see what is in front of his or her own eyes instead of what is in front of the child's eyes. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D.